220-1201  CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set1 Q 1-20

Visit here for our full CompTIA 220-1201 exam dumps and practice test questions.

Question 1:

Which of the following is the primary purpose of a power supply unit (PSU) in a desktop computer?

A) To store temporary data for running applications
B) To convert AC power from the wall into DC power for components
C) To provide wireless connectivity
D) To manage network traffic

Answer: B) To convert AC power from the wall into DC power for components

Explanation:

The power supply unit (PSU) is one of the most critical components in a computer system. Its primary function is to take the alternating current (AC) from a wall outlet and convert it into direct current (DC) that the computer components can use. Every component in a computer—from the CPU, GPU, motherboard, RAM, storage devices, to peripherals—requires DC power at specific voltages and current levels to function correctly. The PSU ensures stable and reliable power delivery to prevent damage to these sensitive components.

Option A, which mentions storing temporary data for running applications, actually describes the function of RAM (Random Access Memory). RAM is volatile memory used by the CPU to store and access data quickly while programs are running. While essential to computer operations, RAM does not supply power to components.

Option C, providing wireless connectivity, is a function of a wireless network adapter or Wi-Fi module. These devices handle network communication and do not convert or supply power to other hardware components.

Option D, managing network traffic, is the responsibility of networking devices such as routers, switches, or NICs (Network Interface Cards). The PSU does not control or manage data transmission.

A PSU is not only responsible for converting AC to DC but also regulates voltage to protect components from surges, overvoltage, or undervoltage conditions. Modern PSUs often come with modular cables, making it easier to connect only the necessary power lines to the components, which improves airflow and reduces clutter within the case. The wattage rating of a PSU is crucial; underpowered units can lead to instability, crashes, or even hardware failure. Power supplies also include protection circuits for overcurrent, short circuits, and thermal protection.

Choosing the correct PSU involves calculating the total wattage requirement of all installed components, factoring in headroom for future upgrades, and ensuring compliance with energy efficiency certifications such as 80 PLUS. High-quality PSUs contribute to overall system stability, reliability, and longevity.

In summary, the PSU’s primary responsibility is the conversion of AC power into the precise DC voltages needed by the computer, making option B the correct answer. Without this essential function, no component could operate, and the system would not function.

Question 2:

Which type of memory is considered volatile and loses its contents when power is removed?

A) ROM
B) RAM
C) SSD
D) HDD

Answer: B) RAM

Explanation:

Random Access Memory (RAM) is a volatile memory technology that stores data temporarily while the CPU is actively processing tasks. The term “volatile” indicates that when the system loses power, the contents of RAM are erased. This property makes RAM ideal for temporary storage of applications and operating system processes that require rapid read/write speeds. RAM allows the CPU to access data faster than if it were reading from a storage device such as an SSD or HDD.

Option A, ROM (Read-Only Memory), is non-volatile. It retains its data even when power is removed and typically stores firmware or BIOS instructions that are essential for booting the system. ROM is read-only, so the CPU cannot use it for temporary storage or dynamic data.

Option C, SSD (Solid-State Drive), is a form of non-volatile storage. Data on SSDs persists without power. SSDs use NAND flash memory and provide faster storage access compared to HDDs, but they are not used for temporary working memory.

Option D, HDD (Hard Disk Drive), is also non-volatile storage. It uses spinning magnetic platters to retain data permanently until deleted or modified. Like SSDs, HDDs serve as long-term storage rather than temporary, volatile storage.

RAM’s volatility is a deliberate design feature. It enables very fast read and write operations because it does not require persistent storage mechanisms. CPU operations rely heavily on RAM for tasks such as loading operating system files, running software applications, and storing temporary data during program execution. The size of RAM directly impacts the system’s ability to multitask. More RAM allows the computer to handle larger datasets and multiple applications simultaneously without resorting to slower storage swapping.

Additionally, RAM types differ, such as DRAM (Dynamic RAM) and SRAM (Static RAM). DRAM needs periodic refresh cycles to maintain its data, whereas SRAM uses flip-flops to store bits and is faster but more expensive, usually used in CPU caches. RAM modules also come in different generations (DDR3, DDR4, DDR5), each offering different speeds and voltages.

