ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 8 Q141-160

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Question 141:

Under Domain 1, what is the main purpose of aligning security metrics with key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A) To evaluate system throughput
B) To demonstrate the business value of security initiatives
C) To replace audit findings
D) To eliminate compliance requirements

Answer: B) To demonstrate the business value of security initiatives.

Explanation:

Aligning security metrics with business KPIs helps communicate how security contributes to organizational objectives such as efficiency, risk reduction, and financial resilience, reinforcing management buy-in.

Question 142:

Under Domain 2, what is the first step in establishing a data classification scheme?

A) Define handling procedures
B) Identify data owners and stakeholders
C) Apply encryption controls
D) Label existing files

Answer: B) Identify data owners and stakeholders.

Explanation:

Owners determine classification levels, value, and handling rules. Without ownership, classification lacks authority and consistency across organizational units.

Question 143:

Under Domain 3, what is a trusted computing base (TCB)?

A) All components enforcing a system’s security policy
B) All users and their credentials
C) The database of security settings
D) A temporary test environment

Answer: A) All components enforcing a system’s security policy.

Explanation:

The TCB includes hardware, firmware, and software that implement security mechanisms. If the TCB is compromised, system security cannot be guaranteed.

Question 144:

Under Domain 4, what function does a proxy server primarily perform?

A) Provides encrypted tunnels
B) Mediates client requests to external resources, often filtering or caching them
C) Encrypts internal emails
D) Serves as a backup DNS server

Answer: B) Mediates client requests to external resources, often filtering or caching them.

Explanation:

A proxy server improves performance via caching and enforces security by filtering content and concealing internal IP addresses from external networks.

Question 145:

Under Domain 5, what technology ensures a user’s identity using digital certificates?

A) RADIUS
B) Kerberos
C) Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
D) TACACS+

Answer: C) Public Key Infrastructure (PKI).

Explanation:

PKI uses digital certificates issued by trusted Certificate Authorities to validate user or device identities and establish secure communication through asymmetric encryption.

Question 146:

Under Domain 6, what type of test involves introducing unexpected inputs to evaluate software robustness?

A) Regression testing
B) Fuzz testing
C) Unit testing
D) Integration testing

Answer: B) Fuzz testing.

Explanation:

Fuzzing sends random or malformed inputs to software to identify crashes, memory leaks, and input-handling vulnerabilities, enhancing software resilience.

Question 147:

Under Domain 7, which document specifies detailed steps for system restoration after a disaster?

A) Incident response plan
B) Business impact analysis
C) Disaster recovery plan (DRP)
D) Service-level agreement

Answer: C) Disaster recovery plan (DRP).

Explanation:

A DRP outlines procedures for restoring IT systems and data after major disruptions, ensuring technical recovery aligns with business continuity objectives.

Question 148:

Under Domain 8, which secure coding principle minimizes dependency on the environment by validating all assumptions?

A) Fail securely
B) Defensive programming
C) Error suppression
D) Code obfuscation

Answer: B) Defensive programming.

Explanation:

Defensive programming anticipates and validates all input and environmental conditions, ensuring the application behaves securely even under unexpected states or errors.

Question 149:

Under Domain 1, what is the chief advantage of centralized security governance?

A) It reduces staff training requirements
B) It ensures uniform policy enforcement and decision-making consistency
C) It limits executive oversight
D) It eliminates the need for monitoring

Answer: B) It ensures uniform policy enforcement and decision-making consistency.

Explanation:

Centralized governance provides clear authority, alignment with business objectives, and consistent policy interpretation across departments.

Question 150:

Under Domain 2, what is the main purpose of data remanence management?

A) To archive outdated files
B) To prevent recovery of residual data from decommissioned media
C) To increase data availability
D) To enhance database indexing

Answer: B) To prevent recovery of residual data from decommissioned media.

Explanation:

Remanence refers to residual data left on media after deletion. Secure erasure or physical destruction ensures it cannot be recovered by unauthorized entities.

Question 151:

Under Domain 3, which component enforces the reference monitor concept?

A) Security kernel
B) Access control list
C) Security policy
D) Hypervisor

Answer: A) Security kernel.

