ISTQB CTFL-AT Certified Tester Foundation Level Agile Tester Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 4 Q61-80

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Question 61: 

Which Agile ceremony focuses on inspecting the increment and adapting the backlog based on feedback?

A) Sprint Planning
B) Sprint Review
C) Daily Stand-up
D) Sprint Retrospective

Answer: B) Sprint Review

Explanation:

Sprint Planning is an Agile ceremony that occurs at the start of each sprint. Its primary purpose is for the team to select the items from the product backlog that they will work on during the sprint. The focus is on understanding what can be accomplished in the sprint and defining a sprint goal. While this is an essential event for setting direction and expectations, it does not include the inspection of completed work or gathering stakeholder feedback, which is why it is not the correct answer for this question.

Daily Stand-ups, also called daily scrums, are short meetings that occur every day during the sprint. Their purpose is to coordinate work among team members, discuss progress, and identify impediments that might block progress. While daily stand-ups provide visibility into ongoing work and allow the team to make minor adjustments, they do not involve demonstrating completed increments to stakeholders or adapting the backlog based on feedback, making this option unsuitable for the question.

Sprint Retrospectives occur at the end of the sprint and focus on examining team processes, collaboration, and performance. The goal is to identify what went well, what didn’t, and how the team can improve its workflow in the next sprint. Retrospectives are more about process improvement and internal team reflection rather than evaluating the product increment or updating the backlog based on stakeholder feedback.

Sprint Review is the correct ceremony because it is specifically designed to inspect the increment of work completed during the sprint and gather feedback from stakeholders. During the review, the team demonstrates the potentially shippable product increment to the stakeholders, including the Product Owner, customers, or other relevant parties. Feedback is collected and used to adapt the product backlog, ensuring that future work aligns with stakeholder expectations and business priorities. This ceremony embodies the inspect-and-adapt principle of Agile, which encourages iterative improvements and responsiveness to change, making it the most suitable option for this question.

Question 62: 

In Agile, what is the main benefit of automated unit tests?

A) Validate system performance under load
B) Provide fast feedback on code correctness
C) Replace exploratory testing
D) Replace acceptance tests

Answer: B) Provide fast feedback on code correctness

Explanation:

Option A, validating system performance under load, is not the purpose of automated unit tests. Load or performance testing focuses on how the system behaves under high demand or stress, typically using specialized testing frameworks. Unit tests operate at the component or module level and are not intended to simulate system-wide load conditions, so they cannot provide performance validation.

Option C, replacing exploratory testing, is also incorrect. Exploratory testing relies on human creativity, intuition, and domain knowledge to identify defects that may not be covered by pre-written test scripts. Automated unit tests are scripted and predictable; they validate known functionality rather than discovering unexpected issues. Therefore, they cannot replace exploratory testing but can complement it by ensuring core functionality remains intact.

Option D, replacing acceptance tests, is similarly unsuitable. Acceptance tests validate that the system meets user requirements and business objectives, often at a higher level than individual units of code. Unit tests do not verify complete user scenarios or business logic at the system level. Acceptance testing typically involves the Product Owner or QA team, whereas unit tests focus on developer-level code correctness.

Option B is correct because the primary benefit of automated unit tests is that they provide rapid feedback on the correctness of code. By testing individual components immediately after changes, developers can detect defects early, reduce the likelihood of regression, and maintain code quality throughout iterative development. Fast feedback accelerates continuous integration and allows teams to identify and fix issues before they escalate into larger problems. Automated unit tests align perfectly with Agile principles of iterative delivery and continuous improvement by enabling developers to maintain a reliable codebase while adapting quickly to change.

Question 63:

Which statement best describes the role of the Product Owner?

A) Facilitate team processes
B) Prioritize backlog items for value delivery
C) Write automated tests
D) Conduct system deployment

Answer: B) Prioritize backlog items for value delivery

Explanation:

Option A, facilitating team processes, is typically the responsibility of the Scrum Master, not the Product Owner. The Scrum Master ensures that Agile practices are followed, coaches the team on Agile principles, and removes impediments. While the Product Owner collaborates with the team during planning and reviews, their primary role is not facilitating day-to-day processes.

