220-1201  CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 7 Q121-140

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Question 121:

Which type of malware secretly monitors user activities, such as keystrokes, browsing habits, and login credentials?

A) Trojan
B) Spyware
C) Worm
D) Adware

Answer: B) Spyware

Explanation:

A) Trojans are malicious programs disguised as legitimate software. They often create backdoors or allow attackers remote access, but not all Trojans are designed to monitor user activity continuously. While some Trojans may include spyware functionality, the general term “Trojan” refers to any malware that tricks users into installing it, regardless of the monitoring behavior.

B) Spyware is designed specifically to monitor user activity without consent. It can capture keystrokes, browser history, login credentials, and personal information, sending it to an attacker. Spyware often runs silently in the background, making detection difficult. It can be installed through malicious downloads, software bundles, or compromised websites. Modern operating systems and antivirus software include tools to detect and remove spyware, but vigilance is required to prevent infection. Spyware is particularly dangerous for sensitive data, banking information, and personal privacy.

C) Worms are self-replicating malware that spread across networks without user intervention. While worms can damage networks and consume bandwidth, they do not necessarily monitor user activity or collect personal information. Worms primarily focus on propagation rather than covert surveillance.

D) Adware displays unwanted advertisements on a device. It may track user behavior to serve targeted ads, but adware is generally less invasive than spyware and often not considered full-fledged malware. Its primary purpose is advertising revenue rather than monitoring all user activities.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The malware, specifically designed to monitor user activities secretly, is spyware. Trojans may have monitoring capabilities, but are not inherently monitoring tools; worms focus on spreading, and adware is advertising-focused. Therefore, B) Spyware is correct.

Question 122:

Which type of storage device retains data even when power is turned off?

A) RAM
B) Cache
C) SSD
D) Register

Answer: C) SSD

Explanation:

A) RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile memory that temporarily stores data and instructions in use by the CPU. When power is lost, all contents of RAM are erased. RAM provides high-speed access but cannot retain data without power, making it unsuitable for long-term storage.

B) Cache memory is a small, high-speed memory located close to the CPU. Like RAM, cache is volatile and stores temporary copies of frequently used data or instructions to speed up processing. Cache does not retain data after shutdown and is not used for persistent storage.

C) SSD (Solid State Drive) is a non-volatile storage device that retains data even when the system is powered off. SSDs use NAND flash memory, providing fast access times, durability, and lower latency compared to traditional hard drives. SSDs are widely used for system drives, applications, and storage where speed and data persistence are required. Because SSDs have no moving parts, they are resistant to shock and vibration, making them reliable for portable devices and enterprise storage solutions.

D) Registers are small storage locations within the CPU used for immediate data processing. Registers are volatile, extremely fast, and used temporarily during computation. They do not store data persistently and are cleared when power is removed or during a system reset.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The storage device that retains data when power is off is an SSD. RAM and cache are volatile, and registers are temporary CPU storage. Therefore, C) SSD is correct.

Question 123:

Which command-line tool in Windows tests connectivity to a remote host by sending ICMP echo requests?

A) tracert
B) netstat
C) ping
D) ipconfig

Answer: C) ping

Explanation:

A) tracert (or traceroute) tracks the route packets take from a source to a destination, showing each hop along the path. While useful for troubleshooting network paths, it does not directly test whether a host is reachable through ICMP echo requests.

B) netstat displays active network connections, listening ports, and protocol statistics. It is useful for diagnosing network usage and connections, but does not test connectivity to a specific host.

C) ping is the standard command-line tool used to verify network connectivity. It sends ICMP echo requests to a target host and waits for echo replies. The tool measures latency, packet loss, and round-trip time, helping administrators troubleshoot connectivity issues. Ping is simple yet effective for determining whether a device is reachable on a network or the internet, and is often the first tool used in network diagnostics.

D) ipconfig displays a computer’s IP configuration, including IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. While helpful for network troubleshooting, it does not test connectivity to a remote host.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The command-line tool that tests connectivity via ICMP echo requests is ping. tracert tracks routes, netstat shows connections, and ipconfig displays configuration. Therefore, C) ping is correct.

Question 124:

Which cloud service model provides users with ready-to-use applications accessible via a web browser?