Explanation:

The security kernel is a critical component of a secure operating system, responsible for mediating all interactions between subjects (such as users or processes) and objects (such as files, devices, or other resources). Its primary role is to enforce the system’s security policy consistently and reliably, ensuring that only authorized actions are allowed. By centralizing control over access, the security kernel ensures that no operation can bypass security checks, maintaining the integrity and confidentiality of the system.

The concept of the security kernel is closely tied to the reference monitor model, which defines a set of principles for secure system design. These principles include completeness, isolation, and tamper resistance. Completeness requires that the security kernel mediate every access attempt—no exception is allowed. This ensures that no process can circumvent security mechanisms, preventing unauthorized actions from occurring undetected. Isolation guarantees that the security kernel itself is protected from interference by untrusted processes, maintaining its ability to operate correctly even under attack. Tamper resistance further ensures that the kernel cannot be modified or disabled by malicious entities, protecting the enforcement of the security policy from compromise.

In practical terms, the security kernel implements access control mechanisms, monitors system calls, and enforces security labels or permissions. It may also manage auditing, logging, and exception handling to ensure accountability and traceability of actions. By acting as the central mediator, the kernel simplifies the system’s security model, providing a single trusted component that can be analyzed, verified, and formally proven to enforce security requirements. Its design is often minimalistic to reduce the potential for bugs and vulnerabilities that could undermine security, reflecting the principle of economy of mechanism in secure system design.

The security kernel is particularly important in environments that handle sensitive or classified information, such as military, financial, and healthcare systems. By embodying the principles of the reference monitor, it provides assurance that the system enforces policies consistently, isolates critical resources, and resists tampering. Without a properly designed security kernel, an operating system cannot guarantee that its security policies are enforced reliably, leaving the system vulnerable to unauthorized access, privilege escalation, and data breaches. In this sense, the security kernel is the foundation of trusted computing, forming the core of a secure and resilient operating system.

Question 152:

Under Domain 4, what is the primary purpose of implementing network segmentation?

A) To simplify configuration
B) To reduce broadcast traffic
C) To isolate sensitive systems and limit lateral movement
D) To eliminate routing

Answer: C) To isolate sensitive systems and limit lateral movement.

Explanation:

Network segmentation is a fundamental security practice that involves dividing a computer network into smaller, isolated segments. This approach allows organizations to enhance security, improve performance, and control traffic flow between different parts of the network. The correct answer is option C: to isolate sensitive systems and limit lateral movement. Examining each of the four options clarifies why this is the most accurate choice.

A) To simplify configuration
While network segmentation can sometimes make network management more organized, its primary purpose is not simply to simplify configuration. In fact, segmenting a network can introduce additional complexity because administrators must define boundaries, configure access controls, manage routing policies, and monitor segmented traffic. Simplifying configuration is a secondary benefit at best, but it does not capture the primary security rationale behind network segmentation.

B) To reduce broadcast traffic
Network segmentation can help reduce broadcast traffic in certain cases, especially when implemented using VLANs. Limiting broadcast domains is a performance consideration because it prevents unnecessary traffic from affecting all devices on a large network. However, this is more of a network efficiency goal than a security objective. Reducing broadcast traffic does not inherently protect sensitive systems or prevent an attacker from moving laterally within the network if a segment is compromised.

C) To isolate sensitive systems and limit lateral movement
This is the correct answer. One of the most important security benefits of network segmentation is the isolation of sensitive systems from the general network. By creating separate network segments for critical servers, databases, or applications, organizations can enforce stricter access controls and reduce the attack surface. If one segment is compromised, segmentation limits lateral movement, preventing attackers from easily reaching other systems in the network. For example, if a user workstation is infected with malware, network segmentation can prevent the malware from accessing sensitive financial or healthcare systems. Firewalls, access control lists, and internal routing policies are often implemented to control traffic between segments. This approach not only enhances security but also supports compliance with regulatory standards, such as PCI DSS, HIPAA, and ISO 27001, which often require the protection of sensitive data and system isolation. The ability to contain potential breaches and restrict attacker movement is the primary reason organizations adopt segmentation as a security strategy.

