220-1201 CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 6 Q101-120

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Question 101:

Which type of storage media uses magnetic platters to store data and has moving read/write heads?

A) Solid State Drive
B) Hard Disk Drive
C) Optical Disc
D) USB Flash Drive

Answer: B) Hard Disk Drive

Explanation:

A) Solid State Drives (SSDs) use NAND flash memory to store data electronically. They have no moving parts, which allows faster random access, lower latency, and greater durability against shock or vibration. SSDs are commonly used in laptops and servers for high-speed storage. While they outperform traditional drives in speed and reliability, they do not use magnetic platters or moving heads, making them unsuitable for the description provided.

B) Hard Disk Drives (HDDs) use magnetic platters to store data and employ moving read/write heads to read or write information. The platters spin at high speeds, and the actuator arm positions the heads precisely to access tracks and sectors. HDDs offer large storage capacities at a lower cost per gigabyte compared to SSDs. The mechanical components introduce latency and susceptibility to damage from shock or vibration, but HDDs remain popular for bulk storage, backups, and archival purposes. They are the classic example of magnetic storage with moving components, perfectly matching the description in the question.

C) Optical discs, including CDs, DVDs, and Blu-ray discs, store data using reflective surfaces and laser technology. They do not use magnetic platters or read/write heads in the mechanical sense. Data is accessed by a laser beam that reads or writes patterns on the disc surface. Optical media are suitable for distribution and archival, but do not meet the criteria of magnetic platter storage with moving heads.

D) USB flash drives are solid-state storage devices using NAND memory without moving parts. They connect via USB ports and are highly portable. While convenient for data transfer and backup, they do not utilize magnetic platters or mechanical read/write heads, so they do not satisfy the criteria of the question.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The storage media that uses magnetic platters and moving read/write heads is a Hard Disk Drive (HDD). SSDs, optical discs, and USB drives use different technologies and lack mechanical moving parts. Therefore, B) Hard Disk Drive is correct.

Question 102:

Which type of malware encrypts files on a system and demands payment for the decryption key?

A) Virus
B) Ransomware
C) Spyware
D) Worm

Answer: B) Ransomware

Explanation:

A) Viruses are malicious programs that attach to files or executables and spread when those files are executed. They can corrupt data, modify files, or affect system performance. While viruses can damage systems, they do not specifically encrypt user files and demand a ransom for access, which differentiates them from ransomware.

B) Ransomware encrypts files on a victim’s computer or network, making them inaccessible. Attackers then demand payment, usually in cryptocurrency, in exchange for a decryption key. Ransomware can propagate through phishing emails, malicious downloads, or exploit kits. It can target individuals, businesses, or critical infrastructure, making it a serious security threat. Preventing ransomware involves regular backups, updated software, network segmentation, and cautious email practices. The distinctive characteristic of ransomware is the financial extortion component linked to file encryption, distinguishing it from other malware types.

C) Spyware is designed to secretly monitor user activity, gather information such as passwords or browsing habits, and transmit it to an attacker. While spyware can compromise privacy and security, it does not encrypt files or demand payment, so it does not fit the description in the question.

D) Worms are self-replicating malware programs that spread across networks without user interaction. They exploit vulnerabilities to propagate rapidly, but typically do not encrypt files for ransom. Worms can consume bandwidth and disrupt network operations, but they lack the extortion component central to ransomware.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The malware that encrypts files and demands payment is ransomware. Viruses and worms spread or damage systems, and spyware collects information, but only ransomware combines encryption with a financial ransom. Therefore, B) Ransomware is correct.

Question 103:

Which wireless security protocol is the MOST secure for home Wi-Fi networks?

A) WEP
B) WPA
C) WPA2
D) WPS

Answer: C) WPA2

Explanation:

A) WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) was one of the earliest Wi-Fi security protocols. It uses static encryption keys that are easily cracked with modern tools. WEP has known vulnerabilities and is considered insecure for home or enterprise networks. Using WEP today exposes networks to unauthorized access and data interception.

B) WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) improved upon WEP by introducing dynamic keys and the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP). While more secure than WEP, WPA has vulnerabilities that can be exploited, particularly with weak passwords. It represents a transitional standard but is less secure than modern protocols.

C) WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access II) is currently the most secu,r,e widely available protocol for home networks. It uses AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) for strong encryption and provides robust protection against unauthorized access. WPA2 mitigates vulnerabilities present in WEP and WPA, making it suitable for both home and enterprise environments. Properly configured with a strong passphrase, WPA2 effectively secures Wi-Fi communications.

D) WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup) is not a security protocol itself but a convenience feature that allows devices to connect to Wi-Fi via PIN or button press. WPS has known security flaws, particularly the PIN method, which can be brute-forced, making it less secure than WPA2. WPS should be disabled to maintain network security.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The protocol offering the strongest security for home Wi-Fi is WPA2. WEP is outdated, WPA is less robust, and WPS is a convenience feature with vulnerabilities. Therefore, C) WPA2 is correct.

Question 104:

Which component provides temporary storage for data and instructions currently in use by the CPU?

A) ROM
B) Hard Drive
C) RAM
D) Cache

Answer: C) RAM

Explanation:

A) ROM (Read-Only Memory) stores permanent instructions such as firmware. Data in ROM cannot typically be modified during normal operation. While essential for boot processes, ROM does not provide temporary storage for active CPU operations.

B) Hard drives provide long-term storage for files, programs, and operating systems. They are non-volatile but much slower than RAM. Data on the hard drive must be loaded into RAM for the CPU to process it. Hard drives do not serve as temporary memory for active computations.

C) RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile memory used by the CPU to store data and instructions that are actively in use. RAM allows rapid read and write access, enabling applications and processes to run efficiently. When a program is executed, its instructions are loaded from storage into RAM for the CPU to access quickly. RAM is cleared when the system powers down, emphasizing its temporary nature.

D) Cache memory is a small, extremely fast memory located close to the CPU cores. Cache stores frequently used instructions and data to reduce latency. While critical for performance, cache supplements RAM rather than replacing it as the primary temporary storage for running programs.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The component providing temporary storage for data and instructions actively used by the CPU is RAM. ROM stores permanent instructions, hard drives provide long-term storage, and cache enhances performance but does not serve as the main working memory. Therefore, C) RAM is correct.

Question 105:

Which cloud service model provides virtualized computing resources such as servers, storage, and networking?

A) SaaS
B) PaaS
C) IaaS
D) DaaS

Answer: C) IaaS

Explanation:

A) SaaS (Software as a Service) delivers fully functional applications over the internet without requiring local installation. Users interact with software, not infrastructure. While convenient, SaaS focuses on software delivery, not virtualized servers or storage.

B) PaaS (Platform as a Service) provides a development platform for building, testing, and deploying applications. Developers manage applications while the provider handles the underlying infrastructure. PaaS does not provide direct access to raw virtualized computing resources like IaaS.

C) IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) delivers virtualized computing resources such as servers, storage, and networking over the internet. Users can deploy operating systems, install applications, and configure environments while the provider maintains the physical hardware. IaaS offers flexibility, scalability, and control over computing resources without the overhead of managing physical data centers. It is widely used for hosting virtual machines, cloud storage, and enterprise applications.

D) DaaS (Desktop as a Service) provides virtual desktops hosted in the cloud, allowing users to access a full desktop environment remotely. DaaS focuses on providing a complete OS experience rather than raw infrastructure for building and managing servers.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The cloud model that provides virtualized computing resources is IaaS. SaaS delivers software, PaaS provides development platforms, and DaaS delivers virtual desktops. Therefore, C) IaaS is correct.

Question 106:

Which connector type is commonly used for twisted-pair Ethernet cables in LAN networks?

A) RJ-11
B) RJ-45
C) USB-C
D) HDMI

Answer: B) RJ-45

Explanation:

A) RJ-11 connectors are primarily used for telephone lines. They have fewer pins than RJ-45 and are not suitable for Ethernet networks. Using an RJ-11 connector on twisted-pair LAN cables will not properly interface with networking equipment because the pinout and number of contacts differ. While RJ-11 can physically fit into an RJ-45 port in some cases, it does not support proper network communication and can damage ports or create connectivity issues.