In summary, RAM is the correct answer because it is volatile memory that loses all stored data when power is removed, unlike ROM, SSD, or HDD. Its role as temporary, high-speed working memory is fundamental to computing operations.

Question 3:

Which of the following expansion slots provides the fastest data transfer for a modern graphics card?

A) PCI
B) PCIe x16
C) AGP
D) ISA

Answer: B) PCIe x16

Explanation:

PCI Express (PCIe) x16 slots are designed to provide high-bandwidth connections for modern graphics cards. The “x16” indicates that the slot supports 16 lanes, allowing multiple bits of data to be transferred simultaneously, which significantly increases throughput. PCIe uses a point-to-point serial interface, reducing congestion compared to older parallel bus architectures. Modern GPUs require high bandwidth to handle complex graphics, 3D rendering, and video processing.

Option A, PCI, is an older parallel bus standard. It has a lower bandwidth and cannot meet the performance demands of modern graphics cards. PCI slots are mostly used today for low-speed peripherals.

Option C, AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port), was a graphics-specific interface before PCIe. While faster than PCI for its time, AGP is obsolete and cannot match the bandwidth of PCIe x16.

Option D, ISA (Industry Standard Architecture), is a very old expansion slot standard that is extremely slow compared to modern interfaces and cannot support contemporary graphics cards.

PCIe x16 supports multiple versions (e.g., PCIe 3.0, 4.0, 5.0), each increasing bandwidth per lane. It also allows backward compatibility with older PCIe cards, although performance will be limited to the slot version. The high bandwidth of PCIe x16 is critical for gaming, video editing, machine learning, and other GPU-intensive applications.

In summary, the fastest expansion slot for modern graphics cards is PCIe x16, making option B the correct choice. It provides the necessary data transfer speeds and scalability for today’s high-performance computing needs.

Question 4:

Which of the following connectors is commonly used for SATA storage devices?

A) Molex
B) 24-pin ATX
C) 7-pin data connector
D) RJ-45

Answer: C) 7-pin data connector

Explanation:

SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment) storage devices, such as SSDs and HDDs, use a 7-pin data connector to communicate with the motherboard. This connector transmits data serially and supports high-speed transfer rates. Storage devices also require a separate 15-pin SATA power connector for electrical power.

Option A, Molex, is an older 4-pin connector used for providing power to legacy drives. It does not transmit data.

Option B, 24-pin ATX, is the main motherboard power connector, supplying voltage to the motherboard but not directly connecting to storage devices for data transfer.

Option D, RJ-45, is used for Ethernet networking and is unrelated to storage device connections.

SATA replaced PATA (Parallel ATA) drives due to simplified cabling, improved transfer rates, and support for hot swapping. The 7-pin connector is specifically designed to handle high-speed serial data efficiently, making it standard for modern storage solutions. SATA supports multiple generations, such as SATA I (1.5 Gbps), SATA II (3 Gbps), and SATA III (6 Gbps), ensuring compatibility and performance improvements over time.

In summary, the correct connector for SATA data transmission is the 7-pin data connector, option C, which provides reliable, high-speed communication between storage devices and the motherboard.

Question 5:

Which storage device uses flash memory for data storage?

A) HDD
B) SSD
C) Blu-ray
D) Tape drive

Answer: B) SSD

Explanation:

Solid-State Drives (SSDs) use NAND flash memory to store data. Flash memory is non-volatile, meaning it retains information even when power is removed. SSDs have no moving parts, which results in faster access times, reduced latency, lower power consumption, and higher durability compared to traditional spinning hard drives (HDDs).

Option A, HDD, uses magnetic platters and mechanical read/write heads to store and access data. HDDs are slower and more prone to mechanical failure compared to SSDs.

Option C, Blu-ray, is an optical storage medium that stores data using laser technology. While suitable for archival purposes, it is slower and less convenient than SSDs for primary storage.

Option D, tape drives, are sequential-access magnetic storage devices used primarily for backups. They offer high capacity but are slow and not suitable for frequent random access.

SSDs dramatically improve system boot times, application load times, and overall system responsiveness. They are commonly used in laptops, desktops, and servers. Different SSD interfaces include SATA, NVMe, and PCIe, which impact performance and compatibility. NVMe SSDs, in particular, offer extremely high read/write speeds by connecting directly to PCIe lanes.