D) To eliminate routing
Network segmentation does not eliminate routing; in fact, it often requires careful routing configuration between segments. Proper routing policies, combined with access control rules, ensure that traffic flows only where it is intended. Eliminating routing would disrupt communication between necessary systems, which is contrary to the goals of network segmentation. Routing remains essential for enabling controlled and secure communication between different network segments while still enforcing isolation.

In conclusion, the primary purpose of network segmentation is to isolate sensitive systems and limit lateral movement, making option C the correct choice. While reducing broadcast traffic and potentially simplifying configuration are secondary benefits, the core security goal is to contain threats and protect critical assets from compromise. By implementing segmentation, organizations can enforce stricter access controls, limit attacker movement, enhance compliance, and strengthen their overall security posture. Options A, B, and D do not accurately describe this primary security function.

Question 153:

Under Domain 5, what is the primary role of federated identity management?

A) To replicate user databases

B) To allow identity sharing across multiple organizations or systems

C) To replace passwords with hardware tokens

D) To enforce MAC controls

Answer: B) To allow identity sharing across multiple organizations or systems.

Explanation:

In modern computing environments, organizations often need to provide access to resources and services across multiple systems or even different organizations. Managing identities and authentication efficiently in such distributed environments is a critical challenge. One widely used solution is federated identity management, which allows identity sharing across multiple organizations or systems. The correct answer to the question is option B: to allow identity sharing across multiple organizations or systems. Examining each option helps clarify why this is correct.

A) To replicate user databases
Replicating user databases involves copying identity information from one system to another to ensure consistency. While replication can help maintain up-to-date accounts across multiple systems within a single organization, it does not provide secure or seamless identity sharing across distinct organizations. Replication often raises concerns about data synchronization, redundancy, and security. Federated identity, by contrast, allows users to authenticate once and access multiple systems without replicating sensitive credentials across organizational boundaries. Therefore, simple database replication does not meet the requirements of federated identity.

B) To allow identity sharing across multiple organizations or systems
This is the correct answer. Federated identity management enables users to access resources in different organizations or systems without the need to maintain separate credentials for each system. It relies on trust relationships, standardized protocols (such as SAML, OAuth, and OpenID Connect), and identity providers to authenticate users and communicate authorization information. For example, a company may allow employees to use their corporate credentials to access a partner organization’s applications or cloud services. Federated identity reduces password fatigue, improves security by centralizing authentication, and provides a seamless user experience. It also enables organizations to enforce consistent policies, track access, and manage accounts more efficiently across multiple domains. By allowing identity sharing, federated identity supports collaboration while minimizing the risks associated with credential duplication and local account management.

C) To replace passwords with hardware tokens
Replacing passwords with hardware tokens is a form of multifactor authentication (MFA) that strengthens security by requiring something the user possesses in addition to something they know (the password). While hardware tokens enhance authentication, they are not directly related to federated identity or sharing identities across systems. MFA improves access security but does not provide a mechanism for cross-organizational authentication or identity federation. Therefore, this option does not address the purpose of allowing identity sharing.

D) To enforce MAC controls
Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is a security model where access to resources is strictly regulated based on predefined policies, often using labels or classifications. MAC ensures that users cannot override access restrictions, which is useful in highly sensitive environments. While MAC enhances internal security, it is not designed to enable identity sharing across multiple systems or organizations. Federated identity deals with authentication and trust relationships, not policy enforcement based on labels. Therefore, MAC controls are unrelated to the primary function of identity federation.

In conclusion, federated identity management provides a secure and efficient way to allow identity sharing across multiple organizations or systems, making option B the correct choice. Options A, C, and D—database replication, hardware tokens, and MAC controls—serve important security functions but do not enable cross-organizational identity sharing. Federated identity streamlines access, reduces credential management complexity, and enhances collaboration while maintaining security and trust between participating organizations.

Question 154:

Under Domain 6, what is the difference between a red team and a blue team?

A) Red team monitors; blue team attacks
B) Red team attacks; blue team defends
C) Both teams test firewalls
D) Blue team designs software; red team audits policies

Answer: B) Red team attacks; blue team defends.

