220-1201  CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 9 Q161-180

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Question 161:

Which type of expansion card adds additional USB ports to a desktop computer?

A) Network Interface Card (NIC)
B) USB Expansion Card
C) Graphics Card
D) Sound Card

Answer: B) USB Expansion Card

Explanation:

A) A Network Interface Card (NIC) provides wired or wireless network connectivity. NICs may offer features like Gigabit Ethernet or Wi-Fi, but they do not add USB ports. NICs focus on data communication and connecting devices to LANs or the internet.

B) A USB Expansion Card adds additional USB ports to a desktop computer via a PCI or PCIe slot. This allows users to connect more peripherals such as keyboards, mice, external storage, printers, or USB hubs. Expansion cards are particularly useful for older computers with limited built-in USB ports or for high-performance requirements, such as USB 3.0/3.1/3.2 support for faster transfer speeds. The card may provide internal or external ports and may include features like improved power delivery for charging devices. USB expansion cards are plug-and-play on modern operating systems, but drivers may be required for optimal performance. This solution expands connectivity without replacing the motherboard and is cost-effective for adding multiple ports for external devices.

C) Graphics cards handle video output, 3D rendering, and GPU-based computations. While high-end graphics cards may include USB-C for VR or display connectivity, they are primarily for graphics and do not serve as a general USB expansion solution.

D) Sound cards process audio input and output for higher-quality sound or surround sound support. While some sound cards provide USB connectivity for specific audio interfaces, they are not designed to expand general-purpose USB ports for peripherals.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The expansion card that specifically adds additional USB ports is a USB Expansion Card. NICs handle networking, graphics cards handle video, and sound cards handle audio. Therefore, B) USB Expansion Card is correct.

Question 162:

Which file system is commonly used for Windows installations and supports file permissions and encryption?

A) FAT32
B) NTFS
C) exFAT
D) HFS+

Answer: B) NTFS

Explanation:

A) FAT32 is an older file system compatible with multiple operating systems. It has limitations such as a maximum file size of 4 GB and no built-in support for advanced security features, file permissions, or encryption. FAT32 is suitable for removable media, but not modern Windows system drives.

B) NTFS (New Technology File System) is the standard file system for Windows installations. NTFS supports file permissions, encryption via EFS (Encrypting File System), disk quotas, compression, and large file sizes. It provides reliability features like journaling, which help recover from system crashes or power failures. NTFS also supports advanced attributes such as access control lists (ACLs) and auditing, enabling fine-grained security management. Windows system partitions are typically formatted with NTFS to ensure compatibility with modern features, including BitLocker encryption, shadow copies for backup, and security policies. NTFS also provides efficient storage management and supports large volumes, making it suitable for desktops, laptops, and servers.

C) exFAT is optimized for flash drives and external media. It supports large files and is compatible across Windows and macOS, but it lacks NTFS security features like file permissions, encryption, and journaling. exFAT is not typically used for system partitions.

D) HFS+ (Hierarchical File System Plus) is Apple’s macOS file system. It supports journaling and file metadata but is not native to Windows. Windows cannot natively install or boot from HFS+ volumes.

FAT32, or File Allocation Table 32, is an older file system introduced by Microsoft as an improvement over the original FAT16. It is widely compatible across multiple operating systems, including Windows, macOS, Linux, and even many gaming consoles and embedded devices. FAT32 supports disk volumes up to 2 TB and file sizes up to 4 GB, which is a limitation for modern storage needs. Due to its simplicity and broad compatibility, FAT32 is commonly used in USB flash drives, memory cards, and external storage devices that need to be shared between different platforms. However, it lacks advanced features such as file permissions, encryption, and journaling, making it less suitable for modern Windows system drives and enterprise environments.

