CompTIA 220-1101 CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set1 Q1-20

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Question 1:

A user reports that their desktop computer is unable to connect to the Internet, although other devices on the same network can. You check the Ethernet cable, and it is plugged in securely. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A) DHCP server is down
B) Incorrect subnet mask configuration
C) Bad network card driver
D) DNS server is down

Answer: B) Incorrect subnet mask configuration

Explanation:

A) DHCP server is down – If the DHCP server were down, the client computer would not be able to automatically obtain an IP address from the network. This typically results in the device assigning itself an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA) in the 169.254.x.x range, preventing communication with other devices or the internet. In this scenario, however, the device appears to have a valid IP configuration, as it is attempting to communicate but failing. Since other devices on the same network are working correctly, the DHCP server is likely operational, making this choice less probable.

B) Incorrect subnet mask configuration – This is the correct answer. The subnet mask determines which portion of an IP address identifies the network and which portion identifies the host. An incorrect subnet mask can lead to the computer misinterpreting which devices are on the local network versus remote networks. For example, if a device has an IP of 192.168.1.50 with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 instead of 255.255.255.0, it may try to route traffic destined for local devices through the default gateway instead of communicating directly. This results in a loss of local connectivity while other networked devices remain unaffected. Troubleshooting involves using commands like ipconfig on Windows or ifconfig/ip addr on Linux to verify the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. Correcting the subnet mask to match the network configuration usually resolves the issue immediately.

C) Bad network card driver – While a malfunctioning network driver can prevent connectivity, it typically results in the network interface being completely non-functional or showing as “unavailable.” Since the scenario specifies that the device appears connected but cannot communicate with other devices, a driver issue is less likely. Nonetheless, updating or reinstalling drivers can be part of the troubleshooting process if physical connections and IP configurations are verified to be correct.

D) DNS server is down – DNS issues generally affect domain name resolution rather than local IP connectivity. A device can still communicate with other devices on the network using IP addresses even if the DNS server is unreachable. Because the problem involves complete network communication failure despite physical connectivity, DNS is unlikely to be the primary cause.

Question 2:

A technician is replacing a laptop keyboard. After installation, the keyboard does not function, although the touchpad works fine. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?

A) Keyboard driver
B) Laptop BIOS settings
C) Ribbon cable connection
D) External keyboard compatibility

Answer: C) Ribbon cable connection

Explanation:

A) Keyboard driver – A driver issue can prevent a keyboard from functioning correctly. However, most modern laptops detect keyboards automatically, and Windows or Linux will install a generic driver if none is present. Driver issues are more common when an external keyboard does not work or after operating system updates. Because the keyboard was just physically replaced, it is more likely to be a hardware connection problem rather than a software driver problem.

B) Laptop BIOS settings – Some BIOS configurations allow enabling or disabling built-in peripherals, including the keyboard. If the keyboard is disabled in BIOS, it will not work at the hardware level. However, BIOS settings rarely change automatically and typically do not cause issues immediately after a keyboard replacement unless the technician had previously modified BIOS settings. Checking BIOS is a valid step but should follow verification of physical connections first.

C) Ribbon cable connection – This is the correct answer. Laptop keyboards connect to the motherboard via a flat ribbon cable, usually with a ZIF (Zero Insertion Force) connector. If the ribbon cable is not fully seated or the locking mechanism is not engaged, the keyboard will not function while other input devices, like the touchpad, continue to work. This is the most common issue after replacing a keyboard. Properly seating the cable, ensuring it is free from folds or damage, and securing the latch typically resolves the problem. It is crucial to handle ribbon cables carefully, as they are fragile and easily damaged.

D) External keyboard compatibility – This choice is irrelevant in this scenario. The question concerns an internal laptop keyboard that does not work. While testing with an external keyboard can help confirm whether the laptop accepts input, compatibility is not a likely cause of the internal keyboard failure immediately after replacement.

Question 3:

A user complains that their smartphone battery drains rapidly even when the device is not in active use. Which of the following actions would BEST identify the root cause?

A) Perform a factory reset
B) Check battery usage statistics
C) Replace the battery
D) Disable Wi-Fi and Bluetooth

Answer: B) Check battery usage statistics

Explanation:

A) Perform a factory reset – A factory reset restores the device to its default state, which may eliminate software issues causing battery drain. However, it is a drastic step that wipes all user data and settings. It should be considered only after identifying which app or service is consuming excessive power. Resetting without analysis does not help pinpoint the root cause and may be unnecessary if the drain is caused by a single app.

