CompTIA PK0-005 Project+ Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 7 Q121-140

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Question 121 

A project manager wants to ensure that project deliverables meet the documented quality requirements before they are handed over to stakeholders. Which activity should the manager perform?

A) Cost Forecasting
B) Quality Assurance
C) Risk Assessment
D) Quality Control

Answer: D) Quality Control

Explanation: 

Quality control focuses on inspecting, testing, and verifying deliverables to ensure they meet the defined quality requirements. It involves activities such as measurement, inspection, and acceptance testing, ensuring that outputs comply with the specifications and expectations outlined during planning. Quality control typically occurs throughout the execution phase and is essential for confirming that project deliverables are ready for stakeholder acceptance.

Quality assurance is concerned with improving processes to prevent defects. It examines whether the methods, policies, and procedures used in the project facilitate quality deliverables. Unlike quality control, which examines the actual outputs, quality assurance ensures proper processes are being followed to produce those outputs consistently. It does not directly evaluate deliverables themselves but rather aims at improving production efficiency and reliability.

Risk assessment evaluates potential threats and opportunities that may affect project objectives. It focuses on identifying uncertainties and analyzing their likelihood and impact. While risk assessment is important for anticipating problems that may influence quality, it does not directly inspect or verify the deliverables. Instead, it ensures the project proactively addresses uncertainties before they escalate.

Cost forecasting estimates future financial expenditures based on current spending and project progress. It ensures that the project stays within budget and helps anticipate overruns. While financial planning is crucial for project control, it does not touch on validating deliverables or ensuring they meet established quality expectations.

The correct answer is quality control because it involves direct inspection and verification of deliverables to ensure they meet quality standards before being submitted for acceptance. Quality control ensures that issues are caught early, rework is minimized, and final outputs satisfy customer expectations. It provides tangible evidence that deliverables meet all required criteria and reduces disputes or delays during the approval process.

Question 122 

A project team is experiencing communication issues because stakeholders are unclear about who is responsible for approvals and task execution. Which tool should the project manager use to clarify responsibilities?

A) RACI Matrix
B) Work Breakdown Structure
C) Project Charter
D) Pareto Chart

Answer:  A) RACI Matrix

Explanation: 

The RACI matrix clarifies roles and responsibilities by defining who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed for each task or activity. It is an effective communication tool because it removes ambiguity, helps coordinate team expectations, and ensures that stakeholders clearly understand their involvement in project processes, decisions, and deliverables.

A Work Breakdown Structure decomposes the project into smaller, manageable components and work packages. While it clarifies project scope and deliverables, it does not specify who is responsible for performing or approving tasks. It focuses on structure rather than responsibility assignment, so it cannot resolve communication gaps about accountability.

A project charter authorizes the project and names the project manager, outlines high-level objectives, and identifies key stakeholders. Although it is an important initiating document, it does not provide detailed role assignments or clarify responsibilities for individual tasks. Therefore, it cannot resolve team-level confusion about who should execute, review, or approve project work.

A Pareto chart is used in quality management and problem-solving. It helps identify the most significant issues contributing to a problem based on the 80/20 principle. While useful in improving processes, it does not assign responsibilities or clarify stakeholder roles in project tasks.

The RACI matrix is the correct choice because it provides a clear structure for defining responsibility levels, ensuring that every stakeholder understands their expected involvement. It eliminates confusion, improves communication, and reduces delays caused by unclear authority and task ownership.

Question 123 

A project manager wants to visualize the sequence of tasks and identify the longest path that determines the project duration. Which technique should be used?

A) Critical Path Method
B) Monte Carlo Simulation
C) Earned Value Analysis
D) MoSCoW Prioritization

Answer:  A) Critical Path Method

Explanation: 

The Critical Path Method identifies the longest sequence of tasks that must be completed on time for the project to finish as scheduled. It analyzes task relationships, dependencies, and durations to calculate the earliest and latest start and finish dates. This method is essential for understanding which tasks cannot be delayed without affecting project completion, making it a central scheduling tool.

Monte Carlo simulation evaluates risks by running multiple probability-based simulations. It can help predict schedule uncertainty but does not explicitly map task sequences or determine the longest path. Instead, Monte Carlo is more useful for forecasting potential delays, not mapping deterministic task flows.