B) RJ-45 connectors are the standard for twisted-pair Ethernet cables used in LAN networks. They have eight pins corresponding to the four twisted pairs inside Cat5e, Cat6, or higher cabling. RJ-45 connectors follow T568A or T568B wiring standards, ensuring proper alignment of transmit and receive pairs. These connectors enable reliable networking for computers, switches, routers, and other devices. RJ-45 is widely recognized as the default connector for Ethernet, supporting speeds from 10 Mbps to 10 Gbps depending on the cable category.

C) USB-C connectors are primarily used for peripheral connectivity, charging, and data transfer between devices such as smartphones, laptops, and external drives. They are not designed for Ethernet LAN connections, and although adapters exist, USB-C is not the standard connector for twisted-pair networking.

D) HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) connectors are used to transmit high-definition audio and video between devices like monitors, TVs, and projectors. HDMI does not transmit Ethernet signals in standard network setups and cannot replace RJ-45 for LAN cabling.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The connector type designed for twisted-pair Ethernet cables in LAN networks is RJ-45. RJ-11 is for telephones, USB-C and HDMI serve other connectivity purposes. Therefore, B) RJ-45 is correct.

Question 107:

Which Windows utility is used to manage hard drive partitions and volumes?

A) Task Manager
B) Disk Management
C) Device Manager
D) Event Viewer

Answer: B) Disk Management

Explanation:

A) Task Manager provides real-time information on running processes, CPU, memory, disk, and network usage. While useful for monitoring system performance and terminating applications, it does not provide functionality to create, resize, or delete partitions or manage storage volumes.

B) Disk Management is a built-in Windows utility that allows users to create, format, delete, extend, and shrink partitions on internal or external storage devices. It also supports assigning drive letters, initializing new disks, and converting disk types between MBR and GPT. Disk Management is essential for configuring storage layouts, preparing new drives for use, and managing volumes without third-party software. It does not manage processes or devices but focuses on storage organization and partitioning.

C) Device Manager allows users to view, update, disable, or uninstall hardware devices and drivers. While it can show whether a storage device is recognized, it does not provide tools for partitioning or formatting drives. Device Manager is hardware-focused, not volume management-focused.

D) Event Viewer records system, application, and security logs. It is useful for troubleshooting errors and monitoring events, but cannot modify storage layouts or manage partitions. Event Viewer helps analyze system behavior, but is it nrerelated partition management?

Reasoning about the correct answer: The Windows utility designed for managing hard drive partitions and volumes is Disk Management. Task Manager monitors resources, Device Manager handles hardware, and Event Viewer logs events. Therefore, B) Disk Management is correct.

Question 108:

Which IP address class provides a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0 and supports a very large number of hosts per network?

A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D

Answer: A) Class A

Explanation:

A) Class A IP addresses range from 1.0.0.0 to 126.255.255.255 with a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. This allows up to approximately 16 million hosts per network. Class A is suitable for extremely large networks, such as those used by ISPs or very large organizations. Its design prioritizes a small number of networks with massive host capacity, making it inefficient for smaller networks.

B) Class B addresses range from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255 with a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0, supporting thousands of hosts per network. Class B is suitable for medium to large networks, such as universities or corporations, but cannot match the host capacity of Class A networks.

C) Class C addresses range from 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255 with a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. They support up to 254 hosts per network and are typically used for small to medium-sized LANs. While efficient for smaller networks, Class C cannot handle millions of hosts.

D) Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are reserved for multicast communication. Class D is not used for standard host networks and does not provide a default subnet mask for general IP assignment.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The class that provides a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0 and supports a very large number of hosts per network is Class A. Class B and C have smaller host ranges, and Class D is for multicast. Therefore, A) Class A is correct.

Question 109:

Which command-line tool in Windows can be used to display the IP configuration of a device?