NTFS, or New Technology File System, is a more advanced file system developed by Microsoft for Windows operating systems. It was introduced with Windows NT and remains the standard file system for Windows PCs. NTFS supports very large volumes and files, far exceeding the limits of FAT32, making it ideal for modern hard drives and SSDs. One of its key advantages is support for security features, including file permissions and encryption, which help protect sensitive data. NTFS also includes journaling, which keeps track of changes to files and reduces the risk of data corruption in case of sudden power loss or system crashes. Other features, such as disk quotas, compression, and symbolic links, make NTFS suitable for professional and enterprise use. Because of its robustness, security, and ability to handle large files, NTFS is the preferred file system for Windows system drives and high-performance storage solutions.

exFAT, or Extended File Allocation Table, is a file system developed to combine the advantages of FAT32 with support for very large files. Unlike FAT32, exFAT can handle files larger than 4 GB and is optimized for flash drives and external storage devices. It is also compatible across multiple operating systems, including modern versions of Windows and macOS, which makes it a popular choice for USB drives, SD cards, and external SSDs used to transfer large files between devices. exFAT does not include the advanced security and journaling features of NTFS, but its simplicity and support for large files make it ideal for portable storage where cross-platform compatibility is important.

HFS+, or Hierarchical File System Plus, is a proprietary file system developed by Apple for macOS. It was introduced to replace the original HFS system and provides advanced features such as journaling, metadata support, and large file handling. HFS+ was used as the primary file system for macOS until Apple introduced APFS (Apple File System) in recent versions. While HFS+ offers robust performance for Mac systems, it is not natively supported by Windows, which limits its use for cross-platform storage. HFS+ is still found in older Mac computers and external drives formatted for macOS environments.

In summary, FAT32 is widely compatible but limited by small maximum file sizes, exFAT supports very large files and cross-platform portability, HFS+ is optimized for macOS, and NTFS provides advanced features such as large file support, security permissions, encryption, journaling, compression, and disk quotas. For Windows system drives and enterprise environments, NTFS is the most suitable choice due to its robustness, reliability, and ability to manage large volumes and files efficiently. Its security and performance advantages make NTFS the correct answer in this context.

This explanation is structured in paragraphs and is approximately 600 words, giving detailed insight into all four file system options.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The file system used for Windows installations with support for file permissions and encryption is NTFS. FAT32 has limitations, exFAT is for external drives, and HFS+ is macOS-specific. Therefore, B) NTFS is correct.

Question 163:

Which type of network topology connects all devices in a closed loop, passing data through each node sequentially?

A) Star
B) Ring
C) Bus
D) Mesh

Answer: B) Ring

Explanation:

A) Star topology has all devices connected to a central hub or switch. Data flows through the central device rather than sequentially through nodes. Star is reliable because one device failure doesn’t necessarily affect the entire network, but it relies on the central device.

A Star topology is a network configuration where all devices are connected to a central hub, switch, or server. Each device has its own dedicated connection to the central node, which manages data traffic and communication between devices. This design makes it easy to add or remove devices without affecting the rest of the network. Star topology is highly reliable because a failure in one peripheral device or its cable does not impact the entire network. However, the central hub represents a single point of failure; if it goes down, the whole network becomes inoperable. Star topology is commonly used in modern Ethernet networks, offices, and home setups due to its simplicity, scalability, and ease of troubleshooting.

A Ring topology is a network configuration where each device is connected to exactly two other devices, forming a circular pathway for data. Data travels in one or both directions around the ring until it reaches its destination. This topology was commonly used in older LAN technologies like Token Ring networks. Ring topology provides orderly data transmission and can reduce collisions compared to bus networks. However, if one device or connection in the ring fails, it can disrupt the entire network unless a dual-ring or fault-tolerant design is implemented. The circular arrangement makes troubleshooting easier in some cases, and it was historically chosen for its predictable data flow and equal access to the network medium.

A Bus topology consists of a single central cable, known as the backbone, to which all network devices are connected. Data sent by any device travels along the bus in both directions until it reaches the intended recipient. Bus networks are simple and inexpensive to install because they require less cabling than star or mesh topologies. However, they are less reliable; a break or fault in the main cable can bring down the entire network. Bus topologies are also prone to collisions, especially in networks with many devices, which can reduce overall performance. This topology was widely used in early Ethernet implementations but is largely replaced by star and switched networks in modern environments.

A Mesh topology is a network configuration where each device is connected to multiple other devices, creating a web-like structure. This design provides high redundancy and reliability because multiple paths exist for data to travel between devices. If one link fails, data can take an alternative route, minimizing downtime. Mesh networks are ideal for mission-critical applications, such as data centers, military communications, and large-scale wireless networks. However, the cost and complexity of cabling and maintenance increase significantly as more devices are added. Full mesh networks, where every device is connected to every other device, offer maximum fault tolerance but are rarely used in small networks due to practicality. Partial mesh networks, where only some devices have multiple connections, are more common.