Earned value analysis integrates scope, cost, and schedule to evaluate project performance. It helps measure actual progress against planned progress but does not identify task dependencies or determine which path controls project duration. Therefore, it is not suitable for understanding task sequencing.

MoSCoW prioritization categorizes requirements into must-have, should-have, could-have, and won’t-have. It is used in scope and requirements management rather than scheduling. While it supports prioritizing work, it cannot analyze timelines or identify the project’s critical path.

The Critical Path Method is the correct answer because it directly evaluates task dependencies, identifies tasks that cannot slip, and determines the overall minimum project duration.

Question 124 

A team member reports that a required component will be delayed by two weeks due to a supplier issue. What should the project manager do first?

A) Assess the impact on the schedule
B) Escalate to the project sponsor
C) Replace the supplier
D) Update the risk register

Answer:  A) Assess the impact on the schedule

Explanation: 

Assessing the impact on the schedule is the first action because it allows the project manager to understand how serious the delay is and whether it affects the critical path or overall timeline. Without this information, any decision would be premature and potentially unnecessary. Impact assessment ensures informed decision-making and appropriate escalation.

Escalating to the project sponsor may be needed if the impact is severe, but it should not occur until the project manager has analyzed the situation. Escalation without assessment may cause unnecessary concern and does not reflect competent project leadership.

Replacing the supplier is a drastic step that should only be considered after evaluating all impacts, alternatives, and constraints. It may introduce additional delays, cost increases, or quality risks. Therefore, the project manager should assess the situation first before considering such a major change.

Updating the risk register is appropriate, especially if supplier delays are a recurring risk, but it is not the first step. The manager must understand the schedule impact to categorize and plan the appropriate risk response. Documentation should occur after assessment, not before.

The correct answer is assessing the impact on the schedule because understanding consequences is essential before deciding on mitigation, escalation, or documentation.

Question 125 

During project execution, a conflict arises between two team members over task ownership. What is the best conflict-resolution technique for maintaining long-term cooperation?

A) Collaboration
B) Forcing
C) Avoidance
D) Compromise

Answer:  A) Collaboration

Explanation: 

Collaboration involves working together to reach a mutually beneficial solution. It encourages open communication, shared problem-solving, and long-term team cohesion. This method allows both parties to express their viewpoints and jointly determine the best path forward. Collaboration results in stronger relationships and improved team trust, making it the most effective technique for sustainable cooperation.

Forcing imposes one individual’s viewpoint over another. It may resolve the issue quickly but usually leads to resentment, reduced morale, and further conflict. It should be used sparingly and only in urgent or safety-critical situations where immediate decisions are required.

Avoidance involves ignoring or postponing the conflict. While it prevents immediate escalation, it rarely resolves the underlying issue. Avoidance may cause unresolved tension, miscommunication, and recurring disputes. It is not suitable for long-term cooperation because it avoids dealing with the root cause.

Compromise requires both parties to give up something to reach an agreement. While it may be useful in some scenarios, it does not fully satisfy either side and may weaken team relationships. Compromise achieves short-term solutions but does not create the level of commitment or teamwork that collaboration fosters.

Collaboration is the correct answer because it resolves conflict while improving team cohesion. It addresses root causes, strengthens relationships, and builds trust, making it ideal for long-term collaboration.

Question 126 

A project manager wants to determine whether tasks are ahead of schedule, behind schedule, or on track based on earned value metrics. Which metric should they analyze?

A) Schedule Variance
B) Cost Variance
C) Actual Cost
D) Planned Value

Answer:  A) Schedule Variance

Explanation: 

Schedule variance is the metric used to determine whether project tasks are ahead of schedule, behind schedule, or progressing exactly as planned. This metric compares earned value to planned value and helps project managers understand the overall health of the schedule in relation to work completed. A positive schedule variance indicates that the project has completed more work than scheduled at that point in time, meaning it is ahead of schedule. A negative schedule variance means less work has been completed than planned, indicating the project is behind schedule. When the variance is zero, it signifies that actual progress matches the planned progress and the schedule is on track.

