220-1201 CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 5 Q81-100

Visit here for our full CompTIA 220-1201 exam dumps and practice test questions.

Question 81:

Which type of cable is used to connect two computers directly without a switch or hub?

A) Straight-through Ethernet Cable
B) Crossover Ethernet Cable
C) Coaxial Cable
D) Fiber Optic Cable

Answer: B) Crossover Ethernet Cable

Explanation:

A) Straight-through Ethernet cable is commonly used to connect a computer to a switch, hub, or router. Its wiring matches transmit and receive pins on both ends, relying on the intermediary device to manage signal crossing. While essential for standard Ethernet connections, it cannot connect two computers directly because both devices transmit and receive on the same pins, preventing a successful link. Modern devices may include auto-MDI/MDIX, which automatically adjusts the mismatch, but historically, straight-through cables were unsuitable for direct peer-to-peer connections.

B) A crossover Ethernet cable is specifically designed for connecting two computers or devices of the same type without using a switch or hub. It swaps the transmit and receive wire pairs internally, so that one device’s transmit pins align with the other device’s receive pins, enabling direct communication. This is critical in older networks without auto-MDI/MDIX support. Crossover cables are widely used in testing labs, small peer-to-peer networks, or situations requiring direct data transfer between two PCs. Their design ensures proper signal transmission, allowing network connectivity immediately without additional equipment.

C) Coaxial cable consists of a central conductor, an insulating layer, shielding, and an outer jacket. Historically, it was used in early Ethernet implementations like 10BASE2 and 10BASE5. Coaxial is suitable for bus topologies and broadband transmission, but cannot directly connect two computers in a standard LAN environment without specialized adapters. Its design, connector type, and signaling make it incompatible with typical RJ-45 ports on modern devices.

D) Fiber optic cable transmits data via light pulses through glass or plastic fibers. While fiber supports high-speed, long-distance communication with immunity to electromagnetic interference, it requires transceivers, converters, or switches to connect endpoints. Fiber cannot directly connect two typical computers without extra hardware and is mainly used in backbone or long-distance network links, making it unsuitable for a simple peer-to-peer connection.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The correct choice is the cable specifically engineered for direct device-to-device communication. Crossover Ethernet cables align transmit and receive lines between two computers, eliminating the need for a switch or hub. Straight-through cables rely on an intermediary device; coaxial is outdated for modern Ethernet, and fiber requires additional equipment. Therefore, B) Crossover Ethernet Cable is the appropriate solution for a direct computer-to-computer connection.

Question 82:

A user reports that their laptop battery drains unusually fast. Which is the MOST likely software-related cause?

A) Background applications and high screen brightness
B) Faulty battery cells
C) Loose power adapter
D) Corroded battery contacts

Answer: A) Background applications and high screen brightness

Explanation:

A) Background applications and high screen brightness are common software and user-related reasons for rapid battery depletion. Many programs, particularly those running in the background, such as cloud syncing services, antivirus scans, or browser tabs with dynamic content, continuously use CPU and memory resources. This constant processing increases power consumption, resulting in faster battery drain. High screen brightness further amplifies energy usage since laptop displays consume significant power to maintain higher luminance levels. On Windows and macOS, battery monitoring tools show which processes are consuming the most energy, enabling users to identify and close or adjust them. Additionally, power-saving modes can help reduce background activity and display brightness to extend battery life.

B) Faulty battery cells describe a hardware issue where the battery itself is degraded or damaged. Symptoms may include the battery failing to hold a charge or sudden percentage drops. While a faulty battery can cause rapid drain, it is not a software-related cause. Hardware diagnostics, such as battery health reports or manufacturer utilities, are necessary to detect this condition. Unlike software adjustments, the solution typically involves replacing the battery or seeking warranty support.

C)A loose power adapter involves a hardware problem where the laptop is not consistently receiving power while plugged in. This may cause the battery to discharge while the device is in use, creating the appearance of rapid draining. It is easily checked by inspecting the adapter connection and testing with a known-good charger. While this affects charging behavior, it is distinct from software-driven drain because it is a physical connection issue rather than processes consuming resources.

