CompTIA  N10-009  Network+  Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 2 Q21-40

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Question 21

A technician wants to verify the path packets take from a user’s workstation to a remote application server. Which utility should be used?

A) Traceroute
B) IPCONFIG
C) WHOIS
D) DIG

Answer: A) Traceroute

Explanation:

A) This tool reveals every intermediate device a packet travels through on the way to a destination. It accomplishes this by sending packets with gradually increasing time-to-live values, causing each router along the path to return timing information. By analyzing these returned messages, the complete route becomes visible, which helps identify slow devices, misrouted paths, or unreachable segments. It is a core troubleshooting tool when the goal is to understand network paths rather than only determine reachability. It helps isolate whether issues arise locally, at an intermediate provider, or near the destination. When delays occur, this tool provides granular per-hop timing that allows administrators to pinpoint exactly where latency or failures appear. Its value lies in revealing the journey of a packet, not simply whether communication is possible.

B) This command displays local interface configuration information such as system addresses, domain server settings, and routing details. It helps verify whether a local system is configured correctly but does not reveal how packets travel across the network. It cannot display the sequence of routers or the network path, nor can it measure per-hop timing. Because it is entirely local, it cannot identify problems that occur beyond the workstation itself, which makes it unsuitable when the goal is to map packet paths.

C) This lookup tool retrieves registration information for domain names and networks from publicly accessible databases. Its purpose is administrative research, not path analysis or packet flow examination. Although it provides ownership and registration data, it cannot reveal how packets move through the network. It does not interact with routing devices or measure packet travel characteristics, making it unrelated to path tracing.

D) This domain information tool queries name servers to obtain resolution details, resource records, and authority information for specific domain entries. It helps diagnose naming problems or verify record accuracy. However, it offers no information about packet movement across the network, and it cannot display the sequence of routers involved in reaching a destination. Its role is limited to name service troubleshooting rather than network path visibility.

Because the tool in the first option is specifically designed to display the complete route packets take across a network, it is the only suitable method for determining packet travel paths.

Question 22

A network administrator notices that broadcast traffic has increased significantly on a flat network, causing reduced performance. What change would best reduce broadcast traffic?

A) VLAN segmentation
B) Increasing MTU
C) Using straight-through cables
D) Enabling jumbo frames

Answer: A) VLAN segmentation

Explanation:

A) Dividing a network into multiple isolated logical groups reduces the size of each broadcast domain. Broadcast frames remain within the group where they originated and no longer spread across the entire environment. This containment reduces unnecessary load and improves performance for all connected devices. The separation also improves security and traffic organization by ensuring that systems with unrelated roles do not share the same broadcast domain. When large numbers of devices share the same layer-two space, broadcast storms and excessive overhead become more likely. This method decreases the total number of hosts in any one domain and therefore reduces the amount of broadcast propagation. In environments where traffic congestion results from too many devices hearing and responding to broadcast frames, this is the standard corrective measure.

B) Expanding the maximum transmission size affects the payload capacity of individual frames but does not influence broadcast domain size. Even with larger frame capabilities, broadcast traffic would still flood all hosts in the domain. The performance issue in broadcast-heavy networks is not the size of individual frames; it is the number of devices receiving them.

C) Choosing a particular type of cable for connecting dissimilar or similar equipment has no effect on broadcast containment. Broadcast propagation is controlled by network segmentation and switching logic, not cabling type. Cable selection only ensures that devices link correctly and does not alter broadcast domain boundaries.

D) Allowing larger data frames can reduce fragmentation in certain scenarios, but it does nothing to reduce overhead caused by many devices receiving broadcast messages. Broadcast storms would occur regardless of frame size when domains are too large. The problem remains one of domain scope, not payload size.

Segmenting the network into smaller logical groups directly reduces broadcast propagation, which addresses the performance problem described.

Question 23

A remote employee reports that they can connect to the company VPN but cannot access internal file servers or applications. Which issue is most likely?