In summary, the storage device that uses flash memory for fast, non-volatile storage is the SSD, making option B the correct choice.

Question 6:

Which wireless standard provides the highest throughput under ideal conditions?

A) 802.11a
B) 802.11b
C) 802.11g
D) 802.11ac

Answer: D) 802.11ac

Explanation:

802.11ac, also known as Wi-Fi 5, is a modern wireless networking standard that operates on the 5 GHz band and delivers significantly higher throughput compared to earlier standards. Its maximum theoretical speed can reach multiple gigabits per second due to the use of wider channels, multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology, and advanced modulation schemes like 256-QAM. The standard allows multiple simultaneous data streams to improve network performance and reduce congestion.

Option A, 802.11a, was an early 5 GHz Wi-Fi standard offering a maximum speed of 54 Mbps. While operating on the less crowded 5 GHz band, its bandwidth was very limited by today’s standards.

Option B, 802.11b, operated on the 2.4 GHz band and achieved maximum speeds of 11 Mbps. It was highly susceptible to interference from other devices such as microwaves, cordless phones, and Bluetooth devices.

Option C, 802.11g, also operated on 2.4 GHz and could reach 54 Mbps. Although it was backward-compatible with 802.11b, it shared the same frequency band, which made it prone to interference and limited its real-world performance.

802.11ac not only increased raw throughput but also introduced advanced features such as beamforming, which directs the Wi-Fi signal toward connected devices to enhance signal strength and reduce dead zones. Backward compatibility with 802.11a/n allows older devices to connect while maintaining optimal network performance for 802.11ac-compatible devices.

Additionally, 802.11ac supports multi-user MIMO (MU-MIMO), allowing multiple devices to communicate with the access point simultaneously rather than sequentially. This is particularly useful in high-density environments, such as offices, schools, and public Wi-Fi hotspots.

In summary, 802.11ac provides superior speed, reliability, and efficiency compared to older standards, making it the correct answer. Its advanced features and high throughput make it ideal for streaming, gaming, and other bandwidth-intensive applications.

Question 7:

Which type of cable is required to connect a computer to a router for wired Ethernet?

A) HDMI
B) USB-C
C) RJ-45
D) Lightning

Answer: C) RJ-45

Explanation:

RJ-45 is the standard connector for Ethernet cables, which are used to create wired connections between computers, routers, switches, and other networking devices. Ethernet cables, typically Cat5e, Cat6, or Cat6a, provide reliable, high-speed data transmission within local area networks (LANs). The RJ-45 connector has eight pins, which support four twisted pairs of wires to transmit and receive data.

Option A, HDMI, is a multimedia cable standard used for transmitting video and audio signals. It does not carry network data and cannot be used for Ethernet connections.

Option B, USB-C, is a versatile connector for data transfer, video, and power delivery, but it is not used for wired Ethernet connections. Specialized adapters are required to connect USB-C to Ethernet.

Option D, Lightning, is Apple’s proprietary connector for iPhones and iPads. It is used for charging and data transfer, but does not support wired network connections.

Wired Ethernet connections using RJ-45 are more stable and secure than wireless connections. They offer lower latency, higher speeds, and less susceptibility to interference, making them ideal for gaming, video streaming, and network-intensive operations. Modern Ethernet standards, such as Gigabit Ethernet (1000 Mbps) or 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10 Gbps), ensure that wired connections can handle heavy workloads efficiently.

In addition to stability, using RJ-45 for Ethernet allows proper network troubleshooting. Tools like cable testers can verify pinout continuity, detect miswiring, and ensure signal integrity. RJ-45 remains the industry standard for wired networking due to its performance, simplicity, and broad compatibility with devices.

In summary, RJ-45 connectors are essential for wired Ethernet connections, providing reliable and high-speed networking, making option C the correct answer.

Question 8:

Which CPU component controls the execution of instructions and coordinates all other components?

A) ALU
B) Control Unit (CU)
C) Cache
D) FPU

Answer: B) Control Unit (CU)

Explanation:

The Control Unit (CU) is a core component of the CPU that orchestrates the execution of instructions. It decodes instructions fetched from memory and directs the CPU’s internal components, including the ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit), registers, and cache, to perform the necessary operations. The CU also manages data flow between memory and input/output devices, ensuring that the CPU processes instructions in the correct sequence.