Explanation:

In cybersecurity, organizations often use simulated exercises to assess their security posture, identify vulnerabilities, and test their defensive capabilities. One widely recognized approach involves the use of red teams and blue teams. The correct answer to the question is option B: red team attacks; blue team defends. Understanding why this is correct requires examining the roles of each team and contrasting them with the other options.

A) Red team monitors; blue team attacks
This option is incorrect because it reverses the actual roles of red and blue teams. In cybersecurity exercises, the red team is the offensive team tasked with simulating attacks, while the blue team is the defensive team responsible for monitoring, detecting, and responding to these attacks. The red team does not primarily monitor; its goal is to mimic potential adversaries, identify weaknesses, and exploit vulnerabilities. Assigning monitoring duties to the red team would misrepresent its purpose and reduce the effectiveness of the security assessment.

B) Red team attacks; blue team defends
This is the correct answer. Red teams are security professionals who take on the role of attackers, using techniques such as penetration testing, social engineering, malware deployment, and vulnerability exploitation to challenge an organization’s defenses. Their objective is to simulate realistic threats and expose gaps in security controls. Blue teams, on the other hand, are responsible for defending the organization’s systems. They monitor network traffic, analyze alerts, respond to incidents, and implement mitigation strategies to protect against attacks. This dynamic creates a controlled environment where organizations can evaluate their security readiness, incident response processes, and the effectiveness of security controls. Red and blue team exercises are highly valuable for improving cybersecurity resilience because they replicate the adversarial conditions of real-world attacks while providing actionable insights for strengthening defenses.

C) Both teams test firewalls
This option is incorrect because red and blue team exercises are broader than testing specific security devices, such as firewalls. While firewalls may be part of the environment being tested, the purpose of red and blue teams is to evaluate overall security posture, including network security, applications, processes, and human factors. Focusing only on firewalls is too narrow and does not reflect the comprehensive attack-and-defense scenario inherent in these exercises.

D) Blue team designs software; red team audits policies
This option is also incorrect because it misrepresents the core responsibilities of the teams. Blue teams are not responsible for software design; their primary role is to defend existing systems. Similarly, red teams do not focus on auditing policies—they simulate attacks to uncover vulnerabilities. While red teams may indirectly highlight weaknesses in policies, their primary function is offensive testing, not policy auditing. Assigning these unrelated tasks to the teams would undermine the purpose of red and blue team exercises.

In conclusion, red and blue team exercises are designed to simulate realistic cyber threats in a controlled environment, with the red team acting as the attacker and the blue team as the defender. This setup provides organizations with critical insights into their security weaknesses, response capabilities, and areas for improvement. Options A, C, and D either reverse the roles of the teams or misrepresent their functions. By correctly understanding that red teams attack and blue teams defend, organizations can conduct effective exercises that enhance cybersecurity posture, improve incident response, and prepare for real-world threats. Option B accurately captures this fundamental distinction.

Question 155:

Under Domain 7, what is the purpose of a hot site in disaster recovery?

A) To provide minimal restoration capability
B) To provide immediate operational capability with fully redundant systems
C) To store off-site backups only
D) To simulate disaster exercises

Answer: B) To provide immediate operational capability with fully redundant systems.

Explanation:

In the realm of business continuity and disaster recovery, organizations must plan for events that could disrupt operations, such as natural disasters, cyberattacks, hardware failures, or human errors. One of the most critical strategies for ensuring business continuity is implementing a hot site, which is a fully equipped, redundant facility that allows an organization to resume operations immediately in the event of a disaster. The correct answer in this context is option B: to provide immediate operational capability with fully redundant systems. Understanding why this is correct requires analyzing each of the four options in detail.

A) To provide minimal restoration capability
This option is incorrect because it describes a cold site rather than a hot site. Cold sites are disaster recovery facilities that provide the basic infrastructure, such as power and connectivity, but lack the necessary systems, applications, or data to resume operations immediately. Organizations using a cold site must transport hardware, restore backups, and configure systems before operations can continue. While cold sites are cost-effective, they do not offer the immediate operational capability that hot sites provide. Therefore, minimal restoration capability does not align with the purpose of a hot site.