D) Corroded battery contacts refer to oxidation or debris on the battery terminals that interfere with current flow. This can lead to irregular charging and unexpected battery depletion. Cleaning the contacts may restore proper function, but like the previous two choices, it is a hardware issue rather than a software-related cause. Corrosion typically manifests as inconsistent charge recognition rather than continuous high power consumption from software.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The correct cause for unusually fast battery drain, particularly when considering software-related issues, is background applications combined with high screen brightness. These factors can be diagnosed and mitigated without hardware replacement. Users can monitor resource usage, reduce unnecessary background processes, and adjust brightness settings to conserve energy. If the drain persists after software adjustments, hardware issues such as battery cells, adapter problems, or corroded contacts should be investigated. Therefore, A) Background applications and high screen brightness are the correct answer.

Question 83:

When configuring a SOHO wireless router for basic security, which setting is the most important to change from the defaults?

A) Administrator password
B) Wireless channel
C) MTU size
D) DHCP lease time

Answer: A) Administrator password

Explanation:

A) Changing the administrator password is the most critical step for securing a SOHO router. Default credentials are widely known and published, making routers vulnerable to unauthorized access. If attackers can access the router configuration, they can alter network settings, open ports, install malicious firmware, or compromise connected devices. A strong, unique password prevents unauthorized changes and is fundamental to network security. Multi-factor authentication, if available, further enhances protection. Users should store credentials securely and ensure that remote management is disabled unless necessary.

B) Wireless channel primarily affects network performance rather than security. Adjusting the channel can reduce interference from neighboring Wi-Fi networks, improving speed and reliability. While channel selection is important for throughput and minimizing congestion, it does not prevent unauthorized access or protect against intrusions. Security depends on authentication and encryption protocols rather than channel selection.

C) MTU size is a network parameter controlling the maximum packet size transmitted without fragmentation. While adjusting MTU may optimize certain applications, it has minimal impact on overall security. Misconfigured MTU can cause connectivity problems, but it will not prevent unauthorized users from accessing the network. Security protocols, passwords, and encryption remain the critical defenses.

D) DHCP lease time determines how long an IP address is assigned to a device on the network. Shorter leases require frequent renewal, while longer leases reduce DHCP traffic. Although important for network management and IP allocation efficiency, changing the DHCP lease time does not directly enhance security. Attackers could still connect if the default credentials are left unchanged.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The most vital security measure is changing the administrator password from the defaults. Without this step, other measures like encryption or channel selection are insufficient, because an attacker with access to the router interface can override them. Updating the password, using strong authentication, and applying firmware updates ensure a secure foundation for network protection. Therefore, A) Administrator password is correct.

Question 84:

Which IPv4 address class contains addresses from 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255 and is commonly used for normal host networks?

A) Class C
B) Class A
C) Class B
D) Class D

Answer: A) Class C

Explanation:

A) Class C addresses range from 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255, with a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. This allows up to 254 hosts per network, making it ideal for small to medium-sized networks. Class C addresses are widely used in enterprise LANs and home networks. Although classful addressing has largely been replaced by CIDR for flexibility, understanding Class C ranges helps in legacy systems and subnet planning. Class C networks are easy to manage due to their smaller size and predictable addressing scheme.

B) Class A addresses span 1.0.0.0 to 126.255.255.255, with a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. They support extremely large networks with millions of hosts per network. While Class A addresses are suitable for ISPs or very large organizations, they are overkill for typical host networks and are rarely used for standard LAN setups. Assigning Class A networks to normal small networks is inefficient.

C) Class B addresses range from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255, with a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0, supporting thousands of hosts per network. Class B is often used for medium to large networks, such as universities or corporations with large subnets. For everyday small networks, Class B offers more hosts than necessary and is less common in typical LAN environments.

D) Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are reserved for multicast groups rather than standard host addressing. Class D is used for group communication over IP networks and is not assigned to individual devices for normal communication, making it unsuitable for standard host networks.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The correct answer is the address class appropriate for small to medium networks with hundreds of hosts. Class C matches the 192.0.0.0–223.255.255.255 range, providing sufficient addresses while being manageable. Classes A and B are for larger networks, and Class D is for multicast. Therefore, A) Class C is correct.

Question 85:

Which storage type uses non-volatile memory and has no moving parts, providing faster random access than HDDs?