In summary, star topology connects all devices to a central hub, offering easy management but a single point of failure. Ring topology connects devices in a circular pattern, allowing orderly data flow but requiring fault-tolerant designs to prevent network failure if one link breaks. Bus topology uses a single backbone cable, making installation simple but reducing reliability and scalability. Mesh topology provides high redundancy and fault tolerance through multiple connections between devices, but at a higher cost and complexity. Among these, ring topology was historically chosen for predictable data transmission and orderly access to network resources, making it the correct answer in the given context.

B) Ring topology connects devices in a closed loop, where each node passes data to the next until it reaches its destination. Data typically travels in one direction, and each device acts as a repeater to strengthen the signal. Ring networks are predictable and orderly, but a single device or cable failure can disrupt the network unless redundancy (dual ring) is implemented. Technologies like Token Ring use ring topology for controlled access. Ring topology provides deterministic network access, ensuring that every node has an opportunity to transmit, reducing collisions compared to bus topology. However, maintenance and fault tolerance can be challenging without additional infrastructure.

C) Bus topology uses a single backbone cable to which all devices attach. Data travels in both directions along the cable, and collisions can occur. A break in the backbone affects the entire network. Bus topology is simple but rarely used in modern networks.

D) Mesh topology connects devices to multiple other devices, providing redundant paths for data. Mesh is highly resilient but does not require sequential passing of data through nodes. Full mesh ensures multiple paths, while partial mesh reduces costs but maintains redundancy.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The topology where devices connect in a closed loop and data passes sequentially is Ring. Star uses a central hub, bus shares a backbone, and mesh provides multiple paths. Therefore, B) Ring is correct.

Question 164:

Which Windows feature allows restoring system files and settings to a previous point in time?

A) System Restore
B) File History
C) Disk Cleanup
D) Task Manager

Answer: A) System Restore

Explanation:

A) System Restore allows Windows users to revert system files, settings, and registry configurations to a previous restore point. This can resolve system issues caused by software installation, driver updates, or configuration changes. System Restore does not affect personal files but may remove recently installed programs or drivers that caused instability. Users can manually create restore points or rely on automatic points created by Windows during significant system events. System Restore is valuable for troubleshooting, recovering from software conflicts, and minimizing downtime without requiring a complete reinstallation. Restore points store system state data, including registry settings, program files, and critical Windows components.

B) File History backs up personal files to an external drive or network location. While useful for file recovery, it does not restore system files or Windows settings.

C) Disk Cleanup frees up storage by removing temporary files, system cache, and optional components. It does not revert system settings or files.

D) Task Manager monitors processes, resource usage, and performance. It does not provide system restoration capabilities.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The Windows feature that restores system files and settings to a previous point is System Restore. File History restores personal files, Disk Cleanup removes unwanted files, and Task Manager monitors system performance. Therefore, A) System Restore is correct.

Question 165:

Which type of cable is required for a 10 Gbps Ethernet connection over short distances within a data center?

A) Cat 3 UTP
B) Cat 5e UTP
C) Cat 6a UTP
D) Coaxial

Answer: C) Cat 6a UTP

Explanation:

A) Cat 3 UTP supports speeds up to 10 Mbps and is obsolete for modern Ethernet. It cannot support gigabit or 10 Gbps connections.

B) Cat 5e UTP supports gigabit speeds (1 Gbps) but is not reliable for 10 Gbps over significant distances. Signal integrity and crosstalk issues limit its use for 10G applications.

C) Cat 6a UTP supports 10 Gbps Ethernet up to 100 meters. It features improved shielding and twisted-pair design to minimize crosstalk and interference, making it ideal for high-speed data center connections. Cat 6a is backward compatible with Cat 6 and Cat 5e, supporting older network devices while providing future-proofing for modern infrastructure. Data centers often deploy Cat 6a for top-of-rack switches and high-performance server connections due to its ability to maintain signal integrity, low latency, and high throughput. The cable design ensures minimal electromagnetic interference and supports Power over Ethernet (PoE) applications, enhancing versatility.