Option C, writing automated tests, is generally the responsibility of developers or testers. Product Owners focus on maximizing value from the product and defining what needs to be built rather than executing technical tasks like automated testing. Similarly, Option D, conducting system deployment, is a technical operation usually handled by DevOps or release engineers and is not part of the Product Owner’s responsibilities.

Option B is correct because the Product Owner manages the product backlog and ensures that items are prioritized to deliver the maximum value to the business and stakeholders. They communicate with stakeholders to understand requirements, define user stories, and make trade-offs that balance scope, time, and business priorities. By prioritizing backlog items, the Product Owner directs the team’s focus on work that provides the greatest impact, ensuring that Agile principles of value-driven delivery are followed. This prioritization is central to the success of an Agile project.

Question 64: 

Which Agile testing technique relies on tester creativity without pre-defined scripts?

A) Exploratory Testing
B) Regression Testing
C) Automated Testing
D) Performance Testing

Answer:  A) Exploratory Testing

Explanation:

Option B, regression testing, focuses on re-running previously executed test cases to ensure that changes have not broken existing functionality. These tests are scripted and predictable, so they do not rely on tester creativity or discovery. Option C, automated testing, uses scripts to validate functionality automatically and efficiently. While valuable for repetitive tasks, automation follows predefined instructions and lacks the adaptability and learning aspect that characterizes exploratory testing.

Option D, performance testing, evaluates system responsiveness, throughput, and stability under specific load conditions. It is typically scripted and metric-driven, and it does not involve human judgment or creativity in identifying unexpected behaviors.

Option A is correct because exploratory testing emphasizes simultaneous learning, test design, and execution. Testers actively explore the system, design tests on the fly, and adapt their approach based on observations. This method uncovers defects that scripted tests may miss, particularly in areas where requirements are incomplete, ambiguous, or evolving. Exploratory testing is highly aligned with Agile principles because it encourages adaptability, rapid feedback, and knowledge-driven testing in iterative environments.

Question 65: 

What is the primary purpose of the Definition of Done (DoD)?

A) Specify coding standards
B) Define when work is complete and potentially shippable
C) Prioritize backlog items
D) Replace acceptance criteria

Answer: B) Define when work is complete and potentially shippable

Explanation:

Option A, specifying coding standards, is related to ensuring code quality and maintainability, but it does not define whether a feature or user story is considered complete. Coding standards may be referenced in DoD but are not the central purpose.

Option C, prioritizing backlog items, is the responsibility of the Product Owner. DoD does not determine the order in which features are developed or delivered; rather, it defines completion criteria for each increment of work. Option D, replacing acceptance criteria, is also inaccurate because DoD complements acceptance criteria by providing additional conditions that must be met for a work item to be considered finished. Acceptance criteria define what functionality is needed, whereas DoD ensures that quality and completeness standards are satisfied.

Option B is correct because the primary purpose of the Definition of Done is to create a shared understanding of what it means for work to be complete and potentially shippable. It typically includes elements such as code being implemented, reviewed, tested, integrated, and documented as needed. By clearly defining DoD, the team ensures transparency, maintains quality standards, and avoids ambiguity about whether a product increment can be released. This aligns with Agile principles by promoting predictability, transparency, and the delivery of working, high-quality software at the end of each sprint.

Question 66: 

Which of the following is true about regression testing in Agile?

A) Only required at project end
B) Ensures previously working features remain functional after changes
C) Replaces exploratory testing
D) Tests only non-functional requirements

Answer: B) Ensures previously working features remain functional after changes

Explanation:

Option A, “Only required at project end,” is a common misconception about regression testing. In traditional approaches, some teams may postpone regression testing until the final phases of a project. However, in Agile, the focus is on incremental delivery and iterative development. Waiting until the end of a project would contradict Agile principles such as continuous feedback and early detection of issues. Therefore, regression testing is integrated continuously into the development cycle, ensuring that new changes do not disrupt existing functionality, rather than being deferred until project completion.