A) Solid State Drive
B) Tape drive
C) Optical disc
D) HDD

Answer: A) Solid State Drive

Explanation:

A) Solid State Drives (SSDs) use NAND flash memory to store data without moving parts. This enables faster random access and lower latency compared to spinning hard drives. SSDs improve boot times, application performance, and file access speed. They are more durable, as shocks or vibrations do not affect the storage medium, unlike HDDs. Modern SSDs come in various form factors like SATA, M.2, and NVMe, and are commonly used as primary storage in laptops and servers.

B) Tape drives provide sequential, non-volatile storage primarily for backups. While they store large amounts of data at low cost, access speed is slow due to mechanical tape movement. Random access is impractical, making them unsuitable for high-performance primary storage.

C) Optical discs, such as CDs, DVDs, and Blu-ray, are non-volatile but require mechanical spinning and laser reading. Access speeds are slower than SSDs and HDDs, and they are mostly used for archival or distribution purposes rather than active storage.

D) Hard Disk Drives (HDDs) use spinning platters and moving read/write heads. While they offer high capacity at low cost, their random access is much slower due to mechanical delays. HDDs are still used for bulk storage or backups, but do not match SSD performance for active workloads.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The storage type combining non-volatility, no moving parts, and fast random access is an SSD. Tape and optical media are slower, and HDDs rely on mechanical movement. Therefore, A) Solid State Drive is correct.

Question 86:

Which TCP/IP protocol is primarily used to translate domain names into IP addresses?

A) HTTP
B) DNS
C) FTP
D) SMTP

Answer: B) DNS

Explanation:

A) HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring web content between clients and servers. While it enables users to browse websites, it does not perform name resolution. HTTP relies on underlying protocols like DNS to convert domain names into IP addresses before establishing a connection. Therefore, it cannot be the primary mechanism for translating human-readable names into IP addresses, though it interacts with resolved addresses once DNS has provided the mapping.

B) DNS (Domain Name System) is specifically designed to translate domain names such as www.example.com into IP addresses. This mapping allows computers to locate and communicate with each other over networks using numerical addresses, while users can access services using readable names. DNS operates through a hierarchical and distributed database structure, including root servers, TLD servers, and authoritative servers. When a client requests a name resolution, DNS queries propagate through these layers until the correct IP address is returned. DNS also supports features like caching, which reduces lookup time, and load balancing through multiple IP entries. Without DNS, users would need to remember numeric IP addresses, making the internet impractical for general use.

C) FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files between a client and server over a TCP/IP network. FTP allows authentication, directory navigation, and file management, but it does not provide any mechanism for translating domain names into IP addresses. Like HTTP, FTP relies on DNS to resolve hostnames into numerical addresses before initiating a connection.

D) SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending email between mail servers and clients. SMTP handles message routing and delivery, but does not perform name resolution. Mail servers themselves often depend on DNS to locate recipient servers based on domain names in email addresses, but SMTP itself does not translate names into IP addresses.

Reasoning about the correct answer: DNS is explicitly designed to translate domain names into IP addresses. HTTP, FTP, and SMTP depend on DNS for hostname resolution but serve entirely different functions, such as web browsing, file transfer, or email transmission. DNS provides hierarchical and distributed management of names and addresses, enabling efficient and reliable mapping. Therefore, B) DNS is correct.

Question 87:

Which wireless standard operates exclusively in the 5 GHz frequency range and provides faster speeds but shorter range than 2.4 GHz networks?

A) 802.11b
B) 802.11g
C) 802.11a
D) 802.11n

Answer: C) 802.11a

Explanation:

A) 802.11b operates only in the 2.4 GHz frequency band, offering slower speeds, typically up to 11 Mbps. It has a longer range due to lower frequency penetration through walls and obstacles. While widely used in early Wi-Fi deployments, it does not provide the higher speeds or 5 GHz frequency coverage described in the question, making it unsuitable for scenarios requiring high-bandwidth applications or reduced interference in dense environments.

B) 802.11g operates in the 2.4 GHz band but supports higher speeds up to 54 Mbps. Like 802.11b, its range benefits from lower frequency penetration. While faster than 802.11b, it is still constrained to 2.4 GHz, meaning it is prone to interference from devices like microwaves and cordless phones. It does not match the characteristics of a 5 GHz-only standard with higher throughput but shorter range.