B) Check battery usage statistics – This is the correct answer. Modern smartphones track battery consumption by individual apps and system processes. By examining battery usage statistics in settings, a technician or user can identify which apps or services are consuming the most power. Common culprits include background apps, misbehaving updates, location services, and rogue processes. Once identified, actions such as disabling background refresh, updating apps, or uninstalling problematic applications can resolve the issue. Checking usage statistics is a non-intrusive diagnostic step that informs targeted corrective actions rather than performing blanket measures like a reset or battery replacement.

C) Replace the battery – Replacing the battery addresses issues related to degraded capacity but does not identify the root cause of abnormal battery drain. If a fully charged new battery still drains quickly due to software or app behavior, the problem persists. Therefore, battery replacement should follow a diagnostic assessment rather than precede it.

D) Disable Wi-Fi and Bluetooth – While disabling wireless radios can reduce battery usage, it does not identify the specific cause of the drain. It is a temporary mitigation measure, not a diagnostic approach. The problem may be due to an app or service running in the background even when Wi-Fi or Bluetooth is off. Disabling radios alone may reduce the rate of drain but leaves the underlying issue unresolved.

Question 4:

A user reports that their laptop is overheating and shutting down unexpectedly. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A) Outdated graphics driver
B) Clogged cooling vents
C) Corrupted operating system
D) Insufficient RAM

Answer: B) Clogged cooling vents

Explanation:

A) Outdated graphics driver – While an outdated graphics driver can cause performance issues, screen glitches, or crashes during intensive graphical tasks, it is unlikely to cause consistent overheating and unexpected shutdowns in a laptop. Drivers manage software communication with hardware, but heat accumulation is primarily a result of inadequate cooling, excessive CPU/GPU usage, or blocked airflow. Updating graphics drivers is recommended for general stability but will not resolve physical thermal problems caused by airflow restrictions.

B) Clogged cooling vents – This is the correct answer. Laptops rely on a combination of internal fans and heat sinks to dissipate heat generated by the CPU, GPU, and other components. Dust, lint, or debris can accumulate in air vents over time, preventing proper airflow and causing components to overheat. Overheating can lead to thermal throttling, reduced performance, and automatic shutdowns to prevent hardware damage. A thorough cleaning of the vents, fans, and heat sinks often restores normal operation. Technicians can use compressed air, vacuum-assisted devices, or disassembly for deeper cleaning. Regular maintenance, such as keeping vents clear of obstructions and avoiding placing laptops on soft surfaces, can prevent future overheating.

C) Corrupted operating system – While a corrupted OS can cause random crashes, freezes, or application failures, it is unlikely to cause a laptop to consistently overheat and shut down. Overheating is a hardware and thermal management issue. The OS can influence fan speed control and CPU usage, but physical obstructions or thermal paste degradation are far more common causes for thermal shutdowns. Reinstalling the OS would not resolve overheating if airflow issues are present.

D) Insufficient RAM – Low RAM can lead to system slowdowns, frequent pagefile use, or application crashes, but it does not directly cause overheating. RAM limitations affect performance but not thermal management. Even under heavy RAM usage, the laptop should continue operating unless the CPU/GPU is also overworked, which is secondary to cooling issues. Increasing RAM may improve performance but will not solve overheating caused by blocked vents.

Question 5:

A technician is setting up a home network for a small office. The network requires multiple devices to connect wirelessly and share files with a central printer. Which of the following devices is BEST suited to meet these requirements?

A) Switch
B) Router
C) Access point
D) Hub

Answer: B) Router

Explanation:

A) Switch – A network switch allows multiple wired devices to connect within a local area network (LAN). Switches manage MAC addresses and direct traffic efficiently between devices. While switches improve wired communication, they do not provide wireless connectivity or route traffic between different networks, such as the home LAN and the Internet. Therefore, a switch alone cannot meet the requirement for wireless device connectivity and printer sharing in a home office environment.

B) Router – This is the correct answer. Routers perform several critical functions: they connect local devices to each other via a LAN, allow communication with external networks (such as the Internet), and often include integrated wireless access points for Wi-Fi connectivity. Most modern home routers come with built-in DHCP servers to assign IP addresses automatically and support file and printer sharing over the network. For a small office with multiple devices requiring wireless connectivity and centralized resources, a router is the most versatile and appropriate choice. It combines routing, wireless access, and often network security features like firewalls and NAT (Network Address Translation).