Option A, ALU, performs arithmetic and logical operations, such as addition, subtraction, AND, and OR. While critical for computation, the ALU does not control the execution of instructions.

Option C, cache, is high-speed memory located near or on the CPU. It stores frequently accessed data and instructions to reduce latency, but does not control the CPU’s operations.

Option D, FPU (Floating Point Unit), handles complex mathematical calculations, particularly involving floating-point numbers. Like the ALU, it executes specialized operations but does not coordinate overall CPU activities.

The Control Unit operates as the brain within the CPU, issuing control signals that determine how data moves and how instructions are executed. It interprets opcodes from instructions and synchronizes processes like reading from memory, executing arithmetic operations, writing results back to memory, and communicating with I/O devices.

Modern CPUs integrate sophisticated CUs capable of handling pipelining, speculative execution, branch prediction, and multiple cores. This ensures high efficiency, faster processing, and optimized resource utilization. Without the CU, the CPU would not function cohesively, as individual components like ALUs and FPUs would lack coordination.

In summary, the Control Unit is responsible for directing CPU operations, coordinating data flow, and executing instructions correctly. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Question 9:

Which tool would a technician use to test network cable continuity and wiring issues?

A) Multimeter
B) Cable tester
C) Crimper
D) Loopback plug

Answer: B) Cable tester

Explanation:

A cable tester is a specialized tool used to verify network cable integrity. It tests for continuity, proper pin alignment, and potential wiring faults such as shorts or open circuits. Cable testers often provide visual indicators for miswiring, enabling technicians to ensure that Ethernet cables are functional before deployment.

Option A, a multimeter, can measure voltage, current, and resistance, ut is not ideal for checking Ethernet pinouts or continuity across multiple pairs efficiently.

Option C, a crimper, attaches RJ-45 connectors to Ethernet cables but does not test whether the wiring is correct or continuous.

Option D, a loopback plug, tests network interfaces and ports by redirecting outgoing signals back to the device, but it does not assess the cable’s integrity between devices.

Cable testers can handle multiple cable types, including Cat5e, Cat6, and coaxial cables. Some advanced models include tone generators to trace cables across walls or ceilings. Using a cable tester ensures proper signal transmission, reduces network downtime, and simplifies troubleshooting in enterprise and residential networks.

In summary, the correct tool to verify cable continuity and wiring is a cable tester, making option B the correct answer.

Question 10:

Which type of expansion card provides high-definition audio output for speakers and headphones?

A) GPU
B) Sound card
C) NIC
D) Capture card

Answer: B) Sound card

Explanation:

A sound card, whether integrated on the motherboard or installed as a dedicated expansion card, handles audio processing and output. It converts digital audio signals from the computer into analog signals for speakers or headphones and can also process input from microphones. High-definition sound cards support multi-channel audio, surround sound, and advanced audio standards, enhancing the overall audio experience for music, gaming, or video production.

Option A, GPU (Graphics Processing Unit), is responsible for rendering graphics and video output. While it may include audio pass-through for HDMI, it is not primarily designed for audio processing.

Option C, NIC (Network Interface Card), manages network connectivity and data transfer over Ethernet or wireless connections, not audio.

Option D, capture card, is designed for recording video from external sources and may process audio, but its primary function is video capture, not sound output.

Dedicated sound cards often provide higher quality DACs (Digital-to-Analog Converters), signal processing capabilities, and support for optical audio outputs. Integrated audio solutions on motherboards are sufficient for basic use, but for audiophiles or professional applications, a dedicated sound card delivers superior performance.

In summary, a sound card is the correct solution for high-definition audio output to speakers and headphones, making option B correct.

Question 11:

Which storage device type is commonly used for portable backups and can easily connect via USB?

A) SSD
B) External HDD
C) Internal HDD
D) Optical disc

Answer: B) External HDD

Explanation:

External Hard Disk Drives (HDDs) are widely used for portable data storage and backup solutions. They combine large storage capacity with portability and often use USB interfaces for easy connection to computers, laptops, or servers. This allows users to store, transport, and back up substantial amounts of data without requiring complex installation or configuration. External HDDs typically offer storage capacities ranging from several hundred gigabytes to multiple terabytes, making them ideal for personal use, enterprise backups, or media storage.