Cost variance, another earned value metric, is useful for evaluating financial performance rather than schedule performance. Cost variance compares earned value to actual cost and determines whether the project is spending more or less than budgeted for the work completed. This measure helps identify overspending or savings but provides no insight into whether the project is on time. Because cost variance does not compare planned value, it cannot reveal timing issues or whether the project team is completing tasks according to the schedule baseline.

Actual cost represents the amount of money spent on project activities up to a specific point in time. While this value is essential for understanding expenditures, it does not provide any information about progress or scheduling. Actual cost does not account for how much work should have been completed or how much value has been generated. As a result, it cannot indicate whether the project is progressing slower, faster, or exactly as originally planned.

Planned value reflects the intended or scheduled amount of work to be completed based on the project plan. It represents the budgeted cost for scheduled work but does not include information about actual work performed. Although planned value is a component used in schedule variance calculations, by itself it cannot determine whether work is ahead or behind schedule because it does not account for earned value.

Schedule variance is the correct metric because it directly compares earned value and planned value to determine if the project is ahead, behind, or exactly on schedule. It is the only option that evaluates schedule performance as part of earned value management. Cost variance focuses strictly on budget issues, actual cost shows only expenditures, and planned value represents scheduled work without measuring actual completion. Therefore, schedule variance provides the most relevant and accurate insight into schedule status, making it the appropriate choice for determining timing-related performance.

Question 127 

A project manager wants to group risks based on their source, such as technical, environmental, or organizational. Which technique should be used?

A) Risk Categorization
B) Root Cause Analysis
C) Monte Carlo Simulation
D) SWOT Analysis

Answer:  A) Risk Categorization

Explanation:

Risk categorization is the technique used to group risks according to their source, characteristics, or area of impact. This approach helps project managers organize large sets of risks in a manageable way, making it easier to analyze patterns and determine where attention and resources should be directed. Categorization may be based on factors such as technical challenges, organizational factors, environmental conditions, regulatory concerns, or external dependencies. By grouping risks in this manner, project teams can more quickly recognize common themes and create targeted mitigation strategies for each category.

Root cause analysis is a technique used to determine the underlying reasons behind a specific risk or issue. Instead of grouping risks, it digs deeper into individual risks to uncover the fundamental cause that could lead to the risk event. This is helpful when trying to prevent recurrence of similar issues, but it is not meant for organizing or classifying risks based on their source. It is a diagnostic tool rather than a risk organization strategy, making it unsuitable when the primary objective is sorting risks into structured categories.

Monte Carlo simulation is a quantitative risk analysis tool that uses probability models to estimate possible project outcomes. It typically analyzes the combined effects of risks on cost or schedule by running thousands of simulations. This method provides statistical distributions such as ranges, confidence levels, and probable completion dates. Although very helpful for decision-making in complex environments, Monte Carlo simulation does not classify risks or group them into categories. Its purpose lies in forecasting rather than organizing.

SWOT analysis stands for strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. It is generally used for strategic analysis and early project assessment. While SWOT identifies threats and opportunities, it does not categorize risks according to source or nature. It is broad and high level, giving a general view of internal and external factors affecting the project, but lacks the structured grouping that risk categorization provides.

Risk categorization is the correct technique because it directly addresses the need to organize risks based on their origin or type. It helps the project manager identify which areas require more mitigation, highlights patterns across similar risks, and improves communication by ensuring risks are presented in a structured format. Root cause analysis focuses on causes, Monte Carlo simulation focuses on probability modeling, and SWOT analysis highlights strategic factors rather than providing risk grouping. Therefore, risk categorization is the best fit when the objective is to group risks into distinct and meaningful categories.

Question 128 

A stakeholder requests a new feature late in the project, but implementing it would disrupt the schedule. What should the project manager do first?

A) Evaluate the request through the change control process
B) Deny the request immediately
C) Implement the change to satisfy the stakeholder
D) Pause the project until consensus is reached

Answer:  A) Evaluate the request through the change control process

Explanation:

Evaluating the request through the change control process is the appropriate first step when a stakeholder requests a new feature late in the project. This approach ensures that all changes are assessed in an orderly and documented manner. The project manager must analyze the impact of the change on scope, schedule, cost, quality, and resource allocation. Through the change control system, changes are reviewed, approved, deferred, or rejected by the appropriate decision-making authority, ensuring consistency and preventing disruptions. This protects the integrity of the project plan and ensures informed decisions are made before any adjustments occur.