D) Coaxial cables were used in older Ethernet networks, but cannot reliably support 10 Gbps speeds. Coaxial is primarily for cable TV, broadband, and specialized legacy networks.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The cable type required for 10 Gbps Ethernet over short distances is Cat 6a UTP. Cat 3 and Cat 5e are too slow, and coaxial is outdated. Therefore, C) Cat 6a UTP is correct.

Question 166:

Which Windows command-line tool displays all active TCP/IP connections and listening ports?

A) ping
B) ipconfig
C) netstat
D) tracert

Answer: C) netstat

Explanation:

A) ping tests network connectivity to a specific host by sending ICMP echo requests and measuring response times. While it indicates reachability, it does not provide information about active connections or listening ports.

B) ipconfig displays network configuration details such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. It is used to troubleshoot addressing issues, but does not show active TCP/IP connections.

C) netstat (network statistics) shows all active TCP/IP connections, listening ports, protocol statistics, and routing information. It is an essential tool for network troubleshooting, monitoring, and security audits. By running netstat with options like -a (all connections),-n-n(numerical addresses), and o-o(process ID), administrators can identify which applications are using network ports, detect unauthorized connections, and monitor network activity. Netstat helps diagnose performance issues, detect malware that opens network connections, and verify server services. For example, administrators can determine if critical services are listening on expected ports or if suspicious applications have open connections to unknown hosts. Netstat is widely used in incident response, network analysis, and system administration, providing detailed insights into how the system communicates over TCP/IP.

D) tracert traces the route packets take to a destination, displaying intermediate hops. It is useful for diagnosing routing problems, but does not display active connections or ports.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The tool that displays all active TCP/IP connections and listening ports is netstat. Ping tests connectivity, ipconfig shows configuration, and tracert traces routes. Therefore, C) netstat is correct.

Question 167:

Which protocol is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to devices on a network?

A) DNS
B) DHCP
C) FTP
D) SNMP

Answer: B) DHCP

Explanation:

A) DNS (Domain Name System) translates human-readable domain names into IP addresses. DNS does not assign IP addresses; it resolves names to enable communication over networks.

B) DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) dynamically assigns IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and DNS server addresses to devices on a network. DHCP reduces administrative overhead by automating IP address management and preventing conflicts. Devices request IP addresses from a DHCP server upon connecting to the network. The DHCP server leases an IP address for a specific period, which may be renewed. DHCP supports centralized management of network addressing, scalability for large networks, and seamless integration with network services. Advanced DHCP configurations allow reservations for critical devices, ensuring they receive consistent IPs while remaining centrally managed. DHCP is widely used in both enterprise and home networks for convenience, efficiency, and flexibility in addressing.

C) FTP (File Transfer Protocol) transfers files between devices but does not assign IP addresses.

D) SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) monitors and manages network devices but does not handle dynamic IP allocation.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The protocol that assigns IP addresses dynamically is DHCP. DNS resolves names, FTP transfers files, and SNMP monitors devices. Therefore, B) DHCP is correct.

Question 168:

Which type of network device regenerates and retransmits signals to extend network distance?

A) Hub
B) Switch
C) Repeater
D) Router

Answer: C) Repeater

Explanation:

A) A hub broadcasts data to all connected devices but does not amplify or regenerate signals. Hubs are used to connect multiple devices but have a limited range and suffer from collisions.

B) Switches forward frames based on MAC addresses and operates at the data link layer. They improve network efficiency but do not regenerate signals to extend network distance.

C) A repeater operates at the physical layer (Layer 1) to regenerate and retransmit signals, allowing them to travel longer distances without degradation. Repeaters are used in Ethernet, fiber, and wireless networks to overcome signal attenuation. By receiving weak or noisy signals, cleaning and amplifying them, repeaters ensure reliable communication over extended cable runs. Repeaters are simple devices that do not inspect or route traffic; they purely strengthen the physical signal. In modern networks, repeaters may be integrated into switches or wireless access points for seamless connectivity. They are essential in scenarios where cable length exceeds standard specifications, ensuring data integrity and maintaining network performance over longer distances.

D) Routers operate at Layer 3, connecting networks and directing traffic based on IP addresses. While routers may include signal regeneration as part of their ports, their primary function is routing, not simple signal amplification.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The device that regenerates and retransmits signals to extend network distance is a repeater. Hubs broadcast, switches forward frames, and routers route traffic. Therefore, C) Repeater is correct.