A) IaaS
B) SaaS
C) PaaS
D) DaaS

Answer: B) SaaS

Explanation:

A) IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides virtualized computing resources, including servers, storage, and networking. Users manage operating systems and applications while the provider manages hardware. IaaS does not deliver ready-to-use applications directly to users.

B) SaaS (Software as a Service) delivers fully functional software applications over the internet. Users access these applications via web browsers or thin clients without managing the underlying infrastructure, platforms, or updates. Examples include email services, office suites, and collaboration tools. SaaS reduces administrative overhead and allows organizations to scale software usage easily while relying on the provider for maintenance, security, and updates.

C) PaaS (Platform as a Service) provides a platform for developing, testing, and deploying applications. While it simplifies development and infrastructure management, it does not deliver ready-to-use applications to end users. PaaS targets developers rather than typical end users.

D) DaaS (Desktop as a Service) delivers virtual desktops hosted in the cloud, allowing users to access a complete desktop environment remotely. While DaaS provides applications within a virtual desktop, it is distinct from SaaS, which delivers individual applications directly via a browser.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The cloud service model that provides ready-to-use applications via a web browser is SaaS. IaaS provides infrastructure, PaaS provides a development platform, and DaaS delivers virtual desktops. Therefore, B) SaaS is correct.

Question 125:

Which device connects multiple network segments and filters traffic using IP addresses?

A) Switch
B) Router
C) Hub
D) Access Point

Answer: B) Router

Explanation:

A) Switches operate at the data link layer (Layer 2) and forward frames based on MAC addresses. Switches connect devices within a LAN and reduce collisions, but they do not filter traffic based on IP addresses between networks.

B) Routers operate at the network layer (Layer 3) and connect multiple network segments. They use IP addresses to forward packets to the appropriate network, enabling communication between LANs, WANs, or the Internet. Routers can also implement NAT, firewall rules, and routing protocols to manage traffic efficiently. Routers are essential for inter-network connectivity, ensuring that packets reach the correct destination based on IP addressing.

C) Hubs operate at the physical layer (Layer 1) and broadcast all incoming traffic to every connected device. Hubs do not filter traffic or inspect IP addresses. They are largely obsolete due to inefficiency and collisions.

D) Access points provide wireless connectivity, allowing devices to join a LAN via Wi-Fi. While access points facilitate network access, they do not perform Layer 3 IP-based routing or traffic filtering between segments.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The device that connects multiple network segments and filters traffic using IP addresses is a router. Switches filter by MAC, hubs broadcast blindly, and access points provide wireless access without routing. Therefore, B) Router is correct.

Question 126:

Which protocol is used to securely transfer files over a network using encryption?

A) FTP
B) SFTP
C) HTTP
D) Telnet

Answer: B) SFTP

Explanation

A) FTP (File Transfer Protocol) allows the transfer of files between devices on a network. While it is functional and widely used, FTP transmits data, including usernames and passwords, in plain text. This lack of encryption makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping and man-in-the-middle attacks, making FTP unsuitable for secure file transfer over untrusted networks.

B) SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is an extension of the SSH (Secure Shell) protocol and provides secure file transfer by encrypting both commands and data. SFTP protects sensitive information from interception and ensures confidentiality and integrity during transit. It is widely used in enterprise environments for secure file sharing, automated backups, and administrative tasks. SFTP also supports authentication mechanisms such as passwords, keys, and multi-factor methods, enhancing security over traditional FTP.

C) HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is used to transmit web pages over the Internet. Standard HTTP does not encrypt data, so sensitive information like login credentials can be intercepted. HTTPS, the secure version of HTTP, encrypts web traffic, but HTTP itself is not suitable for secure file transfers.

D) Telnet is a protocol used to access remote devices over a network. Like FTP, Telnet transmits data in plain text without encryption. Using Telnet over untrusted networks exposes credentials and session information to attackers, making it insecure for modern communications.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The protocol that securely transfers files using encryption is SFTP. FTP and Telnet lack encryption, while HTTP is used for web content, not secure file transfer. Therefore, B) SFTP is correct.

Question 127:

Which type of memory is non-volatile and stores the system firmware necessary for booting a computer?