A) ping
B) ipconfig
C) tracert
D) netstat

Answer: B) ipconfig

Explanation:

A) ping is a command-line utility that sends ICMP echo requests to a target host to verify connectivity and measure latency. While useful for testing network connections, ping does not display IP configuration information.

B) ipconfig is the primary Windows tool to display network interface details, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers. It also allows users to release and renew DHCP leases. ipconfig is critical for troubleshooting connectivity issues, confirming IP assignments, and verifying network settings.

C) tracert (or traceroute) traces the path packets take from a source to a destination, listing each hop along the route. While it helps identify routing problems, it does not show local IP configuration.

D) netstat provides information about active network connections, listening ports, routing tables, and protocol statistics. It is valuable for diagnosing network activity, but it does not display the device’s IP configuration.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The command-line tool used to display a device’s IP configuration is ipconfig. Ping tests connectivity, tracert traces paths, and netstat shows connections, making them unsuitable for configuration display. Therefore, B) ipconfig is correct.

Question 110:

Which type of printer creates characters by striking an inked ribbon onto paper?

A) Inkjet
B) Laser
C) Dot Matrix
D) Thermal

Answer: C) Dot Matrix

Explanation:

A) Inkjet printers spray liquid ink directly onto paper through nozzles. They do not mechanically strike the paper and do not use an inked ribbon. Inkjets are known for high-resolution printing and color reproduction, but they do not meet the criteria of impact printing.

B) Laser printers use toner powder and a heat fuser to bond the toner to paper. They are non-impact printers and do not physically strike the paper with an inked ribbon. Laser printers are fast and produce sharp images, but are not dot matrix style.

C) Dot matrix printers use a print head with pins that physically strike an inked ribbon to transfer characters onto paper. They are mechanical impact printers, suitable for multipart forms, invoices, and receipts. While they are slower and lower resolution than inkjet or laser printers, they are durable and cost-effective for specific industrial or business applications.

D) Thermal printers create images by heating heat-sensitive paper. They do not use inked ribbons or mechanical impact. Thermal printing is commonly used for receipts and labels, but is unrelated to the traditional dot matrix method.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The printer that creates characters by striking an inked ribbon onto paper is a dot matrix printer. Inkjet sprays ink, laser uses toner and a fuser, and thermal relies on heat-sensitive paper. Therefore, C) Dot Matrix is correct.

Question 111:

Which type of network topology connects all devices to a single central hub or switch?

A) Star
B) Bus
C) Ring
D) Mesh

Answer: A) Star

Explanation:

A) Star topology connects all network devices to a central hub, switch, or router. Each device has a dedicated connection to the central point. If one device fails, it does not affect the rest of the network. The central hub or switch manages traffic and reduces collision domains when a switch is used. Star topology is widely used in modern LANs because it is easy to troubleshoot, expand, and manage. Cable failure affects only the connected device, not the entire network, which enhances reliability.

B) Bus topology connects all devices along a single backbone cable. Data travels in both directions along the cable, and collisions can occur. A failure in the backbone cable can take down the entire network, making bus topology less reliable than star topology. Troubleshooting can also be more difficult, and it is rarely used in modern Ethernet LANs.

C) Ring topology connects devices in a circular fashion, where each device is connected to exactly two others. Data travels around the ring in one direction or both directions in a dual-ring setup. A failure in the ring can disrupt communication unless redundancy mechanisms like a dual ring or self-healing protocols are in place. Ring topologies are mostly used in specialized networks like token ring setups, not typical home or office LANs.

D) Mesh topology connects each device to every other device, providing multiple redundant paths. Mesh networks are highly fault-tolerant but require extensive cabling and are complex to install and manage. Mesh is typically used in WANs, data centers, or wireless mesh networks rather than standard office LANs.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The topology that connects all devices to a central hub or switch is a star topology. Bus, ring, and mesh topologies differ in connection patterns, redundancy, and fault tolerance. Therefore, A) Star is correct.

Question 112:

Which Windows tool can be used to view detailed hardware and driver information?