Option B, “Ensures previously working features remain functional after changes,” correctly describes the primary purpose of regression testing in Agile. As development progresses, new features, bug fixes, and updates are introduced. Each change has the potential to inadvertently affect existing functionality. Regression testing is conducted regularly, often through automated test suites, to verify that prior functionality continues to work as expected. This practice provides confidence that enhancements do not introduce unintended side effects, which is crucial in a fast-paced Agile environment.

Option C, “Replaces exploratory testing,” is inaccurate. Exploratory testing is a complementary testing approach where testers explore the application to discover defects and understand behaviors not covered by automated scripts. Regression testing is more structured, focusing on verifying existing functionality against a known baseline. While both approaches are important in Agile, regression testing does not replace the need for exploratory testing; instead, they serve distinct purposes within the overall testing strategy.

Option D, “Tests only non-functional requirements,” is incorrect because regression testing primarily targets functional aspects of the software. While non-functional tests such as performance or security checks can also be part of regression efforts, the core objective is to ensure that previously working functional features remain intact after changes. Regression testing ensures system stability and minimizes the risk of breaking features, which directly aligns with Agile’s iterative and incremental delivery goals.

In reasoning, option B stands out as the correct answer because it captures the essence of regression testing within Agile practices. Continuous regression testing allows teams to integrate new code confidently, maintain system integrity, and deliver consistent quality throughout the project lifecycle. Unlike the other options, it emphasizes the ongoing verification of existing functionality after changes, which is a cornerstone of Agile testing practices.

Question 67: 

Which Agile principle emphasizes sustainable development pace?

A) Deliver working software frequently
B) Maintain constant pace indefinitely
C) Respond to change quickly
D) Emphasize documentation over working software

Answer: B) Maintain constant pace indefinitely

Explanation:

Option A, “Deliver working software frequently,” is a fundamental Agile principle, but it primarily focuses on the frequency and regularity of software delivery rather than the sustainability of the development process. Frequent delivery ensures stakeholders receive incremental value, but without proper pacing, it could lead to burnout or unsustainable workloads. Therefore, while delivering frequently is important, it does not directly address maintaining a sustainable pace.

Option B, “Maintain constant pace indefinitely,” directly addresses sustainable development. Agile promotes a pace that teams can maintain over the long term without risking exhaustion or diminishing productivity. This principle ensures that team members can consistently deliver high-quality work across multiple iterations, fostering better morale and long-term effectiveness. Sustainable pace also encourages realistic planning and avoids overcommitting to unrealistic deadlines, which is critical in iterative environments.

Option C, “Respond to change quickly,” is another key Agile principle that emphasizes flexibility and adaptability in the face of evolving requirements. While responding to change is essential for project success, it does not inherently ensure a sustainable pace. Teams could adapt to changes rapidly but still face overwork or inconsistent workloads, which highlights why sustainable pacing is a separate focus within Agile values.

Option D, “Emphasize documentation over working software,” contradicts Agile philosophy. Agile values working software more than extensive documentation, and prioritizing documentation does not contribute to a sustainable pace. Instead, excessive documentation can slow down progress and create unnecessary overhead. The emphasis on sustainable pace aligns with continuous delivery and quality, ensuring teams work at a rhythm that is maintainable without sacrificing output or well-being.

Reasoning shows that option B is correct because it explicitly emphasizes maintaining a consistent, sustainable rhythm for the team, allowing productivity and quality to be preserved throughout iterations. Other options, while important Agile principles, do not address the balance and long-term sustainability that this principle ensures.

Question 68: 

Which Agile artifact provides a visual representation of work completed versus work remaining in a sprint?

A) Product Backlog
B) Burndown Chart
C) Definition of Done
D) Retrospective Notes

Answer: B) Burndown Chart

Explanation:

Option A, “Product Backlog,” is a prioritized list of user stories and features for the product. While it is central to Agile planning and contains all work items for the team, it does not visually show the progress of completed versus remaining work within a sprint. Its primary function is to maintain a living document of requirements and priorities, not to track real-time completion metrics.