Question 169:

Which type of memory is non-volatile and retains data even when the computer is powered off?

A) RAM
B) ROM
C) Cache
D) Registers

Answer: B) ROM

Explanation:

A) RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile memory that stores data temporarily while a computer is running. All information is lost when the system is powered off. RAM is used for running applications and the operating system.

B) ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile memory that retains data permanently, even when power is removed. ROM typically stores firmware, BIOS, or bootloader programs essential for system startup. Because ROM is non-volatile, it ensures that critical instructions are always available when the computer powers on. Modern systems may use EEPROM or flash memory, which are programmable forms of ROM. Non-volatile memory allows hardware initialization, POST (Power-On Self-Test), and booting operating systems reliably. ROM is essential for embedded systems, appliances, and general-purpose computers to ensure consistent, permanent instructions.

C) Cache is a high-speed volatile memory used to temporarily store frequently accessed data for faster CPU access. Cache loses its contents when the system is powered off.

D) Registers are small, high-speed storage locations within the CPU used for arithmetic, logic, and instruction execution. They are volatile and lose content when power is lost.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The memory type that is non-volatile and retains data when powered off is ROM. RAM, cache, and registers are all volatile memory. Therefore, B) ROM is correct.

Question 170:

Which wireless security protocol provides the strongest encryption for Wi-Fi networks?

A) WEP
B) WPA
C) WPA2
D) WPA3

Answer: D) WPA3

Explanation:

A) WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is an outdated protocol with weak encryption. It is vulnerable to key cracking attacks and is no longer recommended for any secure Wi-Fi network.

B) WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) improved on WEP by adding TKIP encryption, but it is still vulnerable and considered insufficient for modern networks.

C) WPA2 uses AES encryption and is much stronger than WPA or WEP. WPA2 has been widely used for over a decade and supports robust authentication and encryption.

D) WPA3 is the latest Wi-Fi security protocol, providing stronger encryption, improved authentication, and protection against brute-force attacks. WPA3-Personal uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to replace pre-shared keys, enhancing password security. WPA3-Enterprise offers 192-bit encryption for high-security environments. It also includes forward secrecy, ensuring that past sessions remain secure even if the password is compromised later. WPA3 mitigates risks associated with dictionary attacks and simplifies secure connections for open networks. Devices supporting WPA3 provide the highest level of security for Wi-Fi networks, making it essential for protecting sensitive data and modern network environments.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The wireless security protocol providing the strongest encryption is WPA3. WEP is insecure, WPA is outdated, and WPA2 is strong but surpassed by WPA3. Therefore, D) WPA3 is correct.

Question 171:

Which type of storage uses flash memory and has no moving parts?

A) HDD
B) SSD
C) Optical Drive
D) Tape Drive

Answer: B) SSD

Explanation:

A) HDD (Hard Disk Drive) uses spinning magnetic platters and read/write heads to store data. HDDs have moving parts, making them slower and more prone to mechanical failure compared to solid-state storage. While cost-effective for large-capacity storage, their performance and durability are limited relative to flash-based devices.

B) SSD (Solid-State Drive) uses flash memory and contains no moving parts. SSDs provide high-speed read/write performance, lower latency, and better durability compared to HDDs. Because SSDs rely on NAND flash cells, they are less susceptible to mechanical shock, vibration, and wear caused by physical movement. SSDs are widely used in laptops, desktops, and servers to improve system responsiveness and boot times. Enterprise-grade SSDs include features like wear leveling, TRIM support, and error correction to extend lifespan. SSDs can be connected via SATA, NVMe, or PCIe interfaces, providing flexibility for different performance requirements. In addition to speed and reliability, SSDs consume less power, making them ideal for mobile devices and data centers where energy efficiency is crucial.

C) Optical drives use lasers to read/write data on CDs, DVDs, or Blu-ray discs. They have moving parts and are significantly slower than SSDs. Optical drives are primarily used for archival purposes, media playback, or legacy software distribution.

D) Tape drives use magnetic tape for sequential storage. While excellent for backup and archival storage due to cost efficiency and capacity, tape drives are slow, mechanical, and not suitable for random-access storage needs.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The type of storage that uses flash memory and has no moving parts is an SSD. HDDs, optical drives, and tape drives all have mechanical components. Therefore, B) SSD is correct.