A) Task Manager
B) Device Manager
C) Disk Management
D) Event Viewer

Answer: B) Device Manager

Explanation:

A) Task Manager provides real-time monitoring of CPU, memory, disk, and network usage, as well as running processes and application performance. It is not designed for viewing detailed hardware or driver information, so it cannot provide insights into installed devices or their drivers.

B) Device Manager allows users to view, update, uninstall, disable, and troubleshoot hardware devices on a Windows system. It provides information about installed devices such as CPUs, GPUs, network adapters, storage controllers, and peripherals. Device Manager also shows driver status, conflicts, and hardware resources like IRQs or memory addresses. It is essential for diagnosing hardware issues, installing updated drivers, and confirming device recognition. Device Manager does not show performance metrics but focuses on hardware configuration and driver management.

C) Disk Management is used to manage storage devices, partitions, and volumes. While it displays hard drives and attached storage, it does not provide detailed information about all hardware components or drivers, making it unsuitable for general hardware inspection.

D) Event Viewer logs system, application, and security events. It helps troubleshoot software and system errors, but does not provide detailed device or driver information. Event Viewer is for analyzing historical events rather than inspecting hardware directly.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The Windows tool for viewing detailed hardware and driver information is Device Manager. Task Manager monitors performance, Disk Management handles storage, and Event Viewer logs system events. Therefore, B) Device Manager is correct.

Question 113:

Which type of IP address is assigned for a device on a network that does not require manual configuration and can change over time?

A) Static IP
B) Dynamic IP
C) Reserved IP
D) Public IP

Answer: B) Dynamic IP

Explanation:

A) Static IP addresses are manually assigned and remain fixed until the administrator changes them. Devices requiring consistent addresses, such as servers, printers, and routers, often use static IPs. Static IPs do not change over time and are not automatically assigned, which differentiates them from dynamic IPs.

B) Dynamic IP addresses are automatically assigned by a DHCP server. When a device connects to the network, it receives an available IP address from a pool. Dynamic IPs can change over time, depending on lease duration or network reconfiguration. This approach reduces administrative overhead, avoids address conflicts, and is ideal for client devices like laptops, smartphones, or IoT devices. DHCP ensures efficient IP management while allowing devices to connect seamlessly without manual intervention.

C) Reserved IP addresses are assigned by DHCP to specific devices using MAC address mapping. While assigned automatically, they remain consistent for the designated device. Reserved IPs are essentially static from the client’s perspective, which makes them different from general dynamic IP assignments.

D) Public IP addresses are routable on the Internet. They can be static or dynamic, depending on the Internet Service Provider. Public IP addresses describe location on the internet rather than the method of assignment, so the question’s focus on automatic assignment corresponds to dynamic addressing, not the public/private distinction.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The type of IP address that is automatically assigned and can change over time is a dynamic IP address. Static IPs require manual configuration, reserved IPs are fixed for specific devices, and public IPs refer to the network scope. Therefore, B) Dynamic IP is correct.

Question 114:

Which type of cable can transmit data using light pulses for extremely high-speed and long-distance connections?

A) Coaxial
B) Fiber Optic
C) Cat6 Ethernet
D) Twisted Pair

Answer: B) Fiber Optic

Explanation:

A) Coaxial cable uses a central conductor with shielding to carry electrical signals. Coax can support moderate distances and speeds, but is susceptible to electromagnetic interference and cannot achieve the extreme bandwidth or distance provided by fiber optics.

B) Fiber optic cables transmit data as pulses of light through glass or plastic fibers. They offer very high-speed data transmission, minimal signal degradation over long distances, and immunity to electromagnetic interference. Fiber optics is used in backbone networks, data centers, and high-speed internet connections. They require specialized connectors and transceivers but are ideal for scenarios demanding low latency and high throughput.

C) Cat6 Ethernet cables are twisted-pair copper cables capable of supporting high-speed LAN connections up to 10 Gbps over limited distances (typically up to 55 meters for 10G). While fast and reliable for LAN environments, copper cables cannot match the speed and distance capabilities of fiber optic cables.