B) To provide immediate operational capability with fully redundant systems
This is the correct answer. A hot site is a fully functional backup environment that mirrors the primary production environment in real-time or near-real-time. It contains all necessary hardware, software, network configurations, and up-to-date data, allowing business operations to continue seamlessly with minimal downtime in the event of a disaster. Hot sites are particularly important for organizations that require high availability and cannot afford significant service interruptions, such as financial institutions, healthcare providers, and critical infrastructure operators. By maintaining fully redundant systems, a hot site ensures operational continuity even if the primary site becomes unavailable. This redundancy includes servers, storage systems, network components, applications, and data replication, all configured to minimize recovery time objectives (RTO) and recovery point objectives (RPO). The investment in a hot site reflects the importance of continuous service delivery and risk mitigation for mission-critical operations.

C) To store off-site backups only
This option is incorrect because storinoff-siteete backups, while important for data protection, does not provide the immediate operational capabilities of a hot site. Offsite backups are typically associated with cold or warm site strategies, where data restoration is required before operations can resume. While offsite backups protect against data loss and ensure business recovery over time, they do not allow immediate continuity of operations, which is the defining characteristic of a hot site. Therefore, a facility that only stores backups does not fulfill the same purpose as a hot site.

D) To simulate disaster exercises
Simulating disaster exercises, such as tabletop or full-scale drills, is an important component of disaster recovery planning and testing. These exercises help organizations evaluate the effectiveness of their business continuity plans, train personnel, and identify gaps or weaknesses in procedures. However, conducting simulations does not itself provide operational capability during an actual disaster. While simulations improve preparedness, they are a planning and training activity, not a functional backup environment. Therefore, they do not meet the criteria of a hot site, which is designed for immediate operational continuity.

In conclusion, the primary purpose of a hot site is to provide immediate operational capability with fully redundant systems, making option B the correct choice. Hot sites are critical for organizations that require minimal downtime and uninterrupted access to applications, data, and services. Options A, C, and D describe strategies or activities that either provide delayed restoration, focus solely on data protection, or emphasize planning and testing rather than real-time operational readiness. By maintaining a hot site, organizations ensure that business-critical functions can continue without interruption, minimizing financial, operational, and reputational impacts during disasters. The ability to quickly transition to a hot site reflects a proactive and comprehensive approach to business continuity and disaster recovery planning.

Question 156:

Under Domain 8, what is the role of threat modeling in software development?

A) To determine hardware requirements
B) To identify and prioritize potential threats early in the SDLC
C) To finalize system documentation
D) To test encryption keys

Answer: B) To identify and prioritize potential threats early in the SDLC.

Explanation:

In software development, integrating security from the very beginning of the lifecycle is essential to reduce vulnerabilities, minimize risks, and ensure compliance with organizational and regulatory standards. This approach is commonly implemented through threat modeling, a proactive technique that allows teams to identify, assess, and prioritize potential threats to a system early in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC). The correct answer is option B: to identify and prioritize potential threats early in the SDLC. Examining each option clarifies why this is the most accurate choice.

A) To determine hardware requirements
Determining hardware requirements is an important part of the system design and planning phase. It involves analyzing performance, storage, and processing needs to ensure that the system functions efficiently and reliably. However, hardware requirement analysis is not focused on identifying security threats or vulnerabilities. While appropriate hardware can indirectly support security measures (for example, by providing sufficient resources for encryption or monitoring), it does not replace the purpose of threat modeling, which is to proactively identify and assess potential risks.

B) To identify and prioritize potential threats early in the SDLC
This is the correct answer. Threat modeling is specifically designed to analyze a system’s architecture, data flows, and potential attack vectors to identify security risks before implementation. By conducting threat modeling early in the SDLC, developers and security professionals can anticipate possible attacks, assess their likelihood and impact, and prioritize mitigations based on risk. This proactive approach allows security considerations to be incorporated into system design rather than retrofitted after development, reducing costly fixes and vulnerabilities later in the lifecycle. Threat modeling may involve identifying assets, defining trust boundaries, considering potential attackers and their capabilities, and using structured methodologies such as STRIDE (Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, Elevation of privilege) or DREAD (Damage potential, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, Discoverability) to rank threats. By addressing threats early, organizations improve their overall security posture and reduce the likelihood of breaches and compliance failures.