A) Missing split-tunneling route
B) Incorrect cable pinout
C) Wrong Wi-Fi channel
D) Bad power supply in the laptop

Answer: A) Missing split-tunneling route

Explanation

A) When remote users connect through a secured tunnel, communication with internal resources depends on whether appropriate routing information is provided. If the tunnel lacks routes directing internal network traffic through the secured connection, the user may authenticate successfully yet remain unable to reach internal hosts. Traffic may instead attempt to use the local network, bypassing the secured tunnel completely. This results in the appearance of a working connection without actual access to protected systems. Proper route distribution ensures that internal destinations are reachable and all internal packets follow the correct encrypted path. Without these routes, only the tunnel itself forms but internal communication does not function.

B) Cable wiring issues occur only in physical connections and are not relevant to remote users who connect through a secured tunnel. The remote employee’s connectivity does not depend on cable pinouts between the remote host and the company network because the connection is virtual and takes place over the public network.

C) Wireless channel selection affects local wireless performance but does not influence path routing inside a secured tunnel. Even if a wireless channel caused slow performance, the user would still be able to access internal resources as long as proper routing was configured. The reported symptom involves access to internal systems, not wireless interference.

D) Power hardware problems would cause shutdowns, instability, or inability to maintain operation. They would not selectively prevent internal resource access while still allowing successful tunnel establishment. A malfunctioning power supply does not affect encrypted path routing.

Because routing information determines whether internal networks are reachable through a tunnel, missing internal routes within the tunnel is the most plausible explanation.

Question 24

A company wants to improve wireless security by requiring that users authenticate with unique credentials rather than a shared password. Which solution should be implemented?

A) Enterprise authentication
B) Open authentication
C) WEP security
D) MAC filtering

Answer: A) Enterprise authentication

Explanation:

A) Implementing a centralized credential-based authentication mechanism allows each user to authenticate individually against a directory or identity service. This removes reliance on a single shared secret and enhances accountability, access control, and session management. When each user has unique credentials, access can be revoked individually, and policies can be applied per user or group. This approach uses a secured handshake process that protects authentication information from interception. It also supports integration with monitoring and logging systems so administrators can track which user performed what activity. This method is considered the strongest common approach for securing wireless networks in enterprise environments because it elevates authentication to identity-based access rather than device-based or shared-password access.

B) Allowing unrestricted association without credentials provides no security and invites unauthorized access. Because the question describes a desire for stronger security, this approach moves in the opposite direction by offering no protection.

C) Using this outdated confidentiality mechanism does not provide individual authentication. It relies on shared keys and is considered cryptographically broken. It cannot meet the requirement for unique user identity verification because all devices share the same static key.

D) Controlling network access based on hardware identifiers does not authenticate users individually. Hardware addresses are easily spoofed, changeable, and do not identify people. While it can supplement other measures, it does not meet the requirement for unique identity-based authentication.

The first solution provides user-specific credential verification, which is the requirement described.

 

Question 25

A technician needs to determine which process or application on a workstation is responsible for maintaining several active network connections. Which tool should be used?

A) Netstat
B) TFTP
C) Syslog
D) Telnet

Answer: A) Netstat

Explanation:

A) This diagnostic tool displays active communication sessions, listening services, and associated processes on a system. It helps identify which programs are establishing or receiving connections, making it ideal for analyzing unexpected or suspicious communication. By revealing both the port numbers in use and the destination addresses involved, it provides insight into which services are active and how they are communicating. When process identifiers are included, administrators can trace each session to a running application. This makes it particularly valuable for troubleshooting performance issues, analyzing malware communication, or verifying whether required services are operating correctly.

B) This lightweight file-transfer protocol is used for configuration file distribution or boot-related transfers, not for analyzing active connections. It cannot show which application maintains connections, nor is it a diagnostic tool for identifying communication sources.

C) This message-collection technology aggregates system and device logs for centralized analysis. While extremely valuable for security and monitoring, it does not enumerate active connections on a local workstation. It collects recorded events but does not display current sessions tied to processes.