D) Twisted-pair cables reduce electromagnetic interference by twisting conductors together. While essential for Ethernet networks, they rely on electrical signals rather than light pulses, limiting maximum speed and distance compared to fiber optic technology.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The cable type that uses light pulses for extremely high-speed and long-distance connections is fiber optic. Coaxial, Cat6, and twisted-pair cables rely on electrical signals and cannot match fiber optic performance. Therefore, B) Fiber Optic is correct.

Question 115:

Which mobile device feature allows remote tracking, locking, or wiping of the device if it is lost or stolen?

A) Screen lock
B) Find My Device
C) Airplane Mode
D) VPN

Answer: B) Find My Device

Explanation:

A) Screen lock secures the device locally using a PIN, password, pattern, or biometric authentication. While it prevents unauthorized access to the device, it does not allow remote tracking, locking, or wiping in case of loss or theft.

B) Find My Device (or equivalent services on iOS/Android) enables users to remotely locate, lock, and erase their mobile device if it is lost or stolen. The feature uses GPS, Wi-Fi, or network triangulation to pinpoint the device’s location. Users can send messages, lock the screen, or initiate a factory reset to protect sensitive data. This service is crucial for security, protecting personal information, and recovering lost devices.

C) Airplane Mode disables wireless communications such as Wi-Fi, cellular, and Bluetooth. While it stops data transmission, it does not provide remote control, tracking, or data wiping features. In fact, enabling airplane mode on a lost device may prevent remote tracking.

D) VPN (Virtual Private Network) encrypts network traffic to protect privacy over public networks. VPNs are important for secure communication, but do not provide tracking, locking, or remote wiping capabilities for lost devices.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The feature that allows remote tracking, locking, or wiping of a lost or stolen device is Find My Device. Screen lock, airplane mode, and VPN do not provide these remote management capabilities. Therefore, B) Find My Device is correct.

Question 116:

Which component converts AC power from a wall outlet into DC power usable by a computer?

A) Power Supply Unit
B) Battery
C) Voltage Regulator
D) Transformer

Answer: A) Power Supply Unit

Explanation:

A) A Power Supply Unit (PSU) converts alternating current (AC) from a wall outlet into direct current (DC) at various voltages needed by computer components. It provides stable power for the motherboard, CPU, storage devices, graphics cards, and peripherals. Modern PSUs include multiple rails for 3.3V, 5V, and 12V outputs, along with protection mechanisms against overvoltage, overcurrent, and short circuits. The PSU is an essential component of any desktop computer, ensuring reliable operation and protecting sensitive electronics from electrical damage.

B) Batteries store energy in chemical form and supply DC power when disconnected from the main power source. Laptops, smartphones, and UPS devices use batteries, but they do not convert AC from a wall outlet into DC—they only provide stored DC power. Batteries are supplementary power sources rather than the primary conversion unit for desktops.

C) Voltage regulators maintain a consistent voltage output to components, protecting against fluctuations. While they stabilize power, they do not convert AC to DC; they operate on already converted DC voltage to ensure stability for sensitive components. Voltage regulators are often integrated into the PSU or motherboard, but are not standalone AC-to-DC converters.

D) Transformers adjust AC voltage levels, either stepping up or stepping down the voltage. They are used in electrical grids and appliances, but do not convert AC to DC. While some PSUs incorporate transformers internally as part of the conversion process, a transformer alone does not complete the AC-to-DC conversion required for a computer.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The component responsible for converting AC power from a wall outlet into usable DC for a computer is the Power Supply Unit. Batteries, voltage regulators, and transformers serve complementary or distinct functions but do not directly perform this AC-to-DC conversion. Therefore, A) Power Supply Unit is correct.

Question 117:

Which wireless standard operates in the 5 GHz frequency band and provides faster speeds with less interference?

A) 802.11b
B) 802.11g
C) 802.11n
D) 802.11ac

Answer: D) 802.11ac

Explanation:

A) 802.11b operates in the 2.4 GHz band and offers speeds up to 11 Mbps. It is highly susceptible to interference from other devices using the same frequency, such as microwaves and cordless phones. While pioneering Wi-Fi for home and small office networks, its speed and reliability are limited compared to modern standards.