A) RAM
B) ROM
C) Cache
D) Registers

Answer: B) ROM

Explanation:

A) RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile memory used for the temporary storage of data and instructions actively in use by the CPU. RAM loses its contents when the system powers down, making it unsuitable for storing firmware or boot instructions.

B) ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile memory that retains data even when the computer is powered off. It stores firmware, including the BIOS or UEFI, which is essential for initializing hardware during boot and loading the operating system. ROM is typically programmed during manufacturing, and while some types (like EEPROM) allow updates, the key function of ROM is to provide persistent instructions for system startup. It ensures that critical system instructions are always available regardless of the power state.

C) Cache memory is a small, high-speed memory located near the CPU, storing frequently used data for rapid access. Cache is volatile and temporary, cleared when the system shuts down. Its purpose is performance enhancement, not firmware storage.

D) Registers are tiny, ultra-fast storage areas within the CPU used for immediate computations. Registers are volatile and extremely limited in capacity. They serve as temporary storage for calculations and instructions currently being executed, not for persistent firmware.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The memory type that is non-volatile and stores system firmware is ROM. RAM, cache, and registers are all volatile and designed for temporary or performance-focused storage. Therefore, B) ROM is correct.

Question 128:

Which tool is used to create a bootable USB drive from an ISO file for installing an operating system?

A) Disk Management
B) Rufus
C) Task Scheduler
D) Device Manager

Answer: B) Rufus

Explanation:

A) Disk Management is a Windows utility used to manage storage devices, partitions, and volumes. While it can format drives, it cannot create a bootable USB from an ISO file, nor does it handle boot sector preparation or file system conversion for OS installation.

B) Rufus is a popular utility that allows users to create bootable USB drives from ISO images. It formats the USB drive, sets the correct file system, and writes the bootable image, ensuring that the USB is ready for installing an operating system. Rufus supports multiple partition schemes (MBR, GPT) and is compatible with various operating systems, including Windows and Linux. It simplifies OS deployment for technicians and end-users.

C) Task Scheduler automates tasks on Windows, such as running programs or scripts at specific times. It does not handle disk formatting, ISO writing, or creating bootable media.

D) Device Manager allows users to view, update, or troubleshoot hardware devices. While important for hardware maintenance, it does not create bootable media or handle OS installation tasks.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The tool specifically designed to create a bootable USB from an ISO file is Rufus. Disk Management cannot write bootable ISOs, Task Scheduler automates tasks, and Device Manager manages hardware. Therefore, B) Rufus is correct.

Question 129:

Which type of cable is used in a coaxial network to transmit television signals or broadband internet?

A) UTP
B) Coaxial
C) Fiber Optic
D) HDMI

Answer: B) Coaxial

Explanation:

A) UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cables are commonly used for Ethernet networks. They carry electrical signals over twisted pairs of copper wires and are suitable for LAN connections, but they are not designed for high-frequency television signals or broadband internet over long distances like coaxial cables.

B) Coaxial cables consist of a central conductor, an insulating layer, a metallic shield, and a protective outer jacket. They can carry high-frequency signals with minimal interference and are widely used for cable television, broadband internet, and certain legacy Ethernet networks. Coaxial cables are durable and provide reliable signal quality over longer distances than UTP cables in some applications. The shielding helps reduce electromagnetic interference, which is critical for consistent data transmission in TV and internet signals.

C) Fiber optic cables transmit data using light pulses through glass or plastic fibers. While capable of extremely high-speed internet and long-distance communication, fiber optics is not traditionally used for standard residential television signals, which rely on coaxial cabling. Fiber requires specialized transceivers and connectors.

D) HDMI cables transmit high-definition audio and video between devices like monitors, TVs, and computers. HDMI is not used to carry broadband internet or television signals over a network infrastructure.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The cable type traditionally used for television signals and broadband internet is coaxial. UTP is for Ethernet, fiber optics requires specialized infrastructure, and HDMI is for AV connections. Therefore, B) Coaxial is correct.

Question 130:

Which feature in modern CPUs allows them to execute multiple instructions simultaneously, improving overall performance?