C) 802.11a operates exclusively in the 5 GHz band. It supports speeds up to 54 Mbps and experiences less interference compared to the 2.4 GHz band, making it suitable for high-density environments. The higher frequency results in a shorter range and weaker penetration through walls. Its exclusive use of 5 GHz differentiates it from older standards like 802.11b/g, which rely on 2.4 GHz. It is ideal for high-speed local connections, video streaming, or environments where interference minimization is critical. Many modern devices can use 802.11a alongside dual-band support, but historically, 802.11a was known for its speed and frequency specialization.

D) 802.11n can operate on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands (dual-band) and supports speeds significantly higher than older standards due to MIMO technology. While it provides high throughput and improved range compared to 802.11a, it is not exclusive to the 5 GHz band. Its flexibility distinguishes it from 802.11a, which is solely 5 GHz.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The standard that operates solely in the 5 GHz range with faster speeds and shorter range is 802.11a. While 802.11n also uses 5 GHz, it is dual-band, and 802.11b/g operate only on 2.4 GHz. Therefore, C) 802.11a is correct.

Question 88:

A technician needs to prevent unauthorized USB devices from being used on company laptops. Which is the BEST method?

A) Disable USB ports in BIOS or UEFI
B) Format all hard drives
C) Change the Wi-Fi password
D) Enable screen saver

Answer: A) Disable USB ports in BIOS or UEFI

Explanation:

A) Disabling USB ports in BIOS or UEFI is the most effective way to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to laptops. This method blocks all USB storage, peripherals, and sometimes even charging ports, depending on firmware implementation. It ensures that devices cannot bypass software restrictions, as the ports are deactivated at a low level. For additional security, BIOS passwords can prevent unauthorized users from re-enabling USB ports. This approach is widely used in corporate environments where data loss prevention is critical.

B) Formatting hard drives erases all data but does not prevent the insertion of new USB devices. Unauthorized USB devices could still connect and compromise the system after formatting. This action is destructive and does not provide ongoing prevention of device access, making it unsuitable for the requirement described.

C) Changing the Wi-Fi password affects network access, not USB device usage. While important for network security, this does nothing to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting via USB. It addresses wireless security, not local port control.

D) Enabling a screen saver adds convenience and some protection against idle access but does not affect USB connectivity. USB ports remain active even when a screen saver is running, so unauthorized devices could still be plugged in and accessed.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The method that directly prevents unauthorized USB use is disabling the ports in BIOS or UEFI. Other choices do not affect port functionality or prevent device connection. Therefore, A) Disable USB ports in BIOS or UEFI is correct.

Question 89:

Which printer technology uses a fuser to bond toner to paper using heat and pressure?

A) Inkjet
B) Laser
C) Thermal
D) Dot Matrix

Answer: B) Laser

Explanation:

A) Inkjet printers spray liquid ink directly onto paper using no fuser mechanism. They rely on precise nozzle control for image formation and do not use heat or pressure to bond material. Inkjet is slower for large volumes and can smudge if not properly dried. Therefore, it does not fit the description involving a fuser.

B) Laser printers use toner powder, which is initially attracted to a drum via electrostatic charge. The paper then passes through a fuser assembly, which uses heat and pressure to permanently bond the toner to the paper fibers. This method produces sharp, smudge-resistant prints at high speed and is widely used in offices. The fuser is a critical component that differentiates laser printers from other technologies, ensuring durability and clarity of the printed material.

C) Thermal printers rely on heat-sensitive paper that changes color when heated. They do not use toner or a fuser. Thermal printing is common in receipts and labels, but it is unsuitable for standard document printing and does not match the description provided in the question.

D) Dot matrix printers impact an ink ribbon onto paper using pins. They are mechanical, noisy, and produce low-resolution output. Dot matrix printing does not involve a fuser, toner, or heat bonding, and is therefore unrelated to the technology described.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The technology that uses a fuser to bond toner with heat and pressure is a laser printer. Inkjet, thermal, and dot matrix printers operate differently, relying on liquid ink, heat-sensitive paper, or mechanical impact. Therefore, B) Laser is correct.

Question 90:

A technician wants to create a network segment that isolates traffic for security purposes. Which device should be used?

A) Switch
B) Router
C) VLAN
D) Hub

Answer: C) VLAN

Explanation:

A) A switch connects devices within the same network segment and forwards frames based on MAC addresses. While it can improve performance by reducing collisions and separating traffic logically to some extent, a standard switch does not inherently isolate traffic for security unless VLANs are configured. Without VLAN implementation, all devices share the same broadcast domain.