B) 802.11g also operates in the 2.4 GHz band, offering speeds up to 54 Mbps. It provides better performance than 802.11b but still suffers from interference and congestion due to the crowded 2.4 GHz spectrum. 802.11g is backward-compatible with 802.11b devices but does not utilize the 5 GHz frequency.

C) 802.11n can operate on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, supporting speeds up to 600 Mbps using MIMO technology. While faster and more versatile than earlier standards, it does not achieve the maximum throughput or efficiency of the latest 5 GHz-focused standard. 802.11n is transitional, supporting dual bands but still limited in bandwidth compared to newer technologies.

D) 802.11ac operates primarily in the 5 GHz band, providing higher data rates, improved throughput, and reduced interference due to the less congested frequency. Using advanced features such as wider channel bandwidths, MIMO, and beamforming, 802.11ac delivers speeds up to several Gbps in optimal conditions. It is widely used for modern home and enterprise networks requiring high-performance wireless connectivity.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The wireless standard operating in the 5 GHz band with faster speeds and less interference is 802.11ac. 802.11b and 802.11g operate in 2.4 GHz, and 802.11n is dual-band but less optimized for high-speed 5 GHz performance. Therefore, D) 802.11ac is correct.

Question 118:

Which device directs network traffic based on MAC addresses within a LAN?

A) Hub
B) Switch
C) Router
D) Modem

Answer: B) Switch

Explanation:

A) A hub broadcasts incoming network traffic to all connected devices, regardless of the destination address. Hubs operate at the physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model, making them inefficient for larger networks. They do not inspect MAC addresses or direct traffic intelligently, resulting in unnecessary collisions and network congestion.

B) A switch directs network traffic based on MAC addresses, forwarding frames only to the appropriate destination port. Switches operate at the data link layer (Layer 2) and maintain a MAC address table to map devices to specific ports. This selective forwarding reduces collisions, improves efficiency, and allows multiple simultaneous conversations on the network. Managed switches offer additional features such as VLANs, QoS, and port monitoring, enhancing network control and security.

C) Routers operate at the network layer (Layer 3), forwarding packets between different networks using IP addresses. While routers direct traffic across networks or subnets, they do not primarily use MAC addresses to forward frames within a LAN. Routers also provide NAT, firewall capabilities, and WAN connectivity.

D) Modems convert digital signals to analog signals for transmission over telephone lines or cable systems. Modems provide internet connectivity but do not manage traffic within a LAN or forward frames based on MAC addresses.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The device that directs traffic based on MAC addresses within a LAN is a switch. Hubs broadcast, routers forward by IP between networks, and modems handle signal conversion. Therefore, B) Switch is correct.

Question 119:

Which type of expansion card is used to improve video performance for gaming or orgraphics-intensivee applications?

A) Sound Card
B) Network Interface Card
C) Graphics Processing Unit
D) Capture Card

Answer: C) Graphics Processing Unit

Explanation:

A) Sound cards handle audio input and output. They provide improved sound quality, surround sound, and support for professional audio applications. While essential for audio performance, sound cards do not affect video or graphics rendering.

B) Network Interface Cards (NICs) provide network connectivity via Ethernet or wireless connections. They manage data transmission to and from a network but do not improve video or graphics performance. NICs are essential for networking but irrelevant to gaming graphics.

C) Graphics Processing Units (GPUs) or graphics cards handle rendering of images, 3D models, textures, and video playback. GPUs contain specialized cores optimized for parallel processing, significantly improving frame rates, image quality, and rendering speed. High-performance GPUs are essential for gaming, video editing, CAD, and other graphics-intensive tasks. Modern GPUs often include dedicated VRAM for storing textures and frame buffers, further enhancing visual performance.