C) Access point – An access point provides wireless connectivity to devices, allowing them to connect to an existing wired network. While access points can extend wireless coverage, they do not perform routing functions or assign IP addresses unless paired with a router or standalone DHCP server. Using only an access point would not facilitate Internet connectivity or central printer sharing without a router in the network.

D) Hub – A hub is an older networking device that broadcasts incoming data to all connected devices without managing traffic. Hubs are largely obsolete because they cause network inefficiency and collisions. A hub does not provide wireless connectivity, routing, or intelligent traffic management, making it unsuitable for a small office requiring multiple device connectivity and shared printing.

Question 6:

A technician is troubleshooting a desktop that fails to boot after a recent BIOS update. The computer powers on, but no display appears. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate first step?

A) Replace the motherboard
B) Reset the CMOS
C) Reinstall the operating system
D) Remove unnecessary peripherals

Answer: B) Reset the CMOS

Explanation:

A) Replace the motherboard – Replacing the motherboard is a last-resort solution. While a failed BIOS update can sometimes damage the motherboard, immediate replacement without further diagnosis is not cost-effective. Many boot issues after a BIOS update are related to corrupted settings or misconfigurations rather than complete hardware failure. Replacing the motherboard should only occur after other troubleshooting methods fail.

B) Reset the CMOS – This is the correct answer. The CMOS stores BIOS settings, and a failed or interrupted update can corrupt these settings, preventing proper initialization of hardware during POST (Power-On Self-Test). Resetting the CMOS clears custom settings, restoring default configuration values, and often resolves boot issues after BIOS updates. This can be done via a jumper on the motherboard or by removing the CMOS battery temporarily. Resetting the CMOS ensures that incompatible settings or failed BIOS parameters do not prevent system startup.

C) Reinstall the operating system – A failed BIOS update prevents the system from completing POST, meaning the OS is never loaded. Reinstalling the OS at this stage would be premature because the boot process does not reach the point where the OS can initialize. The problem lies in firmware-level settings, not the operating system itself.

D) Remove unnecessary peripherals – Disconnecting peripherals can help isolate hardware conflicts, but in the case of a failed BIOS update, the system fails to POST even without external devices connected. While it is a valid troubleshooting step in general, it is not the primary action needed to recover from BIOS-related boot failures. Resetting the CMOS addresses the root cause more directly and effectively.

Question 7:

A user reports that their desktop PC is running slowly, and disk usage remains at 100% even when no programs are running. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A) Fragmented hard drive
B) Insufficient RAM
C) Malware infection
D) Outdated graphics driver

Answer: C) Malware infection

Explanation:

A) Fragmented hard drive – Fragmentation occurs when files are not stored in contiguous blocks on a hard drive, causing the read/write head to move more frequently to access file fragments. On traditional HDDs, this can slow performance, especially for large files. However, most modern operating systems, including Windows 10/11, automatically defragment HDDs during idle periods. Additionally, fragmentation affects read/write speed gradually rather than causing persistent 100% disk usage when no programs are running. While defragmentation may improve performance slightly on older drives, it is unlikely to cause the severe symptoms described.

B) Insufficient RAM – Low RAM can cause excessive paging to the disk, leading to high disk usage and slow performance. When the system runs out of RAM, it uses the pagefile on disk to store temporary data, which is significantly slower than RAM. Although insufficient RAM can contribute to slow system performance, it typically shows performance issues during multitasking or running memory-intensive applications, not at idle. The scenario specifies that disk usage is at 100% even when no programs are running, suggesting a background process rather than memory shortage as the primary cause.

C) Malware infection – This is the correct answer. Malware can run background processes that consume CPU, memory, and disk resources without the user’s knowledge. Certain types of malware, such as cryptocurrency miners, spyware, or rogue software, continuously access the disk to read/write data, causing persistent 100% disk usage. Unlike hardware-related causes, malware can remain undetected and active even when the system appears idle. Checking Task Manager or using antivirus/anti-malware tools can help identify malicious processes. Removing the infection and performing a full system scan typically resolves the abnormal disk activity and restores system performance. Malware prevention includes keeping antivirus software up-to-date, avoiding suspicious downloads, and maintaining system patches.