D) This remote-access protocol enables connection to command interfaces on remote systems but does not reveal local application connection details. It is used to access remote devices, not investigate which local processes are communicating across the network.

The first tool directly reports active sessions and their associated processes, making it the correct choice for determining which application maintains network connections.

Question 26

 A company needs to create an isolated network segment for testing new servers without affecting production systems. The segment must remain logically separated while using the same physical switch hardware. What should be implemented?

A) VLAN
B) Port bonding
C) QoS
D) Load balancing

Answer: A) VLAN

Explanation:

A) This method creates logically separated broadcast domains on a single physical switching infrastructure. Devices assigned to one group cannot communicate with devices in another unless explicit routing rules are configured. This allows a company to isolate development or test resources without buying additional hardware. It reduces risk because any misconfiguration or instability on the test network will not affect production traffic. By assigning ports to a particular logical group, administrators can protect critical systems from unintended interactions. This approach also supports scalability because new isolated segments can be created as needed by reassigning ports rather than installing new equipment. The logical separation ensures that broadcast traffic stays contained, reducing noise and improving security. Therefore, this is ideal for isolating test servers on shared switching equipment.

B) Combining multiple physical interfaces into a single logical channel increases throughput and provides redundancy. This approach is useful when bandwidth enhancement or fault tolerance is required, but it does not create separation between systems. All devices in the same environment remain part of the same broadcast domain. It cannot provide the isolation needed for test environments.

C) Prioritizing certain kinds of traffic ensures that delay-sensitive communications receive better handling, but it does not segment networks. It does not isolate traffic, prevent broadcast propagation, or restrict inter-system communication. Its purpose is performance control, not logical separation.

D) Distributing traffic across multiple servers enhances application availability and responsiveness. It does not partition a network or isolate systems from one another. Its function is to balance workloads, not to restrict intercommunication between groups of devices.

Logical segmentation is required for safe and structured test environments, and the first option directly provides that capability.

Question 27

A help desk technician receives reports that wireless clients frequently disconnect when moving between floors in the building. Which technology helps ensure seamless transitions between access points?

A) Roaming support
B) WPS
C) SSID broadcast disabling
D) Geofencing

Answer: A) Roaming support

Explanation:

A) This capability allows clients to transition between radio cells without dropping ongoing sessions. By enabling coordination among wireless infrastructure devices, client associations can be maintained with minimal disruption as users move throughout a building. It ensures that access points exchange information about connected devices and signal strength so the client can shift to a stronger signal quickly. When implemented well, latency remains extremely low and applications such as voice or video remain uninterrupted. This is essential in multi-floor deployments, where clients often pass through overlapping coverage areas. It improves reliability, user experience, and mobility because sessions remain active and stable during movement.

B) This method automates the process of connecting devices to a network, primarily intended for small residential or simple environments. It does not enhance mobility, assist with transitions between coverage cells, or maintain connectivity during movement. Its function ends once the device is connected.

C) Disabling the ability of devices to view network identifiers provides minor obscurity but does not influence how clients move between coverage cells. It neither improves stability during transitions nor reduces disconnections. In fact, hiding identifiers may make connectivity less reliable because some devices behave unpredictably when connecting.

D) Setting rules that restrict access based on physical location does not assist with maintaining an uninterrupted connection when users walk through a building. Restriction mechanisms could even prevent access entirely when users enter unauthorized zones. Its purpose is security control, not mobility enhancement.

The only method that directly supports stable transitions between access points as clients move is the first one.

Question 28

A network analyst wants to determine which external servers a workstation is communicating with at a given moment, including remote ports and active sessions. Which command provides this information?

A) Netstat
B) Hostname
C) IFCONFIG
D) ARP

Answer: A) Netstat

Explanation:

A) This diagnostic tool displays active communication sessions, listening services, and the endpoints involved. It reveals which addresses a system is connected to, what communication endpoints are active, and which identifiers are associated with each connection. This helps identify suspicious traffic patterns, verify expected application behavior, or diagnose slowness related to network communication. For example, if an application contacts numerous external destinations unexpectedly, this command can reveal those destinations and the underlying processes. It offers visibility into both transmission and reception activity so analysts can understand how the workstation interacts with remote systems.