A) Hyper-Threading
B) Overclocking
C) Virtualization
D) Cache Memory

Answer: A) Hyper-Threading

Explanation:

A) Hyper-Threading is a technology that enables a single physical CPU core to appear as two logical cores to the operating system. This allows multiple threads to be executed concurrently, improving CPU utilization and performance for multi-threaded applications. Hyper-Threading is beneficial for tasks such as video rendering, 3D modeling, and multitasking, where multiple processes can share resources efficiently. It effectively increases parallelism without adding physical cores.

B) Overclocking involves increasing the CPU’s clock speed beyond its factory settings. While overclocking can improve performance, it does not inherently allow simultaneous execution of multiple instructions; it only increases the speed at which instructions are processed. Overclocking also introduces heat and stability concerns.

C) Virtualization allows a single physical CPU to host multiple virtual machines, each running separate operating systems. Virtualization enables resource sharing and isolation, but it does not directly improve the CPU’s ability to execute multiple instructions concurrently for the host system’s workloads.

D) Cache memory is a small, high-speed memory close to the CPU that stores frequently used data and instructions. While cache improves access speed and reduces latency, it does not allow simultaneous execution of multiple instructions—it only accelerates instruction retrieval.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The CPU feature that enables the execution of multiple instructions simultaneously to improve performance is Hyper-Threading. Overclocking increases speed, virtualization enables virtual machines, and cache speeds up memory access but does not increase instruction concurrency. Therefore, A) Hyper-Threading is correct.

Question 131:

Which Windows utility is used to view, diagnose, and troubleshoot network connections?

A) Device Manager
B) Network and Sharing Center
C) Disk Management
D) Task Manager

Answer: B) Network and Sharing Center

Explanation:

A) Device Manager allows users to view and manage hardware devices on a Windows system, including network adapters. While it can show whether a network device is functioning properly and allow driver updates or troubleshooting of hardware issues, it does not provide a detailed interface for diagnosing or managing actual network connections, such as IP addresses, connectivity status, or network profiles. Device Manager is hardware-focused and is essential for ensuring that network adapters are installed correctly and operational, but it does not cover broader network diagnostics like connectivity, sharing settings, or firewall status.

B)The  Network and Sharing Center is the central utility in Windows for monitoring and managing network connections. It displays active network connections, allows configuration of IP addresses and network profiles, and provides troubleshooting tools for resolving connectivity issues. Users can diagnose problems such as limited connectivity, network conflicts, or adapter misconfigurations. The utility also offers options for sharing resources between computers, such as printers or files, and integrates with Windows Firewall settings to ensure secure communication. Network and Sharing Center is designed to provide both novice and advanced users with visibility into their network environment, combining monitoring, diagnostics, and configuration in one interface. It is especially useful for managing both wired and wireless connections and supports features like bridge connections and VPN setup. By including a troubleshooting wizard, the utility can automatically detect common network problems and suggest corrective actions, which streamlines the process of resolving connectivity issues without requiring extensive technical knowledge. Additionally, it provides graphical maps of network layouts, showing connected devices and their relationship to the local computer. This helps users understand the topology of their network and troubleshoot issues such as disconnected cables or misconfigured routers. Overall, the Network and Sharing Center provides comprehensive tools to diagnose, repair, and manage network connections in Windows environments.

C) Disk Management allows users to create, modify, and format partitions on storage devices. It is essential for managing hard drives, SSDs, and external storage media. While it is critical for organizing storage and ensuring devices are ready for use, it is not designed for diagnosing or managing network connections. Disk Management focuses entirely on storage allocation and file system management, making it unrelated to network troubleshooting.

D) Task Manager provides an overview of system performance, running processes, CPU, memory, disk, and network usage. While it shows network utilization statistics and can help identify processes consuming bandwidth, it does not offer detailed network configuration, diagnostics, or connection management. Task Manager is a monitoring tool rather than a configuration or troubleshooting utility for networks.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The Windows utility that allows users to view, diagnose, and troubleshoot network connections is the Network and Sharing Center. Device Manager handles hardware-level issues, Disk Management manages storage devices, and Task Manager monitors resource usage, but does not configure or repair network connections. Network and Sharing Center integrates configuration, monitoring, and troubleshooting in one interface, making it the correct choice. Therefore, B) Network and Sharing Center is correct.