C) To finalize system documentation
Finalizing system documentation occurs later in the SDLC and involves compiling design documents, user manuals, and operational procedures. While proper documentation is essential for maintainability, audits, and training, it does not inherently identify or assess security threats. Documentation provides a record of the system’s architecture, functions, and configurations, but is reactive rather than proactive in mitigating risk. It complements threat modeling but cannot replace the process of early threat identification and prioritization.

D) To test encryption keys
Testing encryption keys is a highly specific technical task focused on ensuring the effectiveness and correctness of cryptographic implementations. While key testing is crucial for protecting data confidentiality, it addresses only one security mechanism within a broader system. Threat modeling is much broader in scope, evaluating all possible vulnerabilities across the system rather than focusing solely on encryption. It identifies risks associated with architecture, data flows, user interactions, and external interfaces.

In conclusion, the primary purpose of threat modeling is to identify and prioritize potential threats early in the SDLC, making option B the correct choice. By integrating threat analysis into the design phase, organizations can implement security measures proactively, reduce vulnerabilities, and ensure that security is a core consideration throughout development. Options A, C, and D focus on hardware planning, documentation, or specific technical tests, which are important but do not address the comprehensive risk identification and prioritization achieved through threat modeling. Early threat identification improves security, reduces costs, and strengthens overall system resilience.

Question 157:

Under Domain 1, what control type includes policies, standards, and procedures?

A) Administrative
B) Technical
C) Physical
D) Corrective

Answer: A) Administrative.

Explanation:

In information security, safeguards are typically categorized into three main types: administrative, technical, and physical controls. These controls work together to reduce risk, protect assets, and ensure compliance with regulations and organizational policies. The correct answer in this context is option A: administrative. Administrative controls are policies, procedures, and guidelines that govern how an organization manages and protects its information systems. Understanding why administrative controls are the correct choice requires examining all four options and their roles in a comprehensive security program.

A) Administrative
Administrative controls are the policies, procedures, and processes that guide how an organization manages its information security program. These controls include risk assessments, security policies, training programs, incident response plans, background checks, and separation of duties. Administrative controls define how employees, contractors, and partners should handle sensitive information, what security procedures must be followed, and how compliance is enforced. For example, an organization may implement an acceptable use policy for email and internet access, require mandatory security awareness training, or establish procedures for handling confidential customer data. These controls do not rely on technology or physical barriers; instead, they rely on management directives and employee adherence. Administrative controls are foundational because they set expectations, responsibilities, and procedures that guide all other security measures within an organization. They are also critical for meeting regulatory requirements and industry standards such as ISO 27001, HIPAA, and PCI DSS, which emphasize documented policies, risk management, and employee awareness.

B) Technical
Technical controls, also known as logical controls, are mechanisms implemented through technology to enforce security policies. Examples include firewalls, intrusion detection systems, encryption, authentication mechanisms, and access control lists. Technical controls are designed to prevent, detect, and respond to threats automatically and consistently. While technical controls are essential for protecting data and systems, they are not the same as administrative controls, which are focused on governance, management policies, and procedural enforcement. Technical controls implement the rules and procedures defined by administrative policies, but do not define those policies themselves.

C) Physical
Physical controls are safeguards that protect the physical infrastructure and assets of an organization. Examples include locked doors, security guards, surveillance cameras, badge access systems, and environmental controls such as fire suppression and temperature monitoring. Physical controls prevent unauthorized access to facilities and equipment and help protect against theft, vandalism, and natural disasters. While physical security is a critical component of an overall security strategy, it is distinct from administrative controls because it focuses on tangible barriers rather than policies and procedures governing behavior.

D) Corrective
Corrective controls are a type of security control that is implemented to restore systems or data to a secure state after an incident or failure. Examples include restoring backups, applying patches to fix vulnerabilities, or reconfiguring misconfigured systems. Corrective controls are reactive in nature and are implemented after a security event has occurred. While corrective controls are important for minimizing damage and recovering from incidents, they do not encompass the proactive governance, policies, and procedures that define administrative controls.