B) This command returns the system’s local node name but provides no insight into communication sessions. It offers no visibility into remote endpoints, session counts, or traffic details. It is purely a naming utility.

C) This command displays local adapter information, system addressing, and interface statistics on some platforms. Although useful for confirming configuration details, it does not enumerate remote server connections. It is entirely local in scope and cannot reveal active external communication.

D) This mechanism maps network-layer addresses to link-layer addresses for local communication within the same broadcast domain. It contains no information about remote endpoints beyond the local segment and does not track active sessions or remote ports. Its usefulness is in resolving hardware addresses, not inspecting communication with external servers.

The tool in the first choice is specifically designed to enumerate active communication sessions, making it suitable for monitoring workstation connections.

Question 29

 A network engineer detects frequent collisions and late-collision errors on a wired connection. Which issue is the most likely cause?

A) Duplex mismatch
B) Wrong DNS address
C) Excessive VLAN assignments
D) Incorrect SSID

Answer: A) Duplex mismatch

Explanation:

A) When one device operates with simultaneous send-and-receive capability while the other operates with alternating send-and-receive behavior, communication becomes unstable. This dissimilarity leads to collisions, dropped frames, and performance degradation. The side configured for alternating operation sees traffic arriving during its transmit periods, resulting in collision messages and late-collision indicators. This problem commonly arises from manually configured interfaces that do not match the settings of automatically negotiated interfaces. After resolving the mismatch so both sides operate under the same rules, the collision metrics disappear and communication stabilizes.

B) Incorrect name resolution settings would prevent the system from translating domain identifiers to numerical addresses. This would cause failures when attempting to reach services by name but would not cause medium-access collisions. Name resolution has no relationship to physical transmission behavior or collision detection.

C) Assigning many logical groups to trunk links may increase administrative overhead but does not cause collision conditions. Collisions occur at the data-link level in half-duplex environments, not as a result of logical segmentation assignments. Logical grouping does not influence physical signaling in a way that produces collisions.

D) A misconfigured wireless network identifier affects only wireless association, not wired collision behavior. Wired interfaces do not use identifiers of this type and therefore cannot experience physical-layer collision conditions because of them.

The only scenario that produces collision symptoms on a wired connection is dissimilar send-and-receive configurations between interfacing devices.

Question 30

A company requires encryption and integrity protection for all traffic between remote offices over the public internet. Which technology should be used?

A) Site-to-site VPN
B) RADIUS
C) NAT
D) Proxy caching

Answer: A) Site-to-site VPN

Explanation:

A) This method establishes a secure encrypted tunnel between two or more fixed locations. All communication between the sites travels through the encrypted channel, ensuring confidentiality, integrity, and protection from tampering. It is ideal for connecting branch offices to headquarters securely over public infrastructure. The tunnel automatically protects internal protocols, addressing, and sensitive data because everything is encapsulated before being transmitted. It enables remote offices to behave as if they are directly connected through a dedicated private link while using widely available network access. Once established, the connection operates continuously and transparently, requiring no action from end users.

B) This authentication mechanism validates user credentials for network access. It does not provide communication encryption between remote offices. Its function is identity verification rather than establishing secure tunnels.

C) This translation mechanism modifies addresses as packets traverse boundaries. It provides conservation of address space and some obscurity, but it does not offer data confidentiality or integrity protection. It cannot prevent eavesdropping or tampering over untrusted networks.

D) This technique stores frequently accessed content to improve performance and reduce external bandwidth usage. It does not secure communication between sites, nor does it protect data from interception while in transit.

The method in the first option is purpose-built for securing inter-office communication across public networks, meeting both encryption and integrity requirements.

Question 31

A network administrator suspects that one switch in the network is learning MAC addresses incorrectly, causing traffic to be forwarded to the wrong ports. Which tool can help identify where a specific MAC address is learned within the switching infrastructure?