D) Outdated graphics driver – An outdated or faulty graphics driver primarily affects visual performance, gaming, and display rendering. It may cause screen artifacts, crashes, or reduced frame rates, but it does not cause continuous high disk usage or slow system performance at idle. While updating drivers is recommended for overall system stability, it would not address persistent disk activity caused by background processes or malware.

Question 8:

A technician is configuring a workstation for video editing, requiring fast file access and high storage capacity. Which of the following storage configurations is BEST suited for this purpose?

A) Single HDD
B) RAID 0
C) RAID 1
D) Cloud storage

Answer: B) RAID 0

Explanation:

A) Single HDD – A single hard disk drive offers storage capacity but has slower read/write speeds compared to solid-state drives or RAID configurations. For video editing, which involves large file transfers and frequent reads/writes, a single HDD may create bottlenecks and reduce efficiency. While it can store files reliably, the lack of speed makes it unsuitable for high-performance editing workflows.

B) RAID 0 – This is the correct answer. RAID 0, also known as striping, splits data across two or more drives, effectively increasing read and write speeds. Each drive stores part of the data simultaneously, allowing faster access and improved performance during high-volume file transfers. For video editing, this configuration allows large video files to be read and written quickly, reducing render times and improving workflow efficiency. However, RAID 0 provides no redundancy; if one drive fails, all data is lost. Therefore, RAID 0 should be paired with regular backups to external storage or cloud solutions. RAID 0 is ideal when performance is prioritized over redundancy, which is common in video editing scenarios.

C) RAID 1 – RAID 1 mirrors data across two drives, providing redundancy in case one drive fails. While this increases data reliability, it does not improve read/write performance significantly because both drives contain identical data. For video editing, speed is more critical than redundancy during active editing, so RAID 1 is less suitable as the primary storage configuration. RAID 1 can complement RAID 0 if a hybrid setup (RAID 10) is used, combining speed and redundancy.

D) Cloud storage – Cloud storage offers accessibility from multiple devices and provides offsite backups, but it relies on network speed and Internet connectivity. Uploading and downloading large video files from cloud storage introduces latency and can be time-consuming, making it impractical for high-performance editing. Cloud storage is better suited for archiving or sharing completed projects rather than serving as primary, high-speed editing storage.

Question 9:

A user reports that their new laptop frequently disconnects from Wi-Fi networks. The issue occurs on multiple networks and persists even after restarting the laptop. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A) Interference from other devices
B) Outdated Wi-Fi driver
C) Router firmware issue
D) VPN configuration

Answer: B) Outdated Wi-Fi driver

Explanation:

A) Interference from other devices – Wireless networks can experience interference from devices such as cordless phones, microwaves, or neighboring Wi-Fi networks, which can reduce connection quality. Interference typically causes intermittent signal drops or slower speeds rather than consistent disconnections across multiple networks. Because the laptop disconnects frequently on all networks, interference is less likely the root cause.

B) Outdated Wi-Fi driver – This is the correct answer. Wi-Fi drivers manage communication between the operating system and the wireless network adapter. Outdated, incompatible, or corrupted drivers can cause frequent disconnects, authentication failures, or inability to maintain stable connections. Updating the Wi-Fi driver ensures compatibility with network standards, improves stability, and often resolves disconnect issues. Checking the manufacturer’s website or using Windows Update to install the latest driver is a recommended solution. Driver issues are especially common in new laptops if the pre-installed driver is outdated or incompatible with certain routers.

C) Router firmware issue – While outdated router firmware can cause connection instability, this scenario specifies that multiple networks are affected. If the problem occurred on a single network, router firmware could be a factor. However, disconnects on multiple networks point toward the client device rather than the routers. Firmware updates may improve compatibility but are unlikely to resolve consistent issues across different networks.

D) VPN configuration – A VPN may affect connectivity, causing slower speeds or session drops during tunneling, but it does not prevent basic network authentication or cause frequent disconnects when the VPN is not active. Since the issue occurs regardless of network, VPN configuration is unlikely to be the main cause.

Question 10:

A user reports that their laptop battery is swelling, causing the case to bulge slightly. Which of the following actions should the technician take FIRST?

A) Continue using the laptop while monitoring
B) Replace the battery immediately
C) Perform a battery calibration
D) Update the laptop BIOS

Answer: B) Replace the battery immediately

Explanation:

A) Continue using the laptop while monitoring – Continuing to use a laptop with a swollen battery is extremely dangerous. Swollen batteries indicate chemical instability within the lithium-ion cells, which can lead to leakage, fire, or even explosion. Monitoring the battery while it continues to operate is unsafe and violates safety protocols. Even if the laptop seems to function normally, the risk of catastrophic failure makes this option unacceptable.