Option A, SSDs (Solid-State Drives), can be used externally, but traditional external HDDs are more common due to their lower cost per gigabyte, particularly for large backups. While external SSDs offer faster access times and greater durability, they are more expensive and less frequently used for bulk storage.

Option C, internal HDDs, are installed inside the computer case. They require opening the system chassis for installation, making them unsuitable for portable, plug-and-play backup solutions.

Option D, optical discs, such as CDs, DVDs, or Blu-ray discs, provide a form of removable storage. However, they have limited storage capacity (up to 50 GB for Blu-ray discs) and are increasingly outdated due to slower read/write speeds, fragility, and incompatibility with modern devices lacking optical drives.

External HDDs also offer compatibility with multiple operating systems and file systems such as NTFS, exFAT, and HFS+. They are often equipped with USB 3.0 or USB-C ports, allowing high-speed data transfer compared to older USB 2.0 devices. Some external HDDs include encryption or password protection for data security. They are also often used in conjunction with backup software for automated scheduling, ensuring data redundancy and disaster recovery capability.

In addition to physical portability, external HDDs allow easy duplication and migration of data between devices, which is essential for IT professionals, photographers, videographers, and general users who need reliable off-site storage. While SSDs are faster, the cost-effectiveness, availability, and large capacity make external HDDs the preferred choice for general-purpose portable backups.

In summary, external HDDs combine portability, high capacity, and ease of connection through USB, making them the best solution for portable backups, so option B is correct.

Question 12

Which tool can be used to safely remove dust from computer components without damaging them?

A) Vacuum cleaner
B) Compressed air canister
C) Water spray
D) Screwdriver

Answer: B) Compressed air canister

Explanation:

A compressed air canister is an essential tool for safely cleaning computer components. It allows technicians to blow dust, debris, and particles from sensitive areas such as fans, heatsinks, motherboards, RAM, and power supply units without physical contact. Dust accumulation inside a computer can impede airflow, reduce cooling efficiency, and increase the risk of overheating and hardware failure.

Option A, a vacuum cleaner, is not recommended because it can generate static electricity, which may discharge onto sensitive electronic components, causing permanent damage.

Option C, water spray, is extremely dangerous for electronics. Any moisture can cause short circuits, corrosion, or irreparable damage. Computers must remain dry during maintenance.

Option D, a screwdriver, is used to assemble or disassemble computer components. It is not a cleaning tool and does not remove dust.

Using a compressed air canister correctly involves holding the can upright to avoid liquid propellant from spraying, keeping a safe distance from delicate components, and using short bursts of air to dislodge dust. For persistent debris, soft anti-static brushes may be used in conjunction with compressed air.

Regular cleaning with compressed air improves thermal performance by allowing fans and heatsinks to operate efficiently, maintaining optimal airflow throughout the system. This reduces the likelihood of CPU or GPU throttling due to overheating, which can degrade system performance and lifespan. It also prevents dust from settling on power supply components, which could compromise electrical insulation and lead to failures.

In summary, a compressed air canister is the safest and most effective tool for removing dust from computer components, making option B the correct answer. It ensures cleanliness, optimal cooling, and long-term hardware reliability without risking damage from static or moisture.

Question 13:

Which device converts digital signals to analog signals for transmission over telephone lines?

A) Router
B) Modem
C) Switch
D) Hub

Answer: B) Modem

Explanation:

A modem, short for modulator-demodulator, is a device that converts digital data from a computer or network into analog signals suitable for transmission over telephone lines or traditional analog infrastructures. It also performs the reverse process, demodulating incoming analog signals back into digital data that computers can process. Modems were essential for dial-up Internet connections, DSL lines, and some cable Internet setups.

Option A, a router, directs network traffic between devices or networks. While modern routers often include integrated modems, the router’s primary function is traffic management, IP addressing, and network routing, not signal conversion.

Option C, a switch, operates at the data link layer and connects multiple devices within a LAN. It manages packet delivery and MAC addresses, but does not convert digital signals to analog.

Option D, a hub, simply broadcasts network signals to all connected devices within a network segment. It also does not perform digital-to-analog conversion.