A) Switch CAM table inspection
B) Packet generator
C) Ping sweep
D) DNS lookup

Answer: A) Switch CAM table inspection

Explanation

A) Reviewing the table where physical address-to-port mappings are stored on a switching device allows an administrator to see precisely which interface the switch believes is associated with a device. This information reveals whether entries were learned correctly, whether they were overwritten by faulty behavior, or whether traffic is being forwarded to the wrong segment. By checking each switch’s table, the administrator can trace how a device is seen as it moves through the network path. This process is essential when diagnosing issues such as incorrect forwarding, unexpected flooding, or unauthorized devices spoofing addresses. Understanding these mappings provides insight into the operational logic of the switch and helps confirm whether the forwarding engine is functioning properly. This approach is one of the primary troubleshooting methods used for understanding switching behavior at the data-link layer.

B) Generating synthetic traffic is useful for stress testing or measuring specific throughput characteristics. However, it does not reveal how switching devices learn or store address information. Even if traffic is generated, this alone does not show where the addresses are learned unless tables are manually inspected. The generator itself does not provide visibility into mapping behavior, making it unsuitable for identifying incorrect learning.

C) Performing sequential connectivity tests against multiple devices helps verify availability but does not reveal how switches map addresses. It offers no insight into port-to-address associations. It is a connectivity-testing technique rather than an address-learning verification method.

D) Querying naming records provides domain-to-address resolution information but has no relevance to physical address learning on switches. It does not display forwarding tables, nor does it help locate a device’s learned port.

The inspection of the switch’s internal mapping table is the only method that directly reveals where a given physical address is learned, making it the correct solution.

Question 32

A remote office reports intermittent connectivity loss on a microwave point-to-point link during heavy rain. What is the most likely cause of the outages?

A) Rain fade
B) Faulty grounding
C) Bad DNS server
D) Incorrect VLAN tagging

Answer: A) Rain fade

Explanation:

A) Atmospheric conditions, particularly precipitation, can weaken high-frequency wireless signals. As rainfall increases, the transmitted signal experiences additional attenuation, reducing the strength received at the opposite end. Microwave and similar high-frequency wireless links are especially susceptible because water molecules absorb and scatter certain wavelengths. During heavy storms, the link may degrade enough that signal quality drops below acceptable thresholds, causing intermittent outages. This natural phenomenon affects many long-distance line-of-sight wireless systems and is well known to network engineers. Protection methods such as higher-gain antennas, increased power, or lower-frequency bands can reduce the impact, but the core issue remains environmental attenuation.

B) Improper electrical protection can cause equipment damage or noise, but it does not produce outages only during rainstorms. Grounding faults typically lead to persistent issues rather than weather-dependent connectivity loss. Rain-related intermittent loss points to atmospheric effects, not grounding.

C) Name resolution failures do not cause physical-layer disruption or weather-dependent signal degradation. Even with a failed naming service, numerical addressing would continue to function. The report describes link-level drops rather than resolution issues.

D) Misconfigured tagging would cause traffic segmentation problems consistently, not only during severe weather. This issue would not fluctuate based on atmospheric conditions and therefore cannot explain weather-linked outages.

The described symptom—intermittent connectivity during heavy rain—matches attenuation caused by atmospheric moisture, making rain fade the most appropriate explanation.

Question 33

A cybersecurity team wants to block known malicious domains at the network perimeter so users cannot reach them even if they click a harmful link. Which technology should be used?

A) DNS filtering
B) Port scanning
C) Cable certification
D) Loopback plug

Answer: A) DNS filtering

Explanation:

A) Blocking domain requests by intercepting naming queries prevents users from reaching harmful sites before any connection is established. When a user attempts to visit a prohibited location, the naming request is evaluated against a continuously updated list of dangerous locations. If the entry appears on the block list, the request is denied or redirected to a safe location. This solution provides strong protection because many threats are initiated through deceptive domains. By stopping access at the naming stage, harmful content never reaches the endpoint. This method also reduces administrative workload because decisions happen centrally rather than requiring endpoint configuration for each device. It is widely used in enterprises to enforce security policies.