In conclusion, administrative controls are the policies, procedures, and guidelines that establish how an organization manages its information security program. They set expectations for employee behavior, define organizational processes, and ensure compliance with regulatory requirements. While technical controls enforce security through technology, physical controls protect tangible assets, and corrective controls restore systems after an incident, administrative controls provide the management framework that guides all these measures. By implementing strong administrative controls, organizations create a foundation for effective security governance, risk management, and operational compliance, making option A the correct choice.

Question 158:

Under Domain 2, what data protection technique replaces sensitive information with non-sensitive substitutes?

A) Encryption
B) Tokenization
C) Hashing
D) Encoding

Answer: B) Tokenization.

Explanation:

Protecting sensitive data is a critical aspect of information security, particularly in industries like finance, healthcare, and e-commerce, where personal and payment information is routinely processed. Organizations employ various techniques to reduce the risk of data exposure, and one widely used method is tokenization. The correct answer to the question is option B: tokenization. Understanding why tokenization is the correct choice requires examining its characteristics compared to encryption, hashing, and encoding.

A) Encryption
Encryption is a process that converts plaintext data into ciphertext using an algorithm and a key. Only parties with the correct decryption key can revert the ciphertext to its original form. Encryption is effective at protecting data confidentiality and is commonly used for secure communications, storage, and transactions. However, encrypted data retains a strong relationship to the original data, meaning that if the encryption key is compromised, the sensitive data can be restored. Additionally, encryption requires ongoing key management and computational resources. While encryption protects data in transit and at rest, it is not the same as tokenization, which replaces sensitive data with a surrogate value that has no intrinsic relationship to the original data.

B) Tokenization
This is the correct answer. Tokenization is the process of replacing sensitive data, such as credit card numbers, social security numbers, or personal identifiers, with randomly generated surrogate values called tokens. Tokens retain the format and usability of the original data for business processes, but they carry no meaningful information themselves. Unlike encryption, tokenized data cannot be mathematically reversed to reveal the original data. The mapping between tokens and real data is stored securely in a centralized token vault or database. Tokenization reduces the exposure of sensitive data, limits regulatory compliance scope, and minimizes the risk associated with data breaches. For example, a payment processing system may use tokenization to handle credit card transactions, allowing internal systems to process payments without storing actual card numbers. This approach ensures that even if the tokenized data is compromised, the original sensitive data remains protected. Tokenization is particularly valuable for PCI DSS compliance, as it reduces the need to secure full cardholder data throughout the network.

C) Hashing
Hashing is a cryptographic technique that transforms data into a fixed-length value, called a hash, using a hash function such as SHA-256 or MD5. Hashes are one-way, meaning the original data cannot be recovered from the hash. Hashing is often used for password storage, data integrity verification, and digital signatures. While hashing protects data from direct exposure, it differs significantly from tokenization because hashed values cannot be used as substitutes in business processes that require the original data format. For instance, hashed credit card numbers cannot be used for transaction processing. Tokenization, by contrast, produces format-preserving tokens that can be safely used in operations without exposing sensitive data.

D) Encoding
Encoding is a method of transforming data into a different representation for purposes such as storage, transmission, or compatibility. Common encoding techniques include Base64, URL encoding, and ASCII encoding. Encoding does not provide security because encoded data can easily be decoded back to its original form. It is intended for data representation rather than protection. Therefore, encoding is not suitable for securing sensitive information, and it does not achieve the same protective function as tokenization.

In conclusion, tokenization is a data protection technique that replaces sensitive data with meaningless, randomly generated tokens while retaining the format and usability of the original data. Unlike encryption, which requires key management, or hashing, which is irreversible and not suitable for operational use, tokenization allows businesses to process information safely without exposing the underlying sensitive data. Encoding, while useful for data formatting, offers no security at all. Tokenization is therefore the preferred method for reducing exposure of sensitive data in environments like payment processing and healthcare, making option B the correct choice. By implementing tokenization, organizations can minimize the risk of data breaches, simplify compliance, and maintain operational functionality without compromising security.

Question 159:

Under Domain 3, which of the following best describes a security perimeter?