B) Replace the battery immediately – This is the correct answer. Swelling is a clear sign of battery failure. Lithium-ion batteries can swell due to overcharging, manufacturing defects, exposure to heat, or age-related degradation. Immediate removal and replacement of the battery prevent potential injury or damage to the laptop. Technicians should handle the battery carefully, avoiding punctures, and dispose of it according to local regulations for hazardous materials. Using a certified replacement battery ensures continued safe operation. Safety protocols often require disconnecting the laptop from power and moving it to a fire-safe area until replacement.

C) Perform a battery calibration – Battery calibration involves fully charging and discharging the battery to correct inaccurate reporting of battery levels. While calibration can help extend battery life and improve percentage accuracy, it does not address physical swelling or chemical instability. Attempting calibration on a swollen battery can exacerbate the issue, posing significant safety risks. Calibration is only relevant for functional batteries, not ones that show structural damage.

D) Update the laptop BIOS – BIOS updates may improve battery management, optimize charging cycles, or fix reporting issues. However, BIOS updates cannot repair physical damage or chemical instability in the battery. Attempting a BIOS update while the battery is swollen is risky, as power interruptions or stress on the battery during flashing could result in further damage. Hardware replacement is the only effective solution in this scenario.

Question 11:

A technician is configuring a workstation that will host virtual machines for software testing. Which of the following hardware upgrades will MOST improve performance?

A) Additional RAM
B) Upgraded GPU
C) Faster optical drive
D) Larger HDD

Answer: A) Additional RAM

Explanation:

A) Additional RAM – This is the correct answer. Virtual machines (VMs) require dedicated memory to operate efficiently. Running multiple VMs simultaneously can quickly consume available system RAM, leading to excessive paging to disk and significantly slower performance. By increasing the amount of RAM, each VM can have sufficient memory, reducing reliance on the slower pagefile and improving overall system responsiveness. RAM upgrades are one of the most effective ways to enhance performance for virtualization tasks. For example, allocating 8 GB to each VM on a workstation with only 16 GB total RAM would cause severe slowdowns; upgrading to 32 GB or more mitigates this problem.

B) Upgraded GPU – A graphics card upgrade improves rendering, gaming, or 3D modeling performance, but virtual machines primarily depend on CPU and RAM. Unless the VMs are performing GPU-intensive tasks such as CAD rendering or video processing, upgrading the GPU has minimal effect on general virtualization performance. Many hypervisors utilize CPU virtualization extensions rather than GPU acceleration.

C) Faster optical drive – Optical drives are rarely used in modern virtualization tasks. Even if installation media are read from a disc, the overall impact on VM performance is negligible. Disk speed affects data transfer for installed VMs only initially, and the drive does not influence runtime performance. Therefore, upgrading the optical drive does not improve virtual machine efficiency.

D) Larger HDD – While a larger HDD increases storage capacity, it does not improve read/write speeds unless combined with a faster drive type, such as an SSD. Virtual machines are more dependent on disk I/O performance than sheer capacity. A large but slow HDD may accommodate more VMs but can result in slow loading and operation. Replacing it with an SSD would provide better performance improvements.

Question 12:

A user reports that their desktop PC beeps repeatedly on startup and fails to boot. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A) Corrupted operating system
B) Faulty RAM module
C) Loose monitor cable
D) Outdated graphics driver

Answer: B) Faulty RAM module

Explanation:

A) Corrupted operating system – A corrupted OS can prevent booting, but POST (Power-On Self-Test) occurs before the operating system loads. Beeping codes occur at the hardware level during POST, indicating hardware failures rather than software problems. Therefore, the beeps indicate that the motherboard is detecting an issue before the OS is even loaded, making OS corruption unlikely in this scenario.

B) Faulty RAM module – This is the correct answer. POST routines check memory integrity, CPU functionality, and basic system operations. Continuous or repetitive beeps often signal memory failures, including improperly seated or defective RAM modules. Faulty RAM can prevent the system from initializing memory properly, resulting in repeated beep codes and failed boot attempts. Troubleshooting includes reseating the RAM, testing modules individually, and replacing defective modules. Many motherboards have specific beep code patterns to indicate memory errors, allowing precise diagnosis. RAM failure is a common hardware issue and one of the first checks when the system fails to boot and produces beeps.