B) Scanning ports is a reconnaissance activity used to discover open services. While useful for security assessments, it does not block harmful websites or restrict outgoing user access. It identifies service exposure but does not govern naming queries.

C) Certification of cabling ensures that physical media meet required performance standards. Physical certification cannot influence whether users can access harmful locations. It deals with cable integrity rather than domain-blocking logic.

D) Diagnostic plugs test interface behavior but do not impact whether naming requests are permitted. They serve troubleshooting purposes and do not affect outbound online access.

Filtering domain queries prevents users from reaching harmful sites, matching the team’s requirement for domain-level blocking.

Question 34

A technician is troubleshooting a workstation that reports “IP address conflict detected.” The user cannot maintain a stable connection to the network. What is the most probable cause?

A) Duplicate IP assignment
B) Incorrect SSID
C) Dirty fiber connector
D) Incompatible antenna type

Answer: A) Duplicate IP assignment

Explanation:

A) When two systems claim the same numerical address, communication becomes unstable. Each device intermittently detects responses intended for the other, leading to disconnections and error messages. The workstation may experience repeated loss of connectivity because the network cannot reliably route packets to two different systems using the same identifier. This situation often occurs when static addressing conflicts with dynamic assignments or when two static assignments overlap. Most modern operating systems can detect this conflict and warn the user. Resolving the issue requires ensuring that every system has a unique address within the broadcast domain.

B) Using the wrong wireless network identifier would prevent connection entirely or result in connection to the wrong network. It would not trigger conflict warnings because conflict detection relies on address duplication, not network identifiers.

C) A contaminated optical connector causes diminished signal strength on fiber links but does not create duplicate-address situations. The workstation message refers specifically to address overlap rather than physical-layer degradation.

D) Using an inappropriate wireless antenna affects signal quality or coverage, but not numerical addressing. It cannot lead to warnings about duplicate addresses or cause the specific error shown.

The reported message directly indicates that two devices are claiming the same identifier, making the first choice the correct explanation.

Question 35

 A company wants to monitor all inbound and outbound traffic between its internal network and the internet without actively altering the traffic. What solution is most appropriate?

A) Network TAP
B) Proxy server
C) DHCP relay
D) Load balancer

Answer: A) Network TAP

Explanation:

A) A passive interception device installed inline allows traffic to be copied to monitoring tools without altering or delaying the live communication. This is crucial for accurate analysis because it ensures that the monitored traffic reflects actual production behavior. The passive nature of the device means it does not modify packets, enforce policies, or reroute content. Instead, it simply duplicates flows for inspection. This makes it ideal for intrusion detection, forensic collection, and traffic analysis. Because it does not introduce latency or instability, it is commonly used at perimeter points where complete visibility is necessary. It also ensures that even if the monitoring equipment fails, production traffic continues uninterrupted.

B) Acting as an intermediary, this device processes requests on behalf of clients. It modifies, filters, or caches content. While useful for control and caching, it does not passively observe traffic. It alters how communication occurs, making it unsuitable when the requirement is to avoid modifying traffic.

C) This component forwards address-assignment requests to a central service. It has nothing to do with traffic monitoring and cannot provide visibility into active flows. It operates only during address assignment.

D) Distributing traffic among servers increases performance and redundancy for applications but does not provide passive monitoring. It changes the flow patterns of traffic rather than observing them.

Only a passive interception device fulfills the requirement of monitoring all traffic without altering it, making the first option the correct choice.

Question 36

A network administrator needs to ensure that multicast traffic is delivered only to switch ports with devices that have requested it, preventing unnecessary flooding. Which feature should be enabled?