B) A router forwards packets between different networks and provides basic segmentation between subnets. It can isolate traffic between networks, but does not create isolated segments within the same physical LAN. Routers are more suitable for inter-network communication rather than isolating traffic among devices on a single LAN.

C) VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a logical segmentation method that allows network administrators to partition a physical network into multiple isolated broadcast domains. Each VLAN operates independently, preventing devices in one VLAN from directly communicating with devices in another unless explicitly routed. VLANs enhance security by controlling access and limiting broadcast traffic. They can be implemented on managed switches and are widely used in enterprise networks for separating departments, guest networks, or sensitive systems.

D) A hub is a simple networking device that broadcasts all incoming frames to every connected port. It does not provide any segmentation or isolation. Using a hub increases collision domains and exposes all connected devices to the same traffic, making it the opposite of a secure segmenting solution.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The method designed to logically isolate traffic within a network segment is a VLAN. Switches and routers play roles in connectivity and routing, but only VLANs allow segmentation for security purposes within the same physical infrastructure. Hubs provide no isolation. Therefore, C) VLAN is correct.

Question 91:

Which mobile device feature allows the user to unlock the device using a fingerprint scan?

A) Biometric authentication
B) PIN code
C) Password
D) Pattern lock

Answer: A) Biometric authentication

Explanation:

A) Biometric authentication uses unique physical or behavioral characteristics of a user to grant access to a device. Fingerprint scanning, facial recognition, iris scanning, and voice recognition are all examples of biometric methods. Fingerprint authentication works by capturing an image of the fingerprint, extracting patterns of ridges and valleys, and comparing it to the stored template. This method is convenient because users do not have to remember a password or pattern, and it is difficult to replicate. It also enhances security by ensuring only registered users can unlock the device. Modern mobile operating systems integrate biometric authentication tightly with applications, payments, and device encryption to provide both convenience and enhanced protection.

B) PIN code is a numeric sequence entered manually to unlock a device. While it provides security, it requires the user to remember the code and physically enter it every time. PIN codes are susceptible to shoulder surfing or guessing, especially if simple sequences are used. They do not involve biometric verification, so they cannot leverage unique physical features like fingerprints for identification.

C) Password authentication involves typing an alphanumeric string to gain access to a device. While passwords can be complex and secure, they are static and rely on user memory. They are vulnerable to phishing, shoulder surfing, and reuse attacks. Passwords do not utilize biometric characteristics, meaning they cannot verify identity based on a user’s fingerprint or other unique features.

D) Pattern lock requires the user to trace a specific pattern on a touchscreen grid. It is more convenient than passwords or PINs for some users, but it remains a knowledge-based method. Patterns can be observed, guessed, or reproduced if smudge marks remain on the screen. Pattern locks do not involve biometric analysis, so they cannot identify a user based on fingerprint data.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The feature that allows unlocking a device using a fingerprint is a biometric authentication method. While PINs, passwords, and patterns rely on knowledge-based verification, biometric authentication uses the user’s unique physical attributes, providing both convenience and security. Therefore, A) Biometric authentication is correct.

Question 92:

Which tool would a technician use to test network connectivity by sending ICMP echo requests?

A) ipconfig
B) ping
C) tracert
D) nslookup

Answer: B) ping

Explanation:

A) ipconfig is a command-line utility used to display and manage IP configuration details on a Windows system. It can show IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and allow basic configuration, but it does not send packets to test connectivity to other hosts. It is diagnostic for local network configuration, not for testing reachability over the network.

B) ping is a utility that sends ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) echo request messages to a target host. If the host receives the request and responds, an echo reply is returned, indicating that the device is reachable. Ping is widely used to verify network connectivity, check latency, and troubleshoot basic network issues. It reports round-trip time and packet loss statistics, making it a simple yet essential tool for network diagnostics.

C) tracert (Windows) or traceroute (Linux/macOS) is used to trace the path packets take from the source to a destination host. It lists all intermediate routers and measures latency at each hop. While it relies on ICMP or UDP, its primary function is mapping network paths rather than simple connectivity verification. Ping is preferred for direct reachability testing.