Denying the request immediately may seem like a quick solution but often causes conflict or dissatisfaction among stakeholders. Rejecting a change without proper evaluation can damage stakeholder relationships and may appear dismissive or arbitrary. Since the project manager has not yet analyzed the potential value or risks of the change, an immediate denial lacks justification. Additionally, organizations often have formal processes requiring that all change requests be documented and reviewed before decisions are made, so denying a request outright may violate procedural expectations.

Implementing the change without evaluation poses significant risks. By proceeding without assessing the consequences, the project manager may inadvertently introduce scope creep, cost increases, or schedule delays. Implementing changes without approval also undermines governance controls and reduces accountability. The project team may struggle with added work, resource conflicts, or impacts to quality. A change implemented informally may also create confusion if it is not properly communicated, documented, or aligned with stakeholder expectations.

Pausing the project until consensus is reached is an unnecessary and inefficient approach. Reaching agreement among all stakeholders can be time-consuming, and stopping project activities would cause delays without providing meaningful benefit. The purpose of the change control process is to avoid such disruptions by creating an organized method for evaluating and deciding on changes without halting progress. Pausing the project is rarely justified unless a critical issue requires immediate intervention, which is not the case for a routine change request.

The correct action is to evaluate the request through the change control process because it provides structure, transparency, and accuracy in decision-making. It ensures that the project manager considers the full impact of the requested change before determining whether it should be approved or rejected. This process also maintains alignment with organizational standards and protects the project from unnecessary disruptions. The other options either create risk, undermine procedural integrity, or cause unneeded delays. Therefore, initiating the change control process is the best and most responsible first step.

Question 129 

Which document outlines how communication will be planned, structured, monitored, and controlled throughout the project?

A) Communication Management Plan
B) Stakeholder Register
C) Project Charter
D) Lessons Learned Register

Answer:  A) Communication Management Plan

Explanation:

The communication management plan is the document that outlines how communication will be structured, monitored, and controlled throughout the project. It describes the types of information that will be communicated, the frequency and format of communication, the roles and responsibilities associated with communication activities, and any escalation procedures. This plan ensures that information flows efficiently among stakeholders and that communication methods remain consistent with project needs. It also helps avoid misunderstandings by setting clear expectations for how and when project updates will occur.

The stakeholder register contains details about all individuals or groups who have an interest in the project. It includes their roles, influence, expectations, and communication needs. Although this document guides the project manager in planning communications, it does not describe how communication will actually be conducted. Instead, it provides the foundation for understanding who needs what information, but the communication management plan determines how those needs will be met. Therefore, the stakeholder register supports communication planning but is not the document that governs communication processes.

The project charter is a high-level document that authorizes the project. It includes broad project objectives, the project manager’s authority, and an initial list of stakeholders, but it does not contain detailed communication plans. Because the charter is created early in the project lifecycle, it lacks the depth needed to define communication channels, formats, or monitoring procedures. Detailed planning, including communication planning, occurs later during project planning. For this reason, the charter is not the correct document for outlining communication strategies.

The lessons learned register documents insights gained throughout the project or from previous projects. It captures successes, mistakes, and recommendations for future improvement. While lessons learned may include observations about communication effectiveness, the register is retrospective rather than procedural. It does not define how communication should occur during the current project and instead serves as a resource for continuous improvement. It is not intended to guide communication activities while the project is in progress.

The communication management plan is the correct answer because it specifically defines the processes, tools, and expectations for communication throughout the project lifecycle. It ensures that the project team and stakeholders receive timely, accurate, and relevant information. The stakeholder register identifies communication needs but does not outline procedures. The project charter provides initial guidance but not operational detail. The lessons learned register recorded experiences but do not direct communication for the current project. Therefore, the communication management plan is the document that thoroughly outlines how communication will be planned, executed, monitored, and controlled.

Question 130 

A project requires specialized knowledge that the internal team does not possess. Which action should the project manager take?