Option B, “Burndown Chart,” is the correct answer. This artifact provides a visual representation of work completed against work remaining over time in a sprint. Teams can use it to monitor progress daily, identify potential bottlenecks, and adjust workload distribution. It offers immediate feedback and supports transparency, making it easier for both the team and stakeholders to understand sprint progress. Burndown charts are typically updated daily, reflecting completed tasks and remaining effort, helping teams predict whether they can achieve sprint goals.

Option C, “Definition of Done,” specifies the conditions under which a user story or task is considered complete. While it ensures consistency and quality in deliverables, it does not visually depict progress or remaining work. DoD provides clarity on completion criteria but does not serve as a progress-tracking tool like the burndown chart.

Option D, “Retrospective Notes,” captures lessons learned, team feedback, and process improvements after a sprint concludes. These notes are valuable for improving team practices but are not designed to track sprint progress or work completion in real time. They focus on reflective analysis rather than active monitoring.

The reasoning shows that option B is correct because the burndown chart uniquely visualizes ongoing sprint progress, enabling teams to adjust work dynamically and maintain transparency with stakeholders. Other artifacts serve planning, quality, or reflective purposes but do not provide the visual tracking functionality necessary for monitoring work completed versus remaining effort.

Question 69: 

In Agile, which is a benefit of continuous integration?

A) Reduces early feedback
B) Identifies integration issues quickly
C) Eliminates need for testing
D) Slows down release cycles

Answer: B) Identifies integration issues quickly

Explanation:

Option A, “Reduces early feedback,” is incorrect because continuous integration (CI) actually increases early feedback. By frequently integrating code changes and running automated tests, teams can detect errors quickly and prevent issues from accumulating. Reducing feedback would undermine the purpose of CI and the iterative nature of Agile development.

Option B, “Identifies integration issues quickly,” is correct. Continuous integration ensures that developers frequently merge their changes into a shared repository. Automated build and test pipelines immediately verify the integration, allowing teams to catch conflicts or defects early. This rapid detection prevents costly issues later in the development cycle, improves code quality, and enhances collaboration. Quick identification of integration problems also supports faster, more reliable releases.

Option C, “Eliminates need for testing,” is incorrect because CI complements testing rather than replacing it. Automated tests run as part of the CI process, but manual exploratory testing, non-functional testing, and additional quality checks remain necessary. CI improves the efficiency of testing but does not make testing obsolete.

Option D, “Slows down release cycles,” is also incorrect. CI accelerates release cycles by enabling frequent integration, early defect detection, and more stable builds. It reduces last-minute surprises and allows teams to release features faster and with higher confidence.

Option B is the correct choice because continuous integration’s primary advantage lies in early detection of integration problems. It aligns with Agile principles of continuous feedback, collaboration, and incremental delivery, ensuring that the development process remains smooth and predictable.

Question 70: 

Which of the following describes “story points”?

A) Absolute hours to complete work
B) Relative effort or complexity estimate
C) Number of defects
D) Priority level

Answer: B) Relative effort or complexity estimate

Explanation:

Option A, “Absolute hours to complete work,” is incorrect because story points are not a direct measure of time. Estimating in hours can vary widely among team members and does not account for complexity, risk, or uncertainty. Story points provide a more abstract and comparative measurement that allows teams to assess effort without being tied to exact durations.

Option B, “Relative effort or complexity estimate,” is correct. Story points allow teams to evaluate work items in relation to each other, considering complexity, effort, and potential risks. By using relative estimation, teams can plan sprints, track velocity, and make realistic commitments without relying on precise time predictions. Story points encourage discussion and shared understanding of work scope during planning sessions.

Option C, “Number of defects,” is incorrect because story points do not quantify bugs or issues. While defect tracking may influence future estimations or planning, story points focus on anticipated effort to implement a feature or user story, not the defects associated with it.

Option D, “Priority level,” is also incorrect. Priority indicates the importance or order in which a feature should be implemented, whereas story points indicate effort or complexity. Prioritization helps teams decide what to work on first, but it does not measure the size or effort of a task.