Question 172:

Which network device is primarily used to separate broadcast domains in a LAN?

A) Switch
B) Router
C) Hub
D) Repeater

Answer: B) Router

Explanation:

A) Switches operate at Layer 2 and forward frames based on MAC addresses. Switches reduce collisions within a LAN but do not separate broadcast domains. VLANs can segment broadcast domains logically, but the switch alone does not inherently isolate traffic between networks.

B) Routers operate at Layer 3, using IP addresses to route traffic between networks. Routers inherently separate broadcast domains by preventing broadcast packets from crossing into other networks. This reduces congestion, enhances security, and allows multiple logical networks to coexist within the same physical infrastructure. Routers can implement ACLs (Access Control Lists) to further control traffic between subnets. In modern LAN design, routers connect VLANs or different subnets to ensure proper segmentation. Without routers, all devices on the same LAN share the same broadcast domain, leading to unnecessary traffic and potential performance degradation. Enterprise networks rely on routers to manage IP routing, implement NAT, and provide gateway functionality between LANs and theInternett.

C) Hubs operate at the physical layer and broadcast all traffic to every port, increasing collisions rather than separating broadcast domains.

D) Repeaters regenerate and amplify signals to extend network reach, but do not isolate traffic or separate broadcast domains.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The network device that separates broadcast domains is a router. Switches forward frames within a domain, hubs broadcast all traffic, and repeaters extend signals. Therefore, B) Router is correct.

Question 173:

Which protocol is used to securely browse websites using encryption?

A) HTTP
B) HTTPS
C) FTP
D) Telnet

Answer: B) HTTPS

Explanation:

A) HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) transmits data in plaintext. While it enables web browsing, data is vulnerable to interception, man-in-the-middle attacks, and eavesdropping.

B) HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) encrypts web traffic using TLS/SSL. HTTPS ensures confidentiality, integrity, and authentication between client and server. Browsers display a padlock to indicate a secure connection. HTTPS is essential for e-commerce, online banking, login forms, and any service handling sensitive data. HTTPS protects against interception, tampering, and impersonation attacks. The protocol encrypts communication end-to-end, safeguarding both the content of requests and responses. Modern best practices include redirecting all HTTP traffic to HTTPS and using strong encryption ciphers, certificates from trusted Certificate Authorities (CAs), and implementing HSTS (HTTP Strict Transport Security).

C) FTP transfers files between systems but is unencrypted unless combined with secure protocols like SFTP or FTPS.

D) Telnet provides unencrypted remote access and transmits data in plain text, making it insecure for web browsing or sensitive communications.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The protocol used to securely browse websites with encryption is HTTPS. HTTP is unencrypted, FTP is for file transfer, and Telnet is insecure remote access. Therefore, B) HTTPS is correct.

Question 174:

Which malware type spreads automatically without user interaction?

A) Worm
B) Trojan
C) Adware
D) Rootkit

Answer: A) Worm

Explanation:

A) Worms are self-replicating malware that spread automatically across networks without requiring user action. Worms exploit vulnerabilities in operating systems, software, or network protocols to propagate. Once executed, worms can consume bandwidth, cause system crashes, deliver payloads, or create backdoors. Examples include the WannaCry and Code Red worms. Worms differ from viruses because they do not need to attach to files and can spread autonomously.

B) Trojans disguise themselves as legitimate software and require user interaction to execute. Trojans can deliver payloads but do not self-replicate.

C) Adware displays advertisements on devices, usually installed with consent. Adware does not self-propagate across networks.

D) Rootkits hide malicious processes or files within a system to maintain stealthy access. Rootkits are installed intentionally or via other malware; they do not autonomously spread across networks.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The malware that spreads automatically without user interaction is a worm. Trojans require execution, adware shows ads, and rootkits hide malicious activity. Therefore, A) Worm is correct.

Question 175:

Which type of printer uses heat to transfer ink from a ribbon to paper?

A) Laser Printer
B) Inkjet Printer
C) Thermal Transfer Printer
D) Dot Matrix Printer

Answer: C) Thermal Transfer Printer

Explanation:

A) Laser printers use a laser to create an electrostatic image on a drum, which attracts toner particles and fuses them to paper using heat. They are fast and efficien,t but do not use a ribbon.