Question 132:

Which wireless security protocol is considered obsolete and highly vulnerable to attacks?

A) WEP
B) WPA
C) WPA2
D) WPA3

Answer: A) WEP

Explanation:

A) WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) was one of the earliest security protocols developed for wireless networks. WEP uses static encryption keys and a relatively short initialization vector (IV) for encrypting wireless traffic. These weaknesses make it extremely susceptible to attacks, including key recovery and packet sniffing. Attackers can exploit the predictable IV and use widely available tools to break WEP encryption within minutes. Although WEP was initially designed to provide security similar to wired networks, it is now considered obsolete and should never be used for modern wireless networks. Its vulnerabilities include weak key management, a lack of strong authentication, and susceptibility to replay attacks. In addition, WEP cannot adequately protect sensitive data transmitted over Wi-Fi, making it unsuitable for business, home, or public networks.

B) WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) improved upon WEP by introducing TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) and dynamic key rotation. WPA is more secure than WEP, providing stronger encryption and protection against some attacks. However, WPA is still vulnerable to modern threats, especially if weak passwords are used. WPA served as an interim solution while the more robust WPA2 was developed, but it is not as insecure as WEP and is still supported on older devices.

C) WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access II) is widely regarded as secure for most home and business networks. WPA2 uses AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) encryption, which is much stronger than the RC4 encryption used by WEP and TKIP in WPA. WPA2 protects data integrity and confidentiality, supports strong authentication, and addresses vulnerabilities present in WEP and WPA. When configured with a strong passphrase, WPA2 is highly resistant to attacks and remains the industry standard for secure Wi-Fi communication.

D) WPA3 is the latest Wi-Fi security protocol, designed to replace WPA2. WPA3 introduces improved encryption, stronger password protection, and features such as forward secrecy. WPA3 mitigates vulnerabilities associated with weak passwords and is recommended for modern devices. It is backward-compatible with WPA2 in many cases but provides enhanced security, especially in enterprise or public environments.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The wireless security protocol that is obsolete and highly vulnerable to attacks is WEP. WPA is a transitional protocol, WPA2 is secure for most networks, and WPA3 offers the strongest protection. WEP’s outdated encryption and known vulnerabilities make it unsuitable for any modern deployment. Therefore, A) WEP is correct.

Question 133:

Which utility in Windows allows you to recover deleted files from the system?

A) Recycle Bin
B) Disk Management
C) Device Manager
D) Task Manager

Answer: A) Recycle Bin

Explanation:

A) The Recycle Bin is a Windows feature that temporarily stores files deleted by users. When a file is deleted from the file system, it is moved to the Recycle Bin rather than being immediately removed from the storage device. This allows users to recover files that were accidentally deleted. The Recycle Bin maintains the original file structure and metadata, making it possible to restore files to their original location. Recycle Bin is an essential tool for preventing data loss due to accidental deletion. However, if the Recycle Bin is emptied, deleted files may require specialized recovery software or techniques, as the system marks the storage space as available without physically erasing the data. Users can configure the maximum size of the Recycle Bin and choose to bypass it for permanent deletion, but by default, it acts as a safeguard against unintended loss.

B) Disk Management is used to manage storage devices, partitions, and volumes. While it allows formatting, resizing, and creating partitions, it does not provide functionality to recover deleted files. Disk Management focuses on structural storage management rather than file-level recovery.

C) Device Manager is used to manage hardware devices and drivers. It does not interact with file storage or recovery processes, making it irrelevant for restoring deleted files.

D) Task Manager monitors system processes, CPU, memory, disk, and network usage. While it provides performance information and allows termination of processes, it cannot recover files or manage storage recovery.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The Windows utility that allows recovery of deleted files is the Recycle Bin. Disk Management manages storage partitions, Device Manager handles hardware, and Task Manager monitors performance. Recycle Bin provides an accessible, user-friendly way to restore accidentally deleted files, making it the correct choice. Therefore, A) Recycle Bin is correct.

Question 134:

Which type of malware can replicate itself and spread across networks without user intervention?