A) The physical building entrance
B) The logical or physical boundary that separates trusted from untrusted systems
C) The network switch boundary
D) The application’s user interface

Answer: B) The logical or physical boundary that separates trusted from untrusted systems.

Explanation:

Security perimeters define control boundaries, protecting assets inside from external threats through firewalls, gateways, and access restrictions.

Question 160:

Under Domain 4, which network defense mechanism analyzes patterns to detect anomalies rather than matching signatures?

A) Signature-based IDS
B) Heuristic or behavior-based IDS
C) Proxy firewall
D) Packet filter

Answer: B) Heuristic or behavior-based IDS.

Explanation:

Intrusion detection systems (IDS) are essential components of modern cybersecurity defenses. Their primary function is to monitor network traffic or system activity for suspicious behavior that may indicate a security breach or malicious activity. There are various types of IDS, each with different approaches to detecting threats. The correct answer in this case is option B: heuristic or behavior-based IDS. Understanding why this is correct requires examining each of the four options in detail.

A) Signature-based IDS
Signature-based intrusion detection systems rely on predefined patterns or signatures of known attacks to detect malicious activity. These signatures can include specific sequences of bytes in network packets, known exploit patterns, or hash values of malicious files. While signature-based IDS is highly effective at detecting known threats, it cannot identify new, unknown, or zero-day attacks for which no signature exists. They are reactive systems that depend on continuously updated signature databases. Although signature-based IDS is valuable for protecting against previously identified threats, they are not designed to detect anomalous behavior or previously unseen attacks. Therefore, they do not fulfill the role of detecting unknown or emerging threats in the way heuristic or behavior-based systems do.

B) Heuristic or behavior-based IDS
This is the correct answer. Heuristic or behavior-based IDS uses algorithms, statistical models, or machine learning techniques to identify anomalies in network traffic, system behavior, or user activity. Instead of relying solely on known signatures, these systems establish a baseline of normal activity and then flag deviations that may indicate potential threats. For example, a sudden increase in outbound traffic from a workstation, unusual login attempts at odd hours, or abnormal system processes could trigger an alert. Behavior-based IDS is particularly effective against zero-day exploits, polymorphic malware, and insider threats because it focuses on unusual patterns rather than relying on previously identified attack signatures. By analyzing deviations from normal behavior, heuristic IDS can detect new attack vectors that signature-based systems would miss, providing a more proactive approach to intrusion detection. Additionally, many modern IDSs incorporate machine learning and statistical models to improve accuracy and reduce false positives over time, enhancing their effectiveness in dynamic network environments.

C) Proxy firewall
A proxy firewall acts as an intermediary between internal clients and external networks. It examines incoming and outgoing traffic at the application layer, making access control decisions based on defined policies. Proxy firewalls provide security by filtering traffic, hiding internal network details, and preventing direct connections between users and external systems. While they play a vital role in network security, proxy firewalls are not designed to detect behavioral anomalies or perform heuristic analysis. They enforce access policies but do not analyze patterns of behavior to identify suspicious or abnormal activity, which is why they are not equivalent to heuristic IDS.

D) Packet filter
A packet filter is a basic type of firewall that inspects network packets at the network layer and makes forwarding decisions based on predefined rules such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, and protocols. Packet filters can block or allow traffic according to policyy but do not inspect the payload for malicious behavior, nor do they analyze deviations from normal patterns. While they are effective for controlling traffic and implementing basic security policies, packet filters lack the intelligence and analytical capability to detect unknown or anomalous threats. This limitation makes them unsuitable as heuristic or behavior-based IDS.

In conclusion, heuristic or behavior-based IDisre distinguished from other security technologies by their ability to detect unusual or abnormal activity rather than relying solely on known attack signatures. Unlike signature-based IDS, proxy firewalls, or packet filters, heuristic IDS can identify zero-day threats, insider attacks, and previously unseen malware by establishing behavioral baselines and analyzing deviations. This proactive capability makes heuristic IDS an essential component of a modern security architecture, particularly in dynamic and complex network environments where new threats emerge continuously. Therefore, option B correctly identifies the type of IDS that relies on behavior analysis to detect potential intrusions.