Option B is correct because story points provide a relative estimation method that supports Agile planning, sprint forecasting, and tracking team velocity. They abstract away from time-based metrics, allowing teams to focus on complexity and effort while maintaining flexibility and adaptability in the iterative development process.

Question 71: 

What is the purpose of a sprint retrospective?

A) Plan backlog for next sprint
B) Review completed increment with stakeholders
C) Reflect on team processes and identify improvements
D) Execute automated regression tests

Answer: C) Reflect on team processes and identify improvements

Explanation:

Option A, planning the backlog for the next sprint, is not the main focus of a sprint retrospective. Sprint planning is the ceremony designed specifically to select backlog items for the upcoming sprint, estimate them, and commit to delivering them within the sprint timeframe. The retrospective, by contrast, is not forward-looking in terms of selecting tasks but instead examines how the team has worked during the previous sprint. While planning the next sprint may indirectly benefit from retrospective insights, it is not the retrospective’s primary goal.

Option B, reviewing the completed increment with stakeholders, is associated with the sprint review. The sprint review is meant to showcase the product increment to stakeholders, gather feedback, and adapt the product backlog based on that feedback. The retrospective differs in that it focuses inward on the team itself rather than external stakeholders. The retrospective allows the team to evaluate processes, collaboration, and workflow to make improvements for future sprints.

Option D, executing automated regression tests, is a technical activity that may occur during the sprint, especially in Agile environments that emphasize continuous integration and testing. However, this activity is unrelated to the retrospective ceremony. While retrospectives may identify process improvements that affect testing, the ceremony itself does not involve performing tests.

Option C, reflecting on team processes and identifying improvements, is the correct answer because it captures the essence of the sprint retrospective. The retrospective is a dedicated space for the team to openly discuss what went well, what challenges they faced, and what adjustments can be made to improve future sprints. By focusing on learning and adaptation, the retrospective promotes continuous improvement, enhanced collaboration, and more efficient delivery of value in future iterations. The ceremony is crucial for fostering a culture of transparency, trust, and accountability within the team, making it an essential component of Agile practices.

Question 72: 

Which Agile practice encourages early testing and collaboration?

A) Shift-left testing
B) Regression Testing
C) Smoke Testing
D) Ad-hoc Testing

Answer:  A) Shift-left testing

Explanation:

Option B, regression testing, is a testing approach that ensures previously developed functionality continues to work correctly after changes. While regression testing is critical in Agile, it generally occurs after code changes or during continuous integration cycles, not necessarily early in development. It helps prevent defects from recurring but does not directly promote early collaboration.

Option C, smoke testing, is a shallow set of tests designed to quickly validate that the system’s critical functionality works. It is typically executed after builds to confirm basic operability. While valuable, smoke testing is not inherently about early involvement or collaborative practices; it is primarily a verification step before deeper testing.

Option D, ad-hoc testing, is informal testing performed without predefined test cases. This testing can discover unexpected issues, but it lacks structure, planning, and the systematic early involvement that Agile encourages. It does not formalize collaboration between developers, testers, and stakeholders, which is a key focus in Agile practices.

Option A, shift-left testing, is correct because it emphasizes moving testing activities earlier in the software development lifecycle. By integrating testing during requirements gathering, design, and coding phases, shift-left testing promotes collaboration between developers, testers, and business stakeholders from the start. Early detection of defects reduces rework, improves quality, and ensures that testing and development are closely aligned, which is consistent with Agile principles of continuous feedback and early validation of requirements.

Question 73: 

Which is the primary goal of acceptance test-driven development (ATDD)?

A) Create performance tests
B) Collaboratively define acceptance criteria before coding
C) Replace automated testing
D) Focus only on exploratory testing

Answer: B) Collaboratively define acceptance criteria before coding

Explanation:

Option A, creating performance tests, is unrelated to the core purpose of ATDD. While ATDD tests may include performance considerations if part of acceptance criteria, its primary focus is on defining functional expectations collaboratively, not performance metrics.

Option C, replacing automated testing, is incorrect. ATDD complements automated testing rather than replaces it. ATDD defines acceptance criteria collaboratively and often drives automated test creation, but it does not eliminate other forms of testing such as unit, integration, or exploratory testing.