A) Virus
B) Worm
C) Trojan
D) Rootkit

Answer: B) Worm

Explanation:

A) Viruses attach themselves to files or programs and spread when the infected files are executed. While viruses can cause significant damage, they require user interaction for propagation, such as opening a file or running an application. Viruses may corrupt files, delete data, or cause system instability, but their spread depends on user actions rather than autonomous network propagation.

B) Worms are self-replicating malware that can spread independently across networks. They exploit vulnerabilities in operating systems, applications, or network protocols to propagate without requiring user action. Worms can consume network bandwidth, disrupt services, and deliver payloads such as ransomware or backdoors. Because they operate autonomously, worms pose a severe threat to enterprise and public networks. High-profile examples include the Blaster and WannaCry worms, which caused global disruption. Effective defense against worms includes patch management, firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and antivirus solutions. Worms differ from viruses in their propagation method and do not necessarily attach to files; they can exploit network vulnerabilities directly.

C) Trojans disguise themselves as legitimate software to trick users into installing them. While they may carry malicious payloads like keyloggers or spyware, Trojans require user interaction for installation and do not self-replicate across networks. Trojans are primarily a delivery mechanism rather than a propagation mechanism.

D) Rootkits are malware designed to hide the presence of malicious software or unauthorized access. They operate stealthily to avoid detection by system monitoring tools. While dangerous, rootkits do not self-replicate or spread independently; their primary function is concealment.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The type of malware that can replicate itself and spread across networks without user intervention is a worm. Viruses require user interaction, Trojans rely on tricking users, and rootkits focus on stealth. Therefore, B) Worm is correct.

Question 135:

Which storage technology uses spinning magnetic disks and moving read/write heads to store data?

A) SSD
B) HDD
C) Flash Drive
D) Optical Disc

Answer: B) HDD

Explanation:

A) SSDs (Solid State Drives) use NAND flash memory and have no moving parts. They provide fast data access, low latency, and high durability, but they do not employ spinning disks or read/write heads. SSDs are non-mechanical and store data electronically.

B) HDDs (Hard Disk Drives) use spinning magnetic platters with read/write heads mounted on actuator arms. The platters rotate at high speeds (typically 5400–7200 RPM in consumer drives, higher in enterprise drives) while the heads move precisely to read or write data on tracks and sectors. HDDs provide large storage capacities at a lower cost per gigabyte compared to SSDs. They are widely used for bulk storage, backups, and archival purposes. However, mechanical parts introduce latency and vulnerability to shock or vibration. HDDs remain relevant for cost-effective high-capacity storage despite SSD adoption in performance-critical applications.

C) Flash drives, including USB drives, use solid-state memory and have no moving parts. They are portable and convenient for data transfer, but do not rely on spinning disks or mechanical read/write heads. Flash drives offer moderate storage capacities and fast read/write performance relative to HDDs, but their technology is fundamentally different.

D) Optical discs, such as CDs, DVDs, and Blu-ray discs, store data using reflective surfaces and are read by lasers. While mechanical components position the laser, optical discs do not use magnetic platters or read/write heads in the traditional HDD sense. They are primarily used for media distribution, archival storage, or backup rather than active system storage.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The storage technology that uses spinning magnetic disks and moving read/write heads is an HDD. SSDs, flash drives, and optical discs rely on solid-state memory or laser-based storage and do not employ magnetic platters. Therefore, B) HDD is correct.

Question 136:

Which technology allows a single physical CPU core to appear as multiple logical cores to improve parallel processing?

A) Overclocking
B) Hyper-Threading
C) Multi-core
D) Virtualization

Answer: B) Hyper-Threading

Explanation:

A) Overclocking involves increasing the CPU’s clock speed above the manufacturer’s rated specification. While overclocking can improve performance by executing instructions faster, it does not allow a single core to process multiple threads simultaneously. Overclocking can lead to increased heat production, potential instability, and reduced hardware lifespan if not managed properly. It enhances raw speed but does not provide the efficiency gains from parallel thread execution.