D) nslookup is used to query DNS servers for domain name resolution. It helps verify that a hostname can be correctly translated to an IP address, but it does not directly test whether the host is reachable over the network. It is focused on name resolution rather than connectivity.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The tool designed to test basic network connectivity by sending ICMP echo requests and receiving replies is ping. ipconfig checks local configurations, tracert maps routes, and nslookup queries DNS, but only ping performs the direct connectivity test described. Therefore, B) ping is correct.

Question 93:

Which Windows utility allows a user to view running processes, CPU, memory, and disk usage?

A) Task Manager
B) Event Viewer
C) Device Manager
D) Disk Management

Answer: A) Task Manager

Explanation:

A) Task Manager is a built-in Windows utility that provides detailed information about running processes, CPU usage, memory consumption, disk activity, and network utilization. Users can monitor system performance, terminate unresponsive applications, and view background processes. The Performance tab shows resource utilization over time, and the Details tab provides granular control over process priority. Task Manager is a primary tool for troubleshooting performance issues and understanding how applications consume system resources.

B) Event Viewer logs system, application, and security events on a Windows system. While it provides historical information about errors, warnings, and informational events, it does not display real-time CPU, memory, or disk usage. Event Viewer is more suited for diagnosing application failures, security audits, and system errors rather than monitoring current performance.

C) Device Manager allows users to view and manage hardware devices and drivers. It can identify malfunctioning hardware and update or disable drivers, but it does not display CPU, memory, or disk usage statistics. Device Manager focuses on hardware configuration and troubleshooting, not system resource monitoring.

D) Disk Management is a Windows utility used for managing storage devices, partitions, and volumes. It allows users to create, format, or resize partitions, assign drive letters, and manage disks. While useful for storage tasks, it does not provide information about CPU or memory usage or monitor active processes.

Reasoning about the correct answer: Task Manager provides comprehensive real-time data about processes, CPU, memory, and disk usage. Event Viewer, Device Manager, and Disk Management serve different purposes—logging events, managing hardware, and handling storage—but do not display resource usage. Therefore, A) Task Manager is correct.

Question 94:

Which of the following best describes a dual-band wireless router?

A) A router that operates on 2.4 GHz only
B) A router that operates on 5 GHz only
C) A router that can operate on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz
D) A router that switches between Ethernet and Wi-Fi

Answer: C) A router that can operate on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz

Explanation:

A) A router operating on 2.4 GHz only cannot provide the benefits of higher-speed 5 GHz connections. While 2.4 GHz signals have longer range and better wall penetration, they are more susceptible to interference from other devices and offer lower bandwidth. Single-band routers limit flexibility and performance in environments requiring both coverage and speed.

B) A router operating exclusively on 5 GHz delivers higher throughput and reduced interference but has a shorter range and weaker penetration through walls. This limits coverage and may not be suitable for larger homes or offices. Single-band 5 GHz routers do not provide dual-band capability, which is necessary for flexibility.

C) A dual-band router can operate on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz simultaneously or allow users to choose the band for each device. This provides the best combination of coverage and speed. 2.4 GHz is used for longer-range or older devices, while 5 GHz supports faster connections for modern devices. Dual-band routers improve performance, reduce interference, and allow better traffic management in dense network environments.

D) A router that switches between Ethernet and Wi-Fi describes a router’s connectivity options rather than dual-band functionality. While routers support both wired and wireless connections, this does not define dual-band operation, which is specifically about frequency bands used for wireless signals.

Reasoning about the correct answer: A dual-band router operates on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz, providing flexibility, coverage, and performance. Single-band routers operate on only one frequency, and switching between wired and wireless does not define dual-band functionality. Therefore, C) A router that can operate on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz is correct.

Question 95:

Which cloud service model provides software applications over the internet without requiring installation or maintenance on local devices?

A) IaaS
B) PaaS
C) SaaS
D) DaaS

Answer: C) SaaS

Explanation:

A) IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides virtualized computing resources such as virtual machines, storage, and networking over the internet. Users are responsible for managing operating systems, middleware, and applications, making IaaS a more flexible but infrastructure-focused solution rather than application delivery. It does not eliminate the need for installation or maintenance of software applications on virtual machines.