Modems use techniques like amplitude modulation (AM), frequency modulation (FM), and phase modulation (PM) to encode digital information onto analog carrier signals. The primary purpose is to allow data transmission over media designed for digital signals, like the traditional telephone network. Modern DSL modems still convert digital data to analog tones to send over copper telephone lines, enabling Internet connectivity for homes and businesses.

Modems also vary in type: DSL modems, cable modems, and fiber optic modems. They support different speeds and protocols depending on the ISP. A combined router-modem device simplifies home networks by integrating routing and signal conversion functions.

In summary, the device responsible for converting digital signals to analog signals for transmission over telephone lines is a modem, making option B correct. This conversion enables computers to communicate over legacy analog infrastructures.

Question 14:

Which type of expansion card allows a computer to connect to a wired network?

A) GPU
B) NIC
C) Sound card
D) Capture card

Answer: B) NIC

Explanation

 A Network Interface Card (NIC) provides the interface for a computer to connect to a wired network. NICs can be integrated into motherboards or added as expansion cards. They use Ethernet cables and RJ-45 connectors to connect to switches, routers, or hubs. NICs manage data at the data link layer, handle MAC addressing, and process incoming and outgoing network packets.

Option A, GPU, renders graphics for displays and does not facilitate network connectivity.

Option C, sound card, handles audio input/output and does not transmit network data.

Option D, caa capture card, is primarily used for recording or streaming video from external sources. It does not manage wired network connections.

NICs support various speeds and standards, including 10 Mbps, 100 Mbps, 1 Gbps, and 10 Gbps Ethernet. Modern NICs also support features like VLAN tagging, TCP offloading, Wake-on-LAN, and hardware-based checksum calculations to improve network efficiency. Proper installation and configuration of NICs are essential for reliable network connectivity in homes, offices, or data centers.

In summary, the expansion card that allows a computer to connect to a wired network is a NIC, making option B the correct answer.

Question 15:

Which of the following describes the purpose of thermal paste?

A) Conduct electricity between components
B) Improve heat transfer between CPU and heatsink
C) Lubricate mechanical fans
D) Reduce static electricity

Answer: B) Improve heat transfer between CPU and heatsink

Explanation:

Thermal paste, also called thermal compound or thermal grease, is applied between the CPU and its heatsink to improve heat conduction. CPU and heatsink surfaces are not perfectly flat; microscopic gaps and imperfections reduce thermal contact. Thermal paste fills these gaps, allowing more efficient heat transfer from the CPU to the heatsink. Efficient heat dissipation prevents overheating, thermal throttling, and potential hardware damage.

Option A, conducting electricity, is incorrect. Most thermal pastes are non-conductive to avoid short circuits. Some specialized pastes are conductive, but standard thermal compounds focus on heat transfer.

Option C, lubricating fans, is unrelated. Fans have bearings that may require specific lubricants, but thermal paste is not used for this purpose.

Option D, reducing static electricity, is also incorrect. Anti-static wristbands or mats manage static, not thermal compounds.

Proper application of thermal paste requires a thin, even layer to avoid air bubbles, which can hinder heat transfer. Overapplication can also be counterproductive, reducing efficiency and potentially spilling onto the motherboard. Modern CPUs and GPUs rely on thermal paste to maintain operational stability, especially under heavy workloads like gaming, video rendering, or computational tasks.

In summary, thermal paste’s main purpose is to enhance heat transfer between the CPU and heatsink, making option B the correct answer. It ensures optimal cooling and prolongs hardware life.

Question 15:

Which of the following describes the purpose of thermal paste?

A) Conduct electricity between components
B) Improve heat transfer between CPU and heatsink
C) Lubricate mechanical fans
D) Reduce static electricity

Answer: B) Improve heat transfer between CPU and heatsink

Explanation:

Thermal paste, also known as thermal compound or thermal grease, is a crucial material applied between a CPU (or GPU) and its heatsink to facilitate optimal heat transfer. CPUs generate significant heat during operation, and efficient dissipation is critical to maintaining performance and hardware longevity. The surfaces of CPUs and heatsinks, while appearing flat, contain microscopic imperfections. These imperfections create tiny air pockets when the two surfaces meet, reducing the efficiency of heat transfer. Thermal paste fills these gaps, providing a more conductive pathway for heat to travel from the CPU to the heatsink, which then dissipates it via fans or other cooling mechanisms.