Option D, focusing only on exploratory testing, misrepresents ATDD entirely. Exploratory testing is unscripted and creative, whereas ATDD is structured, formalized, and created collaboratively by developers, testers, and business representatives to ensure shared understanding of requirements.

Option B is correct because ATDD’s main goal is to ensure that all team members agree on the acceptance criteria before development begins. This practice reduces miscommunication, clarifies expectations, and minimizes defects. By defining testable requirements collaboratively, ATDD supports Agile principles of collaboration, early validation, and iterative feedback.

Question 74: 

Which of the following Agile ceremonies occurs daily to synchronize the team?

A) Sprint Planning
B) Daily Stand-up
C) Sprint Review
D) Sprint Retrospective

Answer: B) Daily Stand-up

Explanation:

Option A, sprint planning, occurs at the beginning of each sprint and focuses on determining what backlog items will be delivered and how the team will achieve them. It is not a daily synchronization activity, and it does not provide a platform for ongoing status updates or rapid coordination.

Option C, sprint review, happens at the end of the sprint to demonstrate the increment to stakeholders and gather feedback. While valuable for progress assessment and backlog adjustment, it is not designed for daily team alignment.

Option D, sprint retrospective, occurs after the sprint review and focuses on reflecting on processes, identifying improvement opportunities, and fostering team learning. It is not intended for daily status updates or coordination.

Option B is correct because the daily stand-up is a short, time-boxed meeting held every day during the sprint. Team members share what they accomplished yesterday, what they plan to do today, and any impediments they face. This ceremony ensures continuous communication, early issue detection, and coordinated efforts, which are critical in Agile’s fast-paced iterative environment.

Question 75: 

Which is a key benefit of exploratory testing in Agile?

A) Scripted execution only
B) Detects defects not covered by automated tests
C) Eliminates the need for regression testing
D) Measures system performance

Answer: B) Detects defects not covered by automated tests

Explanation:

Option A, scripted execution only, misrepresents exploratory testing, which is inherently unscripted and adaptive. Unlike predefined test scripts, exploratory testing leverages tester intuition, creativity, and domain knowledge to identify unexpected defects.

Option C, eliminating the need for regression testing, is incorrect. Exploratory testing complements regression testing by identifying issues that automated tests may miss. It does not replace regression testing but provides additional coverage in areas that require human insight.

Option D, measuring system performance, is also incorrect. Performance testing is separate from exploratory testing. Exploratory testing primarily evaluates functional aspects and user experience rather than system performance metrics such as response time or scalability.

Option B is correct because exploratory testing’s key benefit in Agile is its ability to uncover defects that automated scripts might not detect. By exploring the system dynamically, testers can identify edge cases, usability issues, and unexpected behaviors. This approach encourages flexibility, adapts to changing requirements, and strengthens overall product quality.

Question 76: 

Which of the following best describes a cross-functional Agile team?

A) Team members specialized in only one skill
B) Team possesses all skills to deliver an increment independently
C) Team relies on external parties for testing
D) Team focused exclusively on coding

Answer: B) Team possesses all skills to deliver an increment independently

Explanation:

Option A describes a team where members are specialized in only one skill. While specialization can be valuable in certain contexts, in Agile this setup often leads to bottlenecks and dependencies. For example, if only one person can perform testing or database tasks, the team may be blocked until that individual is available. Agile promotes collaboration and collective responsibility, so a highly siloed team can reduce efficiency and slow down delivery. Such a team cannot be considered cross-functional because it lacks the capability to handle all aspects of a product increment independently.

Option B represents a cross-functional team, where members possess complementary skills in areas such as development, testing, design, and documentation. This kind of team can work independently to deliver a complete, usable product increment without relying on external parties. Cross-functional teams are self-organizing, meaning they plan and execute their work collaboratively. This setup enhances flexibility, improves delivery speed, and allows the team to respond to changing requirements more effectively. They can manage testing, coding, and integration as part of their sprint activities.