C) Loose monitor cable – A loose or disconnected monitor cable would prevent the display from showing output but would not trigger POST beep codes. The computer would still complete POST successfully, and beeps would not occur solely due to display connectivity. Troubleshooting the monitor connection can resolve a blank screen but is unrelated to repetitive startup beeps.

D) Outdated graphics driver – Drivers operate at the OS level. Because beep codes occur before the operating system loads, outdated graphics drivers cannot cause hardware-level POST errors. Driver issues might affect visual output or stability after boot, but they are irrelevant for hardware beep diagnostics.

Question 13:

A technician needs to install a network printer in an office where multiple users need access. Which of the following installation methods is MOST appropriate?

A) Direct USB connection to each workstation
B) Connecting via parallel port
C) Connecting via a network switch and assigning a static IP
D) Connecting via an HDMI port

Answer: C) Connecting via a network switch and assigning a static IP

Explanation:

A) Direct USB connection to each workstation – Direct USB connections require one cable per computer and limit printer access to the connected device. While feasible for a single-user environment, it is inefficient and impractical in an office where multiple users need shared access. Direct USB installation does not facilitate centralized management or concurrent printing.

B) Connecting via parallel port – Parallel ports are largely obsolete in modern PCs and printers. Even if available, parallel connections are point-to-point and cannot efficiently support multiple users in a networked office. This method does not scale well for multiple workstations and lacks remote management capabilities.

C) Connecting via a network switch and assigning a static IP – This is the correct answer. Network printers connected to a switch or router using an Ethernet cable can be accessed by multiple devices on the LAN. Assigning a static IP ensures the printer address does not change, allowing all workstations to maintain consistent access. Modern office printers often include built-in networking features and support standard protocols like TCP/IP, making network installation ideal for shared environments. Network printing facilitates centralized management, driver deployment, and monitoring of print jobs. Administrators can configure permissions, track usage, and ensure reliability.

D) Connecting via an HDMI port – HDMI ports transmit audio/video signals and cannot transmit print data. Using HDMI for printing is impossible, making this option invalid. HDMI is suitable for connecting monitors or TVs, not networked printers.

Question 14:

A technician is troubleshooting a workstation that shuts down unexpectedly when performing CPU-intensive tasks. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A) Failing power supply
B) Overheating CPU
C) Corrupted operating system
D) Faulty RAM

Answer: B) Overheating CPU

Explanation:

A) Failing power supply – A failing power supply can cause random shutdowns or failure to power on the system. However, these shutdowns usually occur unpredictably or during boot, rather than specifically during CPU-intensive tasks. A power supply failure would likely cause instability in other components as well, including the hard drives or GPU. While a PSU issue can’t be ruled out completely, the correlation between CPU-intensive activity and shutdowns points to a thermal problem rather than a power delivery issue.

B) Overheating CPU – This is the correct answer. CPUs generate significant heat under heavy workloads. If the cooling system is inadequate—due to dust buildup, malfunctioning fans, or dried thermal paste—the CPU can exceed its thermal limits. Modern processors include thermal protection mechanisms that automatically shut down the system to prevent permanent damage. Symptoms include sudden shutdowns during intensive applications, such as video rendering, gaming, or simulations, while normal tasks may not trigger overheating. Troubleshooting involves checking CPU temperatures in BIOS or with software monitoring tools, inspecting and cleaning fans and heatsinks, reapplying thermal paste, and ensuring proper airflow. Proper preventive maintenance can prevent recurring thermal shutdowns.

C) Corrupted operating system – While a corrupted OS can cause crashes, blue screens, or errors during normal operation, it is unlikely to cause shutdowns specifically tied to high CPU usage. OS issues manifest unpredictably and affect various operations. In this case, the shutdowns are task-dependent, pointing toward hardware-related thermal issues rather than software corruption.

D) Faulty RAM – Defective RAM may result in random freezes, application crashes, or POST errors, but it typically does not cause shutdowns only under CPU load. Memory errors affect data integrity and can lead to system instability, but the pattern described indicates a heat-related shutdown rather than memory failure.

Question 15:

A technician is configuring a mobile device for secure corporate email access. Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure data protection in transit?