A) IGMP snooping
B) Port security
C) STP
D) DHCP snooping

Answer: A) IGMP snooping

Explanation:

A) This feature listens to group membership messages exchanged between hosts and multicast routers. By analyzing these membership reports, a switching device learns which interfaces are interested in receiving specific multicast streams. This allows multicast frames to be forwarded only to relevant ports rather than flooding them across the entire broadcast domain. This selective forwarding greatly reduces unnecessary traffic, optimizes bandwidth usage, and ensures that devices not participating in multicast groups are not burdened with unwanted data. It is particularly important in environments with streaming services, surveillance systems, or applications that rely heavily on multicast delivery. Without this capability, switches would treat multicast frames similarly to broadcasts, which would lead to inefficiencies and potential congestion. The feature effectively bridges the gap between router-level multicast management and layer-two forwarding by providing granular control of multicast distribution.

B) Controlling access to switch interfaces based on physical address restrictions is a security measure aimed at preventing unauthorized systems from connecting. It does not interpret group membership announcements and cannot assist with efficient multicast distribution. While helpful for reducing the risk of rogue devices, it has no relation to managing multicast traffic patterns.

C) Ensuring loop-free topologies within layer-two environments prevents broadcast storms and redundant paths. Although extremely important for stable network operation, it does not manage multicast listener behavior or determine which hosts should receive multicast frames. It focuses instead on preventing network loops.

D) Protecting the address-assignment process from rogue servers and ensuring integrity of client assignment information is useful for securing dynamic configuration. However, it cannot manage the forwarding of group-based traffic. It restricts behavior during assignment rather than controlling multicast delivery.

The feature in the first option provides the mechanism required to limit multicast distribution to only the intended recipients, making it the appropriate solution.

Question 37

A technician observes that a wireless access point operating on the 2.4 GHz band experiences frequent interference from neighboring devices such as cordless phones and microwave ovens. What is the best solution to reduce interference?

A) Move to the 5 GHz band
B) Increase transmit power
C) Shorten DHCP lease time
D) Enable captive portal

Answer: A) Move to the 5 GHz band

Explanation:

A) Using the higher-frequency band reduces susceptibility to interference from common household and office devices that operate within the lower-frequency spectrum. Many non-network devices emit signals in the lower band, causing disruptions, reduced throughput, and intermittent disconnections. The higher band provides more available channels, greater channel separation, and generally cleaner spectrum conditions. It enables more stable connections, higher data rates, and improved performance in environments where numerous nearby devices generate interference. Although the higher band has shorter range and less penetration through walls, the reduction in interference typically results in far more reliable connectivity. Modern wireless clients commonly support both bands, allowing smooth migration.

B) Increasing signal strength can help with coverage but does not eliminate interference caused by devices emitting energy on the same frequencies. Raising power levels may even worsen overall wireless conditions by causing additional overlapping with other access points. Interference caused by microwave ovens and similar devices does not diminish when the network increases its signal strength.

C) Shortening the interval during which an address is assigned affects only network configuration behavior and has no influence on interference. Adjusting lease duration does not change radio frequency conditions. It is a management change rather than a radio-layer mitigation.

D) Using a web-based login mechanism for guest access controls user authentication but does not resolve signal quality issues. It is unrelated to the physical and radio-layer environment where the interference occurs.

Switching to the higher-frequency band is the most effective solution because it avoids the interference sources that affect the lower band.

Question 38

A data center requires a cabling type that can support long-distance, high-bandwidth communication while providing strong resistance to electromagnetic interference. Which cabling should be used?

A) Single-mode fiber
B) Cat 5e
C) Coaxial cable
D) Twinax

Answer: A) Single-mode fiber

Explanation:

A) This cabling medium uses a narrow core that allows light to propagate in a single pathway. It supports extremely long distances without significant signal degradation and provides very high data throughput. Because it transmits light rather than electrical signals, it is immune to electromagnetic interference, making it ideal for environments with heavy electrical activity such as data centers. This immunity ensures stable operation near large power sources, switching equipment, and machinery. It also provides enhanced security because tapping light signals is more difficult than intercepting electrical signals. Its distance capabilities far exceed those of copper-based media, enabling connections across large campuses or between buildings without loss of integrity.