B) Hyper-Threading is a technology developed by Intel that enables a single physical CPU core to handle multiple threads concurrently. Each physical core appears as two logical cores to the operating system, allowing parallel execution of instructions from multiple threads. Hyper-Threading improves CPU utilization by filling execution pipeline gaps that occur during idle cycles, making workloads more efficient. It is particularly effective for multi-threaded applications such as video rendering, 3D modeling, and data processing, where several threads can be executed simultaneously without adding physical cores. By allowing two threads to share execution resources, Hyper-Threading increases overall throughput and improves responsiveness in multitasking environments. Hyper-Threading works in tandem with physical cores, meaning the performance gain is not equivalent to doubling the number of cores but still provides noticeable improvements for many applications.

C) Multi-core CPUs consist of multiple physical cores on a single processor die. Each core can execute threads independently, providing significant parallel processing capabilities. Multi-core technology differs from Hyper-Threading in that it physically adds cores rather than creating virtual logical cores. While multi-core CPUs enhance performance for parallel tasks, Hyper-Threading specifically improves the efficiency of individual cores by simulating multiple threads on a single physical core.

D) Virtualization allows a single physical CPU to host multiple virtual machines (VMs), each running its own operating system. Virtualization enables efficient use of hardware resources and isolation of workloads. However, it does not inherently increase a single CPU core’s ability to execute multiple threads simultaneously; it manages multiple OS instances rather than increasing per-core parallelism.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The technology that allows a single physical CPU core to appear as multiple logical cores to improve parallel processing is Hyper-Threading. Overclocking increases clock speed, multi-core adds physical cores, and virtualization creates VMs without altering core-level threading. Therefore, B) Hyper-Threading is correct.

Question 137:

Which protocol is used to retrieve email from a remote server while leaving messages on the server?

A) POP3
B) IMAP
C) SMTP
D) HTTP

Answer: B) IMAP

Explanation:

A) POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) downloads email from a server to a client and typically removes the message from the server. While POP3 is simple and widely supported, it is not suitable for users who need to access email from multiple devices because once messages are downloaded, they are no longer available on the server unless configured otherwise. POP3 is best suited for single-device access where centralized server storage is not required.

B) IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) allows users to access and manage email stored on a remote server. Messages remain on the server by default, enabling synchronization across multiple devices such as laptops, smartphones, and tablets. Users can organize messages into folders, flag emails, and maintain consistent access without duplicating or losing messages. IMAP supports concurrent connections, ensuring that changes made on one device (e.g., reading, deleting, or moving messages) reflect on all other devices connected to the account. IMAP is ideal for modern workflows, including cloud-based email services, where seamless access across platforms is essential. IMAP uses TCP port 143 for standard connections and 993 for SSL/TLS-secured connections, providing both functionality and security.

C) SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending email from a client to a server or between servers. SMTP does not retrieve or store messages on the server for client access. It is strictly a delivery protocol, complementary to POP3 or IMAP, and cannot provide synchronized access to messages across multiple devices.

D) HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is a web protocol used to transfer web content. While webmail interfaces may use HTTP/HTTPS to access email via a browser, HTTP itself is not the protocol that directly retrieves email from the server and manages synchronization. HTTP acts as a transport layer for web applications rather than a dedicated email protocol.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The protocol that retrieves email while leaving messages on the server is IMAP. POP3 downloads and removes messages, SMTP is for sending mail, and HTTP is a web transfer protocol. IMAP’s design allows synchronization across multiple devices, making it the correct choice. Therefore, B) IMAP is correct.

Question 138:

Which device connects a LAN to the internet and manages traffic between networks?

A) Hub
B) Switch
C) Router
D) Access Point

Answer: C) Router

Explanation:

A) Hubs operate at the physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model and simply broadcast incoming network traffic to all connected devices. Hubs cannot manage traffic between networks or determine destinations based on IP addresses. They are largely obsolete due to collisions and inefficiency in modern networks.

B) Switches operate at the data link layer (Layer 2) and forward frames based on MAC addresses. Switches improve LAN efficiency by selectively directing traffic between devices on the same network segment. However, they do not route traffic between different networks or handle IP addressing. Switches are excellent for managing internal LAN communication, but are not responsible for connecting a LAN to the internet.