A) Enable WPA2 Wi-Fi
B) Use a VPN connection
C) Disable Bluetooth
D) Enable NFC

Answer: B) Use a VPN connection

Explanation:

A) Enable WPA2 Wi-Fi – WPA2 secures the wireless link between the device and access point, preventing unauthorized users from accessing the network. While important, WPA2 only secures communication over a single Wi-Fi network and does not protect data when the device is on other networks such as public hotspots. It also does not encrypt traffic end-to-end for corporate email.

B) Use a VPN connection – This is the correct answer. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) encrypts all data traffic between the mobile device and the corporate network, ensuring that email messages and attachments remain secure even when transmitted over unsecured public networks. VPNs create a secure tunnel, protecting against man-in-the-middle attacks and eavesdropping. For corporate environments, VPN use is often required to access sensitive resources securely. Implementing a VPN also allows administrators to enforce network policies and monitor connections. This method protects data in transit regardless of the Wi-Fi network the device connects to, making it the most robust solution for corporate email security.

C) Disable Bluetooth – Turning off Bluetooth reduces the risk of local wireless attacks and unauthorized data transfers. While a good security measure, it does not encrypt email traffic in transit. Disabling Bluetooth only mitigates certain attack vectors but does not provide comprehensive protection for email communications.

D) Enable NFC – Near Field Communication is used for close-proximity data transfers, such as mobile payments or pairing devices. Enabling NFC does not secure email communications or network traffic. It is irrelevant to protecting data in transit between a mobile device and a corporate email server.

Question 16:

A technician notices that a workstation connected to a network switch is receiving slow network speeds compared to other devices. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A) Duplex mismatch
B) Faulty antivirus software
C) Outdated monitor driver
D) Fragmented hard drive

Answer: A) Duplex mismatch

Explanation:

A) Duplex mismatch – This is the correct answer. Network devices communicate using either half-duplex or full-duplex settings. A duplex mismatch occurs when one device operates in full-duplex mode and the other in half-duplex mode. This leads to collisions, retransmissions, and significantly reduced network throughput. Symptoms include slow file transfers, intermittent connectivity, and high latency. Common causes include manual configuration inconsistencies between a workstation NIC and a switch port or automatic negotiation failures. Troubleshooting involves checking NIC settings and the switch port configuration, ensuring both are set to auto-negotiate or explicitly match in duplex mode. Correcting the mismatch restores expected network performance.

B) Faulty antivirus software – Antivirus software can consume CPU and memory resources, slowing system performance, but it typically does not specifically cause slow network speeds across a wired connection. While certain firewall features may impact traffic, the correlation with network device settings makes a duplex mismatch more likely.

C) Outdated monitor driver – Monitor drivers affect display output, refresh rates, and color management. They do not affect network performance. Slow network speeds cannot be attributed to display driver issues.

D) Fragmented hard drive – Fragmentation can cause slower disk read/write speeds, but modern OSs automatically manage fragmentation, and it does not affect network transfer speeds. Network slowness caused by disk performance is indirect and minimal, making this option unlikely in this scenario.

Question 17:

A user wants to configure a mobile device to automatically connect to corporate Wi-Fi without manually entering credentials each time. Which of the following is the BEST method?

A) Use WEP security
B) Enable WPA2 Enterprise with 802.1X authentication
C) Disable SSID broadcast
D) Use a public hotspot

Answer: B) Enable WPA2 Enterprise with 802.1X authentication

Explanation:

A) Use WEP security – WEP is an outdated and insecure wireless security protocol. It can be easily cracked, exposing credentials and network resources. WEP does not support automatic authentication in enterprise environments securely and is not suitable for corporate Wi-Fi.

B) Enable WPA2 Enterprise with 802.1X authentication – This is the correct answer. WPA2 Enterprise uses individual user credentials combined with 802.1X authentication to securely connect devices to a corporate network. Devices can be configured to automatically authenticate using certificates or username/password combinations, eliminating the need for manual entry each time. This method ensures secure access, tracks individual connections for auditing, and enforces network policies. It provides both encryption and secure authentication, making it ideal for enterprise Wi-Fi environments where multiple users require seamless, secure access.

C) Disable SSID broadcast – Hiding the SSID may prevent casual users from seeing the network, but it does not provide security or enable automatic authentication. Devices must still know the SSID and credentials to connect, so it does not meet the user’s requirement for seamless access.

D) Use a public hotspot – Public hotspots provide open or minimally secured network access, which is insecure and unrelated to corporate Wi-Fi connectivity. Using a hotspot does not allow automatic authentication to the corporate network and exposes the device to security risks.