D) Capture cards allow video input from cameras or external sources to be recorded or streamed to a computer. While useful for content creation, they do not enhance rendering performance for games or graphics processing within the computer.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The expansion card that improves video performance for gaming or graphics-intensive applications is the GPU. Sound cards enhance audio, NICs manage networking, and capture cards handle video input, not rendering. Therefore, C) Graphics Processing Unit is correct.

Question 120:

Which utility in Windows can be used to schedule tasks to run automatically at specific times or events?

A) Task Scheduler
B) Event Viewer
C) Disk Management
D) Device Manager

Answer: A) Task Scheduler

Explanation:

A) Task Scheduler allows users to automate tasks on Windows computers. Users can schedule scripts, programs, backups, or maintenance tasks to run at specific times, during system events, or based on triggers such as logon or idle state. It is widely used for automation, maintenance, and system administration, reducing manual intervention and ensuring regular task execution. Task Scheduler supports complex triggers, conditions, and actions, providing robust task management for both individual users and administrators.

B) Event Viewer records system, application, and security events. While it logs events that can be used as triggers for certain tasks, Event Viewer itself does not schedule tasks. It is primarily an analytical tool for troubleshooting and monitoring system behavior.

C) Disk Management is used for managing storage devices, partitions, and volumes. It does not schedule tasks or automate processes.

Task Scheduler is a built-in Windows utility that allows users and administrators to automate tasks on a computer. It enables scheduling programs, scripts, or commands to run at specific times or in response to certain events. Tasks can be set to occur daily, weekly, monthly, at system startup, or when a user logs on. Task Scheduler is useful for automating repetitive maintenance tasks such as disk cleanup, software updates, backups, or sending alerts. It helps improve efficiency and ensures that important system or application operations are executed consistently without requiring manual intervention. Advanced features include creating tasks that run with elevated privileges, setting conditions such as running only if the computer is idle, and specifying actions based on triggers, making it a powerful tool for system administration.

Event Viewer is a Windows tool that allows users and administrators to view detailed logs of system, security, and application events. It provides information about errors, warnings, and informational messages generated by the operating system or installed applications. Event Viewer is commonly used for troubleshooting issues, diagnosing system failures, or analyzing security incidents. It organizes events into categories such as Application, Security, and System, and includes details such as event ID, source, date, time, and description. While Event Viewer provides comprehensive insight into what has occurred on the system, it does not automate tasks or execute programs; its purpose is strictly for monitoring and analyzing events.

Disk Management is a Windows utility used to manage storage devices and volumes on a computer. It allows users to view and modify disk partitions, create or format volumes, assign drive letters, shrink or extend partitions, and initialize new disks. Disk Management is crucial for organizing storage, optimizing disk usage, and preparing drives for operating system installation or data storage. While it provides powerful tools for managing physical and logical disks, it does not schedule tasks or automate processes; its functionality is limited to storage management and configuration.

Device Manager is a Windows tool that provides an organized view of all hardware installed on a computer, including processors, network adapters, storage devices, and peripherals. It allows users to manage hardware by updating drivers, enabling or disabling devices, and troubleshooting hardware issues. Device Manager is essential for maintaining system stability and resolving hardware-related problems. However, it does not provide the ability to schedule automated tasks or run programs at specific times; its primary focus is on hardware management and driver configuration.

In summary, Task Scheduler automates the execution of programs, scripts, or commands at scheduled times or in response to specific triggers, helping improve efficiency and consistency in system operations. Event Viewer monitors and records system and application events for troubleshooting and analysis. Disk Management organizes and configures storage devices and partitions, while Device Manager manages hardware components and drivers. Among these tools, only Task Scheduler is designed to schedule and automate tasks, making it the correct answer in this context. Each tool serves a unique purpose in system administration, but Task Scheduler is the one that enables planned, automated execution of tasks to maintain or manage the system effectively.

D) Device Manager is for viewing, updating, and troubleshooting hardware devices and drivers. It does not provide task scheduling functionality.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The Windows utility that schedules tasks to run automatically at specific times or events is Task Scheduler. Event Viewer logs events, Disk Management handles storage, and Device Manager manages hardware. Therefore, A) Task Scheduler is correct.