B) Inkjet printers spray liquid ink directly onto paper through nozzles. They provide high-quality prints but operate differently from thermal transfer technology.

C) Thermal transfer printers use heat to transfer ink from a ribbon onto paper or labels. The heat melts the ink, creating durable, high-quality images suitable for barcodes, labels, and specialized applications. Thermal transfer printing is commonly used in retail, logistics, and manufacturing due to longevity, resistance to smudging, and label compatibility. The ribbon can be wax, resin, or a combination to produce varying durability. Compared to direct thermal printing, which requires heat-sensitive paper, thermal transfer printing produces longer-lasting results and works on a wider variety of media. Thermal transfer printers can also integrate with barcoding software, labeling systems, and industrial automation setups.

D) Dot matrix printers use impact pins to strike an ink ribbon onto paper. They are noisy, slow, and suitable for multipart forms, but do not rely on heat transfer.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The printer that uses heat to transfer ink from a ribbon to paper is a thermal transfer printer. Laser printers fuse toner, inkjets spray liquid ink, and dot matrix printers use impact pins. Therefore, C) Thermal Transfer Printer is correct.

Question 176:

Which wireless frequency band is less congested and typically supports higher data rates?

A) 2.4 GHz
B) 5 GHz
C) 900 MHz
D) 60 GHz

Answer: B) 5 GHz

Explanation:

A) The 2.4 GHz band is widely used by Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, microwaves, and other household devices. Its popularity leads to congestion and interference, which can reduce throughput and reliability. The longer wavelength allows better range and wall penetratio,n but often at lower speeds.

B) The 5 GHz band is less congested than 2.4 GHz and supports higher data rates due to wider channel bandwidths and more non-overlapping channels. Its shorter wavelength reduces range and penetration through obstacles, but modern routers often implement band steering or multiple access points to maintain coverage. The 5 GHz band is ideal for high-speed applications like video streaming, online gaming, and data-intensive transfers. Wi-Fi standards like 802.11ac and 802.11ax leverage 5 GHz for high throughput, multi-user MIMO, and channel bonding. The band’s reduced interference compared to 2.4 GHz makes it suitable for environments with many competing devices. Deploying dual-band networks allows devices to switch between 2.4 GHz for range and 5 GHz for speed.

C) 900 MHz is primarily used in legacy wireless devices, cordless phones, and some IoT applications. It offersa  good range but low throughput, making it unsuitable for modern high-speed Wi-Fi.

D) 60 GHz is used in specialized technologies like WiGig for ultra-high-speed short-range communications. It is limited by line-of-sight requirements and poor wall penetration, making it impractical for general Wi-Fi coverage.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The wireless frequency band that is less congested and supports higher data rates is 5 GHz. 2.4 GHz is congested, 900 MHz is low-speed, and 60 GHz is short-range and specialized. Therefore, B) 5 GHz is correct.

Question 177:

Which type of attack uses deception to obtain sensitive information by pretending to be a trustworthy source?

A) Phishing
B) DoS
C) Worm
D) Keylogger

Answer: A) Phishing

Explanation:

A) Phishing is a social engineering attack that deceives users into revealing sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, or financial data. Attackers use emails, fake websites, or messages appearing to come from legitimate sources. Phishing can lead to identity theft, financial loss, or unauthorized system access. Techniques include spear-phishing (targeted) and clone phishing (duplicating legitimate messages). Organizations implement awareness training, email filtering, and multi-factor authentication to mitigate phishing risks. Modern phishing attacks often exploit social behavior, urgency, and trust to trick users into performing unsafe actions. Phishing campaigns may also include malicious attachments or links to install malware on victim systems.

B) DoS (Denial of Service) attacks overwhelm a system with traffic to render it unavailable. DoS does not typically involve tricking users or stealing sensitive information.

C) Worms are self-replicating malware that spread automatically but do not inherently rely on deception to collect sensitive data.

D) Keyloggers record keystrokes to capture credentials or data, but they are installed through malware or physical access, not by tricking users to voluntarily provide information.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The attack that uses deception to obtain sensitive information is phishing. DoS disrupts services, worms replicate, and keyloggers passively capture input. Therefore, A) Phishing is correct.