C) Routers operate at the network layer (Layer 3) and are responsible for connecting a local area network (LAN) to external networks, including the internet. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for packets to reach their destination, manage traffic between multiple networks, and provide features such as Network Address Translation (NAT), firewall protection, and Quality of Service (QoS). Routers can also segment networks into subnets, apply access controls, and maintain routing tables to optimize traffic flow. Routers are essential for both home and enterprise networks, serving as the gateway that enables communication beyond the local network. They ensure that LAN devices can access external resources while maintaining network security and managing data efficiently.

D) Access Points provide wireless connectivity for devices to join a wired LAN. While access points facilitate Wi-Fi connections and may bridge wireless devices to a network, they do not inherently manage traffic between different networks or provide routing functions. Access points are extensions of a network rather than the gateway to external networks.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The device that connects a LAN to the internet and manages traffic between networks is a router. Hubs broadcast, switches handle LAN traffic only, and access points provide wireless connectivity without routing. Therefore, C) Router is correct.

Question 139:

Which technology allows multiple virtual networks to operate on a single physical network infrastructure?

A) VLAN
B) VPN
C) NAT
D) DHCP

Answer: A) VLAN

Explanation:

A) VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) enable network administrators to segment a physical network into multiple logical networks. Each VLAN acts as an independent broadcast domain, allowing devices in separate VLANs to communicate only through routing. VLANs improve network security, reduce broadcast traffic, and simplify network management. By grouping users or devices logically rather than physically, VLANs provide flexibility in network design. For example, administrators can separate finance, HR, and guest users into different VLANs while using the same physical switches and cabling. VLANs also allow implementation of security policies, quality of service (QoS), and traffic prioritization. VLANs are implemented at the switch level using 802.1Q tagging, which ensures proper packet identification and segregation across the network infrastructure.

B) VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) provide secure, encrypted connections over public or untrusted networks, such as the internet. VPNs allow remote users to access a private network securely, but do not create multiple logical networks on the same physical infrastructure. VPNs are focused on secure remote access rather than network segmentation within a LAN.

C) NAT (Network Address Translation) allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address by mapping private IP addresses to the public address. NAT manages traffic routing between private and public networks but does not create virtual LANs or logical segmentation within a physical network.

D) DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automatically assigns IP addresses and network configuration to devices on a network. DHCP facilitates connectivity but does not segment or create virtual networks. Its role is limited to IP address management rather than logical network design.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The technology that allows multiple virtual networks to operate on a single physical network is VLAN. VPNs provide secure remote connections, NAT handles IP translation, and DHCP assigns IP addresses. VLANs enable logical segmentation, making A) VLAN the correct answer.

Question 140:

Which command-line tool displays current TCP/IP network connections and listening ports?

A) ping
B) netstat
C) tracert
D) ipconfig

Answer: B) netstat

Explanation:

A) ping is a command-line tool that tests connectivity between two devices by sending ICMP echo requests and measuring response time. While useful for determining reachability and latency, ping does not provide information about active network connections or listening ports. It is a diagnostic tool rather than a monitoring tool for network traffic details.

B) netstat (Network Statistics) displays active TCP/IP connections, listening ports, routing tables, and protocol statistics. It provides insight into which processes are communicating over the network and which ports are open for incoming connections. System administrators use netstat to detect unauthorized connections, monitor network activity, and troubleshoot network-related issues. netstat can filter by protocol, display process identifiers, and report statistics for UDP, TCP, and other network protocols. It is essential for identifying active network sessions, diagnosing performance issues, and verifying firewall or security configurations. netstat provides real-time snapshots of network activity, helping administrators understand traffic patterns and potential vulnerabilities. By combining netstat output with process monitoring tools, administrators can trace suspicious connections to their source applications.

C) tracert (or traceroute) traces the path packets take from a source to a destination, showing intermediate hops and latency at each hop.Tracertt helps identify routing issues and network delays, but does not display current connections or listening ports. It is used for path analysis rather than monitoring active network connections.

D) ipconfig displays a device’s IP configuration, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers. ipconfig is useful for troubleshooting network settings, but does not report active connections, listening ports, or detailed network statistics.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The command-line tool that displays current TCP/IP connections and listening ports is netstat. Ping tests connectivity, tracert traces packet routes, and ipconfig shows configuration details. Therefore, B) netstat is correct.