B) This copper-based twisted-pair cable supports moderate distances and speeds but remains susceptible to electromagnetic interference. While effective for office networks and shorter runs, it cannot match the distance or immunity characteristics of fiber. Its performance is satisfactory for many applications, but it does not meet the long-distance, high-bandwidth requirement described.

C) This shielding-based cabling provides better interference resistance than unshielded twisted pair but is still a metal conductor susceptible to external noise. It is typically used for broadband or television distribution rather than high-speed backbone links. It cannot deliver the distance and bandwidth performance required in modern data centers for backbone or high-capacity links.

D) This short-distance cable is commonly used for high-speed interconnects within racks or close-proximity equipment. Although capable of carrying very high speeds, it is not suited for long distances. Its length limitations make it unsuitable when the requirement specifically includes long-distance communication.

The fiber solution stands out as the medium that meets all three requirements: long distance, high bandwidth, and resistance to interference.

Question 39

A company wants to ensure that devices in a public lobby area cannot access internal resources, even though they connect to the same wireless access point hardware used elsewhere in the building. What is the correct solution?

A) Create a separate guest VLAN
B) Increase DHCP scope
C) Change cables from straight-through to crossover
D) Lower MTU size

Answer: A) Create a separate guest VLAN

Explanation:

A) Placing lobby devices in a distinct logical group allows complete separation from internal systems. Devices assigned to this group will not be able to communicate with protected resources unless specific routing or firewall rules allow it. This method provides a strong security boundary because it keeps broadcast and unicast traffic isolated within the group. It also ensures that guests do not interfere with internal traffic or inadvertently gain access to sensitive information. Administrators can apply customized access control rules, rate limits, or web restrictions to the isolated group without affecting internal users. Using the same hardware but separate broadcast domains allows efficient resource utilization while maintaining a secure environment.

B) Expanding the number of available dynamic addresses changes only how many clients can receive configuration assignments. It does not restrict access to internal resources or create a security boundary. Lobby devices would still remain part of the same internal environment if no segmentation is provided.

C) Replacing one cable type with another influences physical connection behavior but does not alter logical network access. Wireless users do not rely on copper cabling between end devices and access points in ways that would affect routing or segmentation. Cabling type has no relevance to isolating guest users.

D) Changing the maximum unit size affects packet handling but does not control access to internal resources. Reducing payload size may even degrade performance without improving security. It cannot isolate devices or prevent them from accessing protected systems.

Creating a dedicated logical segment is the correct approach to isolating lobby devices while using shared hardware.

Question 40

A network technician needs to test end-to-end network performance, including throughput, packet loss, and jitter, between two hosts. Which tool is most appropriate?

A) iPerf
B) Nmap
C) Tracert
D) ARP table inspection

Answer: A) iPerf

Explanation:

A) This testing utility measures detailed performance metrics between two endpoints by generating controlled traffic flows. It can evaluate available bandwidth, variability in delay, and transmission reliability. By running one instance as a listener and another as a generator, the tool provides quantitative results that reflect real network performance. It is commonly used for validating infrastructure changes, diagnosing performance bottlenecks, and benchmarking new equipment. Because it produces consistent test patterns, it allows administrators to repeat tests under different conditions and compare results. It supports multiple protocols and easily reveals whether throughput limitations arise from network issues, equipment constraints, or configuration errors.

B) This scanning tool identifies open ports and services but does not measure throughput or performance metrics. It is valuable for security assessments and inventory tasks but cannot evaluate end-to-end performance or transmission quality.

C) Displaying the sequence of intermediate devices along a network path is useful for routing analysis but does not measure throughput or variability in packet delay. It reveals path characteristics rather than performance metrics such as bandwidth or jitter.

D) Inspecting the resolution of hardware addresses provides insight into local-segment device mapping but does not measure performance attributes. It helps diagnose address-related problems rather than provide end-to-end performance analysis.

The correct choice is the performance-measurement tool designed specifically to evaluate throughput, delay characteristics, and reliability between endpoints.