B) PaaS (Platform as a Service) provides a platform for developers to build, test, and deploy applications without managing underlying infrastructure. While it simplifies development and deployment, users still need to develop or install the applications themselves. PaaS does not provide pre-built software applications ready for direct use by end-users.

C) SaaS (Software as a Service) delivers fully functional software applications over the internet. Users access the applications via web browsers or clients, without installing software locally or managing updates and maintenance. Examples include email services, productivity suites, and collaboration platforms. SaaS reduces the administrative burden on users and organizations while providing access from multiple devices and locations.

D) DaaS (Desktop as a Service) provides virtual desktops over the internet. Users can access a complete desktop environment hosted in the cloud, but it primarily delivers the operating system environment rather than specific software applications. While convenient, it is distinct from SaaS, which focuses on ready-to-use software.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The cloud service model that provides software applications over the internet without requiring local installation or maintenance is SaaS. IaaS and PaaS provide infrastructure and development platforms, respectively, while DaaS delivers virtual desktops. Therefore, C) SaaS is correct.

Question 96:

Which type of network cable uses twisted pairs of copper wire and is commonly terminated with RJ-45 connectors?

A) Coaxial
B) Fiber optic
C) Ethernet
D) HDMI

Answer: C) Ethernet

Explanation:

A) Coaxial cable uses a single central conductor surrounded by insulation, shielding, and an outer jacket. It was widely used in early Ethernet networks like 10BASE2 and 10BASE5, and for cable TV distribution. Coaxial provides good resistance to electromagnetic interference and can carry signals over moderate distances, but it does not use twisted pairs and RJ-45 connectors. Modern Ethernet networks have largely replaced coaxial with twisted-pair cabling for LAN implementations.

B) Fiber optic cable transmits data using light pulses through glass or plastic fibers. Fiber provides high-speed, long-distance communication and is immune to electromagnetic interference. However, it does not use copper wires or RJ-45 connectors, and it requires special transceivers to interface with standard network devices. While fiber is critical in backbone or enterprise networks, it is not the common twisted-pair Ethernet cable described in the question.

C) Ethernet cable, also called twisted-pair cable, uses pairs of copper wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference. It is commonly terminated with RJ-45 connectors and follows wiring standards such as T568A or T568B. Ethernet cables come in different categories (Cat5e, Cat6, Cat6a, Cat7) to support various speeds and distances. They are widely used in LANs for connecting computers, switches, routers, and other network devices. Twisted-pair Ethernet cable is the standard medium for most office and home networks, making it the correct choice.

D) HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) cables are designed for transmitting video and audio signals between devices like monitors, TVs, and computers. HDMI cables are not used for networking or data transmission over Ethernet, and they do not have RJ-45 connectors. They are unrelated to standard twisted-pair Ethernet networks.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The type of cable that uses twisted copper pairs and is terminated with RJ-45 connectors is Ethernet cable. Coaxial and fiber serve different purposes, and HDMI is unrelated to networking. Therefore, C) Ethernet is correct.

Question 97:

Which protocol is used to securely transfer files between a client and server over an encrypted connection?

A) FTP
B) SFTP
C) HTTP
D) Telnet

Answer: B) SFTP

Explanation:

A) FTP (File Transfer Protocol) transfers files between a client and server, but does so without encryption. Credentials and data are sent in plain text, making them vulnerable to interception and eavesdropping. While FTP is still used in some legacy systems, it does not meet modern security requirements for protecting sensitive data.

B) SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol or Secure File Transfer Protocol) securely transfers files over an encrypted connection using the SSH protocol. It protects authentication credentials and file contents from interception, providing both confidentiality and integrity. SFTP is widely used in enterprise environments to securely move files between servers and clients. It supports key-based authentication, command-line utilities, and automated scripts, making it both secure and flexible for file transfer operations.

C) HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is primarily used for delivering web content and does not provide encryption by itself. HTTPS adds encryption, but standard HTTP is unencrypted and not designed for secure file transfer. HTTP lacks native file transfer commands like SFTP or FTP.

D) Telnet is used for remote command-line access to servers but transmits data, including passwords, in plain text. It does not encrypt communications and is not intended for file transfer. Telnet is largely replaced by SSH for secure remote administration.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The protocol designed to transfer files securely over an encrypted channel is SFTP. FTP and Telnet send data in plaintext, while HTTP is for web content rather than secure file transfer. Therefore, B) SFTP is correct.