Option A, conducting electricity, is incorrect because most thermal pastes are non-conductive to prevent electrical shorts between components. Using a conductive paste incorrectly can damage the CPU or motherboard. Option B is correct, as the primary function of thermal paste is thermal conductivity, not electrical conduction.

Option C, lubricating fans, is unrelated. Fans may require their own lubricants for bearing maintenance, but thermal paste does not perform this function. Using it on fan mechanisms would be ineffective and could damage the fan.

Option D, reducing static electricity, is also incorrect. Anti-static wristbands, mats, and other grounding methods handle static discharge protection, whereas thermal paste does not have any role in static management.

Proper application of thermal paste is crucial. Too little paste can leave air pockets, reducing thermal transfer efficiency and causing the CPU to overheat. Too much paste can spill over the CPU or socket, potentially causing damage. Typically, a pea-sized or small line of paste in the center of the CPU is sufficient, as the heatsink will spread it evenly across the surface when installed.

Modern CPUs, especially high-performance desktop and gaming processors, require precise thermal management. Inefficient heat dissipation can lead to thermal throttling, where the CPU reduces its speed to prevent overheating, resulting in performance drops. Long-term exposure to elevated temperatures can shorten CPU lifespan and even damage surrounding components.

In addition, thermal paste types vary, including metal-based, ceramic-based, and liquid metal compounds, each with specific thermal conductivity and electrical properties. Metal-based pastes offer high conductivity but can be electrically conductive, whereas ceramic-based pastes are non-conductive but slightly less efficient. Liquid metal pastes provide exceptional conductivity but require careful application.

In summary, thermal paste is used to improve heat transfer between the CPU and heatsink, preventing overheating and ensuring stable operation. Option B is the correct answer. Proper use enhances system performance and prolongs component life, distinguishing it from lubricating fans, conducting electricity, or reducing static.

Question 16:

Which cable type is used for high-speed video and audio transmission between a computer and monitor?

A) VGA
B) HDMI
C) RJ-45
D) SATA

Answer: B) HDMI

Explanation:

HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) is a widely adopted digital standard for transmitting high-definition video and audio simultaneously. HDMI cables are capable of carrying uncompressed digital video and audio signals, unlike older analog standards such as VGA, which only carry video and degrade over distance. HDMI supports a wide range of resolutions, from standard HD (1080p) to 4K, 8K, and beyond, with high refresh rates and HDR (High Dynamic Range) for improved image quality.

Option A, VGA, is an analog interface. It transmits video only, cannot carry audio, and is susceptible to signal degradation and interference. While VGA can still be used in older setups, it is largely obsolete in modern computing environments.

Option C, RJ-45, is an Ethernet connector for networking. It does not transmit video or audio signals and is unrelated to display connections.

Option D, SATA, is a storage interface used to connect hard drives and SSDs to the motherboard. It is not designed for video or audio transmission.

HDMI cables also support advanced features such as Consumer Electronics Control (CEC), allowing interconnected devices to control each other through a single remote, and Audio Return Channel (ARC), enabling audio signals to flow in both directions, such as from a TV to a soundbar. Additionally, HDMI cables are compatible with HDCP (High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection), which protects copyrighted content from unauthorized copying.

With a single HDMI cable, users can simplify cable management while achieving high-quality audio and video. Its digital nature ensures signal integrity over longer distances compared to analog cables. HDMI has largely replaced older interfaces like VGA, DVI, and component cables, particularly in modern PCs, laptops, and home theater systems.

In summary, HDMI is the correct cable type for high-speed digital video and audio transmission, making option B correct. It provides superior quality, reliability, and versatility compared to VGA, RJ-45, or SATA.

Question 17:

Which CPU cache level is typically the fastest?

A) L1
B) L2
C) L3
D) L4

Answer: A) L1

Explanation:

L1 cache is the fastest memory cache in a CPU hierarchy and is located closest to the processor cores. Its primary function is to provide the CPU with immediate access to frequently used instructions and data. L1 cache is small, typically 32KB to 128KB per core, but its speed is unmatched because it operates at the same clock frequency as the CPU core, minimizing latency.