Question 18:

A technician needs to install a multi-function printer (MFP) in an office so that it can print, scan, and fax over the network. Which of the following protocols should be configured to allow scanning and faxing features over the network?

A) SMTP
B) SNMP
C) SMB/CIFS
D) FTP

Answer: C) SMB/CIFS

Explanation:

A) SMTP – SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending emails. While some multi-function printers can send scanned documents via email, SMTP alone does not allow shared network scanning or faxing. It is limited to email transmission and is not used for device-to-device file sharing.

B) SNMP – SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for monitoring and managing network devices. While it can report printer status, ink levels, and errors to administrators, it does not facilitate the transfer of scanned documents or fax operations. It is primarily for management, not data transfer.

C) SMB/CIFS – This is the correct answer. SMB (Server Message Block) or CIFS (Common Internet File System) allows networked devices to share files and printers over a LAN. Configuring SMB on an MFP enables users to scan documents directly to network folders and send faxes that integrate with file storage. SMB/CIFS provides authenticated access to shared resources and ensures users can interact with the printer using their network credentials. This method supports both scanning and fax features in an office environment where multiple users need access.

D) FTP – FTP (File Transfer Protocol) allows transferring files to a remote server. While FTP can be used to transfer scanned documents, it is less common for multi-user office environments and does not integrate seamlessly with Windows network shares. It lacks the user authentication and folder mapping capabilities provided by SMB/CIFS, making it less suitable for office MFP configuration.

Question 19:

A user reports that their laptop cannot connect to a corporate VPN. The laptop can access the Internet normally but cannot authenticate to the VPN server. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A) Incorrect VPN credentials
B) Faulty Wi-Fi hardware
C) Expired OS license
D) Corrupted display driver

Answer: A) Incorrect VPN credentials

Explanation:

A) Incorrect VPN credentials – This is the correct answer. VPN connections require authentication with a username, password, or digital certificate. If the credentials are incorrect, the VPN server will reject the connection. Common causes include expired passwords, misentered usernames, or configuration mismatches. Since the laptop can access the Internet normally, network connectivity is functional, and the issue is specific to authentication, pointing directly to credentials as the primary cause. Troubleshooting steps include verifying the username and password, checking certificate validity, and ensuring correct VPN settings (such as server address and protocol).

B) Faulty Wi-Fi hardware – A malfunctioning Wi-Fi adapter would prevent Internet connectivity entirely. Because the user can browse websites and access other online resources, Wi-Fi hardware is functioning correctly. Therefore, this is not the root cause.

C) Expired OS license – An expired operating system license may limit certain system updates or features but does not prevent VPN authentication. VPN connectivity is handled by the network stack and VPN client, independent of license status.

D) Corrupted display driver – Display drivers control video output and graphics functionality. They do not affect network connectivity or VPN authentication. A corrupted display driver might cause screen issues but cannot prevent VPN access.

Question 20:

A technician needs to secure a laptop that will be used in a public environment to prevent unauthorized access in case of theft. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

A) Enable BIOS password
B) Install a cable lock
C) Enable TPM and BitLocker encryption
D) Disable Wi-Fi

Answer: C) Enable TPM and BitLocker encryption

Explanation:

A) Enable BIOS password – Setting a BIOS password prevents unauthorized users from changing BIOS settings or booting the system without credentials. While it adds some security, it does not encrypt data stored on the hard drive. If the laptop is stolen, an attacker can remove the drive and access the data using another device. Therefore, BIOS passwords alone are insufficient for protecting sensitive information.

B) Install a cable lock – A physical cable lock can prevent opportunistic theft and provide deterrence. However, it does not secure data on the device if the laptop is forcibly removed or stolen. Physical security is complementary to data encryption but cannot replace it.

C) Enable TPM and BitLocker encryption – This is the correct answer. TPM (Trusted Platform Module) stores encryption keys securely, and BitLocker encrypts the hard drive, protecting data even if the laptop is stolen. Without the proper credentials or key, the data remains unreadable. Enabling full-disk encryption is the most effective way to protect sensitive information in public environments, making it the best solution to prevent unauthorized access in the event of theft. TPM combined with BitLocker also allows secure authentication during boot and integrates with corporate security policies.

D) Disable Wi-Fi – Disabling Wi-Fi prevents network access but does not protect stored data if the device is stolen. The laptop remains vulnerable to data theft, making this an incomplete security measure.