Option C describes a team that depends on external parties for testing. While this may occur in traditional project setups, in Agile it introduces delays and dependencies that can disrupt continuous delivery. Agile emphasizes having all necessary skills within the team to avoid waiting for external approvals or handoffs. Relying on external testers contradicts the cross-functional principle, as the team would not have the autonomy to complete work from start to finish. This approach limits adaptability and reduces the team’s ability to deliver quality software incrementally.

Option D focuses exclusively on coding, which limits the team to development work only. Agile principles encourage teams to take collective ownership of the product, including design, testing, deployment, and documentation. A team focused solely on coding would still require other specialists for testing or integration, meaning they cannot deliver a potentially shippable increment independently. The correct answer is Option B because it fully embodies the cross-functional concept: the team has all required skills and can deliver a working increment without external dependencies, thereby increasing efficiency, accountability, and collaboration.

Question 77: 

Which Agile artifact describes the work to be done in a sprint?

A) Product Backlog
B) Sprint Backlog
C) Burndown Chart
D) Definition of Done

Answer: B) Sprint Backlog

Explanation:

Option A, the Product Backlog, is a prioritized list of all desired features, enhancements, and fixes for the entire product. While critical to Agile planning, it represents the bigger picture rather than the specific tasks for the current sprint. It is maintained by the Product Owner and can be continuously refined. Therefore, it does not specifically define the work that a team has committed to for an individual sprint, which makes it an incorrect choice for this question.

Option B, the Sprint Backlog, is the artifact that explicitly lists all tasks, user stories, and work items selected for the current sprint. It is the responsibility of the development team to create, maintain, and update it. The Sprint Backlog evolves during the sprint as tasks are completed or reprioritized, giving the team a clear view of progress and workload. It directly reflects the work the team has committed to delivering within the sprint, making it the correct answer.

Option C, the Burndown Chart, is a visual representation of work remaining versus time. While it tracks progress during the sprint, it does not itself describe the work to be done. Instead, it is a monitoring and reporting tool that helps the team and stakeholders see whether the sprint is on track. Burndown charts are derived from the Sprint Backlog, so while useful, they do not define tasks.

Option D, the Definition of Done (DoD), specifies the completion criteria for work items. It ensures that any item marked complete meets the agreed-upon quality standards, such as testing, documentation, and integration. DoD is essential for ensuring consistency and quality but does not describe the work itself. Option B is correct because it clearly lists all items and tasks for the sprint, guiding the team on what must be done and serving as the basis for tracking progress.

Question 78: 

Which Agile practice supports high-quality software through continuous testing and automated feedback?

A) Continuous Integration
B) Regression Testing
C) Exploratory Testing
D) Load Testing

Answer:  A) Continuous Integration

Explanation:

Option A, Continuous Integration (CI), is the practice of frequently merging code changes into a shared repository and automatically running tests to detect issues early. CI ensures that software quality is maintained continuously because defects are identified quickly, enabling teams to address problems before they accumulate. This practice integrates automated testing with the development process, providing rapid feedback to developers and minimizing the risk of integration problems.

Option B, Regression Testing, involves re-running previously executed test cases to confirm that recent code changes have not broken existing functionality. While crucial for maintaining software stability, regression testing is a subset of what CI provides. It does not, by itself, ensure continuous integration or feedback.

Option C, Exploratory Testing, is an unscripted testing approach where testers explore the application to discover defects. While this is valuable for uncovering edge cases and unexpected behavior, it is largely manual and does not provide continuous automated feedback, making it less aligned with the principle of CI.

Option D, Load Testing, evaluates the system’s performance under varying workloads. This ensures the software can handle expected traffic and stress scenarios. Although important for quality, load testing alone does not support continuous feedback on code integration or automated defect detection. Continuous Integration is the correct answer because it combines frequent code integration, automated testing, and rapid feedback, thereby improving software quality and enabling faster, reliable delivery.

Question 79: 

Which of the following best describes incremental delivery in Agile?