Option B, L2 cache, is larger and slower than L1 cache. It serves as an intermediate storage location, holding data not present in L1 and reducing the number of main memory accesses.

Option C, L3 cache, is shared among cores and is slower than L1 and L2. It acts as a backup to L1 and L2, storing data that may be needed by multiple cores, thus improving multi-core efficiency.

Option D, L4 cache, is rare and often external to the CPU die. It provides additional storage but with higher latency than L1-L3 caches.

Cache memory is a fundamental component in modern CPUs because accessing RAM is orders of magnitude slower than accessing cache memory. L1 cache ensures that the CPU can retrieve critical instructions almost instantaneously, improving overall performance. Efficient caching reduces CPU stalls, enables faster computation, and optimizes multitasking.

In summary, the fastest cache in a CPU is L1, making option A correct. It ensures the processor operates at maximum efficiency by minimizing wait times for frequently accessed data and instructions.

Question 18:

Which of the following wireless security protocols is the most secure for Wi-Fi networks?

A) WEP
B) WPA
C) WPA2
D) WPA3

Answer: D) WPA3

Explanation:

WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3) is the latest and most secure Wi-Fi security protocol. It provides enhanced encryption, individualized data encryption for open networks, and protection against brute-force attacks through the use of Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE). WPA3 is designed to protect modern networks from vulnerabilities present in older protocols.

Option A, WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy), is outdated and easily cracked using modern tools. Its weak encryption makes it unsuitable for any secure network.

Option B, WPA, was an improvement over WEP but still has vulnerabilities, particularly with TKIP encryption, and is considered insecure today.

Option C, WPA2, has been widely used and provides strong AES encryption. While still secure for most applications, it has been shown to be vulnerable to attacks like KRACK (Key Reinstallation Attack).

WPA3 also includes features such as forward secrecy, ensuring that even if a password is compromised in the future, past communications remain secure. It is backward-compatible with WPA2 devices, allowing a smooth transition while enhancing security on supported devices.

In summary, WPA3 is the most secure wireless protocol, offering strong encryption and protection against known vulnerabilities, making option D correct.

Question 19:

Which device allows multiple computers to share a single Internet connection while segmenting local network traffic?

A) Switch
B) Router
C) Hub
D) Modem

Answer: B) Router

Explanation:

A router is a networking device that connects multiple devices to a single Internet connection and manages local traffic. It performs Network Address Translation (NAT), allowing multiple devices to share a single public IP address while maintaining separate local IP addresses. Routers also segment network traffic, directing packets efficiently to their destinations, improving performance and security.

Option A, switch, connects devices within a LAN and forwards packets based on MAC addresses, but does not manage Internet connectivity.

Option C, hub, broadcasts all traffic to every connected device, creating congestion and inefficiency.

Option D, modem, converts digital signals to analog for transmission over telephone or cable lines, but does not manage local network traffic or share connections efficiently.

Routers also provide DHCP services to assign IP addresses, firewall protection, port forwarding, and sometimes VPN functionality. They are essential for home and enterprise networks, enabling secure and efficient sharing of a single Internet connection.

In summary, the device that enables multiple devices to share the internet while managing local traffic is a router, making option B correct.

Question 20:

Which tool is used to safely test electrical outlets and verify proper voltage?

A) Cable tester
B) Multimeter
C) Crimper
D) Loopback plug

Answer: B) Multimeter

Explanation:

A multimeter is a versatile testing device used to measure voltage, current, and resistance. When testing electrical outlets, a multimeter can confirm proper voltage, detect shorts, and verify circuit integrity. It ensures safe power delivery to devices, preventing damage from overvoltage or faulty wiring.

Option A, cable tester, checks network cable continuity but cannot measure electrical voltage.

Option C, crimper, attaches connectors to cables and does not measure electrical properties.

Option D, loopback plug, tests network interfaces but does not assess outlet voltage.

Using a multimeter involves setting it to the correct voltage range, connecting probes safely, and interpreting readings. It is indispensable for IT professionals, electricians, and hardware technicians to ensure safe and functional power delivery. Proper use prevents equipment damage and ensures safe working environments.

In summary, a multimeter is the correct tool for testing electrical outlets, making option B correct.