Question 98:

Which type of IP address is automatically assigned by a DHCP server?

A) Static IP
B) Public IP
C) Dynamic IP
D) Reserved IP

Answer: C) Dynamic IP

Explanation:

A) Static IP addresses are manually configured and remain constant unless changed by a network administrator. They are used for servers, printers, or devices that require a consistent address. Static IPs are not automatically assigned by a DHCP server because the address is predetermined and fixed.

B) Public IP addresses are routable on the Internet and can be static or dynamic depending on the ISP. While DHCP can assign public IPs in some cases, the concept of public versus private is independent of the assignment method. Public IP does not specifically indicate automatic assignment.

C) Dynamic IP addresses are automatically assigned by a DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server. When a device joins a network, the DHCP server leases an available IP address from a pool for a specified duration. This simplifies network management by avoiding manual configuration, reducing address conflicts, and accommodating changing devices. Dynamic IPs are typical for client devices such as laptops, smartphones, and IoT devices that do not require a fixed address.

D) Reserved IP addresses are pre-configured in DHCP for specific devices based on MAC addresses. While they are assigned by DHCP, the key feature is that the same device always receives the same address. Reserved IPs are a subset of DHCP assignments but not the general case of automatic addressing.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The IP address type automatically assigned by a DHCP server is a dynamic IP. Static IPs require manual configuration, reserved IPs are predefined for specific devices, and public IP addresses are not inherently dynamic. Therefore, C) Dynamic IP is correct.

Question 99:

Which mobile device setting controls whether applications can access location data?

A) Privacy
B) Display
C) Security
D) Network

Answer: A) Privacy

Explanation:

A) Privacy settings on mobile devices allow users to control which applications can access sensitive data such as location, contacts, camera, microphone, and usage information. By managing location access in privacy settings, users can prevent apps from tracking their position or sharing their location with third parties. Modern operating systems provide options for granting access all the time, only while using the app, or denying access entirely. This enhances user control over personal data and protects against misuse or unauthorized tracking.

B) Display settings adjust brightness, screen timeout, wallpaper, and other visual parameters. Display controls do not manage permissions or access to location data, making them irrelevant for controlling app location usage.

C) Security settings focus on device protection, including PINs, passwords, biometric authentication, encryption, and malware protection. While security overlaps with privacy, it does not specifically control application-level access to location services or other sensitive data.

D) Network settings manage Wi-Fi, mobile data, VPN, and tethering configurations. Network controls determine connectivity but do not provide fine-grained management of application access to location information or other personal data.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The setting that allows users to control which applications access location data is found under privacy. Display, security, and network settings serve different purposes. Therefore, A) Privacy is correct.

Question 100:

Which printer type sprays liquid ink directly onto paper using no heat fuser?

A) Laser
B) Inkjet
C) Thermal
D) Dot Matrix

Answer: B) Inkjet

Explanation:

A) Laser printers use toner powder and a heat fuser to bond toner to paper. They are high-speed and produce durable prints, but rely on heat and pressure to fix the image. Laser technology is entirely different from the mechanism described in the question, which specifies spraying liquid ink without a fuser.

B) Inkjet printers spray liquid ink directly onto paper using fine nozzles. The ink penetrates the paper fibers or sits on the surface, depending on the type of paper and ink. Inkjet printers do not use a heat fuser, and the method allows high-resolution prints with precise color reproduction. They are common for home and small office use, particularly for photo printing and documents requiring detailed graphics. Inkjet printing is slower for large volumes but excels in quality and simplicity.

C) Thermal printers use heat-sensitive paper that reacts to heat to produce images or text. No liquid ink or fuser is involved, making them suitable for receipts, labels, and tickets. Thermal technology does not spray ink onto paper and is therefore unrelated to the process described in the question.

D) Dot matrix printers use a print head with pins that strike an inked ribbon to transfer dots onto paper. They are mechanical impact printers and do not use liquid ink spraying. Dot matrix printers are noisy, low-resolution, and primarily used for multipart forms or industrial applications.

Reasoning about the correct answer: The printer type that sprays liquid ink directly onto paper with no heat fuser is an inkjet printer. Laser printers use heat and toner, thermal printers rely on heat-sensitive paper, and dot matrix printers use mechanical impact. Therefore, B) Inkjet is correct.