A) Deliver entire system at project end
B) Deliver small, functional increments regularly
C) Deliver only documentation early
D) Deliver test scripts first

Answer: B) Deliver small, functional increments regularly

Explanation:

Option A, delivering the entire system at the project end, reflects a traditional waterfall approach rather than Agile. In this approach, the product is built in a single, long development cycle, and users only see the finished system at the very end. This method delays valuable user feedback, reduces the team’s ability to respond to changes, and increases the likelihood that defects or misaligned requirements remain unnoticed until it is too late. Agile specifically avoids this approach by emphasizing iterative development and frequent delivery of usable software to minimize risk and improve responsiveness.

Option B, delivering small, functional increments regularly, embodies the core principles of Agile. Each increment represents a potentially shippable piece of software that is functional, integrated, and tested. By delivering these increments frequently, teams allow stakeholders and users to provide feedback early and continuously, which guides refinement and helps ensure the final product meets real-world needs. Incremental delivery also promotes adaptability, as teams can adjust priorities, refine features, and respond to changing requirements based on stakeholder input. This approach reduces risk, improves transparency, and ensures that value is consistently delivered throughout the project lifecycle.

Option C, delivering only documentation early, is insufficient because Agile prioritizes working software over comprehensive documentation. While documentation is useful for guidance and knowledge sharing, it cannot provide functional value or allow users to interact with the system. Releasing only documentation does not enable stakeholders to validate features, give feedback on usability, or assess the quality of the working product. Therefore, this approach fails to achieve the goals of incremental delivery and does not align with Agile’s emphasis on tangible outcomes.

Option D, delivering test scripts first, focuses on preparation rather than producing usable functionality. Testing is essential for maintaining quality, but test scripts alone do not provide functional software that can be evaluated or used by stakeholders. Incremental delivery requires that each increment is operational and provides value, rather than just preparatory artifacts. Option B is correct because it ensures that functional software is delivered regularly, stakeholders can engage with and validate the product, and teams can iteratively refine the system based on real feedback. This approach fully supports Agile’s iterative, value-driven methodology and enables the delivery of continuous business value.

Question 80: 

Which of the following defines a “potentially shippable product increment”?

A) Code written but untested
B) Fully integrated, tested, and ready for release
C) Test report from the sprint
D) Backlog item not started

Answer: B) Fully integrated, tested, and ready for release

Explanation:

Option A, code written but untested, does not meet the criteria of a potentially shippable product increment because it has not undergone verification to ensure correctness, functionality, or integration with other components. Untested code carries significant risk: it may contain defects, fail to integrate properly, or break existing functionality. Agile emphasizes delivering value and quality continuously, so code alone is insufficient. Without testing and integration, it cannot be reliably released to users, and it does not provide immediate feedback or usable functionality, which are central principles of Agile delivery.

Option B, a fully integrated, tested, and ready-for-release increment, is the correct definition of a potentially shippable product increment. This type of increment meets the Definition of Done, meaning all acceptance criteria have been fulfilled, the code is fully integrated, automated and manual tests have passed, and the increment is ready for deployment if the Product Owner decides to release it. The term “potentially shippable” reflects the idea that the increment could be delivered to production at the end of the sprint, although the decision to release is separate from the creation of the increment. This approach ensures that every sprint produces tangible, usable software that provides value and can be reviewed by stakeholders for feedback.

Option C, a test report from the sprint, while important for quality assurance and understanding test results, is not itself a potentially shippable increment. Test reports document findings and support decision-making but do not constitute functional software. They do not deliver end-user value directly because they cannot be executed or interacted with as a working product. Consequently, a test report cannot be released to customers, and by itself, it does not satisfy the Agile goal of producing functional increments each sprint.

Option D, a backlog item not started, clearly does not qualify as a potentially shippable increment. Items that have not been implemented are incomplete and provide no functional output or user value. For an increment to be considered potentially shippable, it must be fully developed, integrated, and tested. Incomplete or unstarted items fail to meet this standard.

Option B is correct because it ensures that the increment is functional, fully tested, integrated, and meets all criteria to be released if required. This aligns with Agile principles of delivering working software frequently and providing value to stakeholders with each sprint.