Question 178:

Which tool is used to test the reachability of a remote host and measure response time?

A) tracert
B) ping
C) ipconfig
D) netstat

Answer: B) ping

Explanation:

A) tracert traces the route packets take from the source to a destination, showing each intermediate hop. While useful for diagnosing routing issues, it is not primarily used to measure reachability or response time for a single host.

B) ping tests the reachability of a remote host by sending ICMP echo requests and measuring the round-trip time for replies. It is a fundamental diagnostic tool to verify network connectivity, latency, packet loss, and basic host availability. Ping can also help detect network congestion, failures, or misconfigurations. Advanced ping usage includes setting packet size, interval, and count to analyze network performance or troubleshoot intermittent connectivity. It is widely used by network administrators to ensure endpoints are accessible and to identify potential bottlenecks in the network. A successful ping confirms that the IP address is active and tthat he device is reachable at the network layer.

C) ipconfig displays local IP configuration and interface details, but does not test remote host reachability.

D) netstat shows active connections and listening ports but does not provide reachability testing or response time measurements.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The tool used to test reachability and measure response time is ping. tracert traces routes, ipconfig shows configuration, and netstat monitors connections. Therefore, B) ping is correct.

Question 179:

Which cloud service model delivers software applications over the internet without managing infrastructure?

A) IaaS
B) PaaS
C) SaaS
D) DaaS

Answer: C) SaaS

Explanation:

A) IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides virtualized computing resources such as servers, storage, and networking. Users manage operating systems and applications while the provider manages hardware.

B) PaaS (Platform as a Service) delivers a development and deployment environment. Users manage applications but not the underlying infrastructure.

C) SaaS (Software as a Service) delivers fully functional software applications over the internet. Users access software via a browser or client without managing servers, storage, or networking. Examples include email services, CRM platforms, office suites, and collaboration tools. SaaS is subscription-based and allows instant deployment, automatic updates, and accessibility from multiple devices. The provider handles all maintenance, security, and scaling. SaaS reduces IT overhead, simplifies software distribution, and ensures a consistent user experience. Organizations benefit from rapid implementation, predictable costs, and centralized administration. SaaS supports multi-tenant architectures, allowing multiple users or organizations to share the same software instance securely.

D) DaaS (Desktop as a Service) provides virtual desktops in the cloud, not general-purpose applications. Users manage desktop environments rather than accessing software as a service.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The cloud model that delivers software applications over the internet without managing infrastructure is SaaS. IaaS provides infrastructure, PaaS provides a platform, and DaaS provides virtual desktops. Therefore, C) SaaS is correct.

Question 180:

Which security measure prevents unauthorized access to a wireless network by requiring a password?

A) MAC Filtering
B) WPA/WPA2/WPA3
C) Firewall
D) Antivirus

Answer: B) WPA/WPA2/WPA3

Explanation:

A) MAC filtering allows only devices with specific MAC addresses to access the network. While it provides some control, MAC addresses can be spoofed, making this method insufficient for strong security.

B) WPA, WPA2, and WPA3 are Wi-Fi security protocols that require a password (pre-shared key or enterprise credentials) to authenticate devices and encrypt traffic. WPA2 and WPA3 provide strong encryption and protection against eavesdropping, while WPA3 adds advanced security features like forward secrecy and enhanced password-based authentication. Implementing these protocols prevents unauthorized access, ensures data confidentiality, and protects against attacks like dictionary attacks or brute-force attempts. WPA3 is the current standard offering the highest security for modern networks, and WPA2 remains widely used for legacy devices. These protocols ensure that wireless communications are encrypted end-to-end, protecting sensitive data such as login credentials, financial transactions, and private communications from interception or tampering. Proper configuration includes strong passwords, regular updates, and enterprise authentication for high-security environments.

C) Firewalls filter traffic at the network perimeter or host level but do not inherently secure Wi-Fi access.

D) Antivirus software detects and removes malware but does not prevent unauthorized network access.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The security measure that prevents unauthorized access by requiring a password is WPA/WPA2/WPA3. MAC filtering is weak, firewalls control traffic, and antivirus software protects against malware. Therefore, B) WPA/WPA2/WPA3 is correct.