A) Acquire external experts
B) Train existing staff
C) Extend the schedule
D) Remove the task from scope

Answer:  A) Acquire external experts

Explanation:

Acquiring external experts is the most effective approach when a project requires specialized knowledge that the internal team does not possess. External experts bring specialized skills, experience, and insights that can be applied immediately without extensive training. Their expertise enables the project to move forward without sacrificing quality or causing unnecessary delays. By bringing in professionals who already have the required knowledge, the project manager reduces risk and increases the likelihood of accurate and efficient task completion. This approach is especially valuable when deadlines are tight or when the required knowledge is highly technical or niche.

Training existing staff may seem appealing because it builds internal capability, but it often takes considerable time to achieve the level of expertise needed for specialized tasks. Training may also divert staff from their current responsibilities, creating additional workload pressures. While training can be beneficial for long-term organizational development, it is not always practical when the project timeline is constrained. In cases where immediate expertise is required, training is not the most efficient or reliable method for filling the knowledge gap.

Extending the schedule does not address the underlying lack of knowledge within the team. While additional time may reduce pressure temporarily, it does not guarantee that the team will develop the necessary skills to complete the specialized task effectively. Without proper training or expertise, extending the schedule may lead to rework, errors, or quality issues. Schedule extensions also increase project costs and may create dissatisfaction among stakeholders who expect timely delivery. Thus, extending the schedule is not a solution to the capability gap itself.

Removing the task from scope is generally inappropriate unless it has been thoroughly evaluated and formally approved through the change control process. Many specialized tasks are essential to delivering project objectives, and removing them could compromise the project’s success. Eliminating a task simply because the team lacks the skills does not address the root issue and could result in an incomplete or nonfunctional project deliverable. Scope reduction should only be considered when it aligns with strategic priorities and stakeholder agreements.

Acquiring external experts is the correct action because it directly resolves the skill deficiency without compromising schedule, quality, or scope. It ensures that the specialized work is performed by individuals who are fully competent and prepared to deliver high-quality results. Training takes too long, extending the schedule does not solve the expertise problem, and removing the task risks undermining project objectives. Bringing in external specialists provides an efficient, reliable, and strategic solution, allowing the project to proceed with confidence and maintain its planned trajectory.

Question 131 

A project manager wants to measure how much of the project work has been completed at a given point. Which value should be used?

A) Earned Value
B) Planned Value
C) Actual Cost
D) Cost Performance Index

Answer:  A) Earned Value

Explanation:

Earned value represents the amount of work actually completed at a given point in the project. It reflects the real progress made and turns completed work into a measurable financial value. This makes earned value an essential part of earned value management, where project teams compare actual progress to planned progress. Because it shows what has truly been accomplished, it is the most reliable metric for determining how much work has been completed.

Planned value, on the other hand, only tells the project manager what should have been completed by a certain date. While it is important for comparing against earned value, it does not reflect real progress. It serves more as a baseline or expectation and not as a measure of actual work.

Actual cost represents how much has been spent so far. Although this metric is critical for monitoring financial performance, it does not indicate how much work has been completed. A team may spend money without completing proportional work, making this metric unsuitable for measuring progress.

The cost performance index compares earned value to actual cost. It is useful for understanding cost efficiency but does not identify the amount of completed work on its own. Instead, it serves as a performance indicator.

Earned value is the correct answer because it directly measures the value of completed work, making it the most accurate indicator of project progress at any point.

Question 132 

A project is nearing completion when a stakeholder disputes whether all contractual deliverables were met. Which document should the project manager reference?

A) Scope Statement
B) Risk Register
C) Issue Log
D) Resource Plan

Answer:  A) Scope Statement

Explanation:

The scope statement defines what the project must deliver, including acceptance criteria, deliverable descriptions, boundaries, and constraints. When a dispute arises about whether contractual deliverables were met, this document provides the authoritative source for confirming what was agreed upon. Because it outlines what is included and excluded, it becomes essential when verifying whether deliverables meet stakeholder expectations.

The risk register does not help in this situation because it tracks identified risks, their analyses, and response strategies. It does not include contractual deliverable details or acceptance criteria. While risks may affect deliverables, the register does not confirm their completion.

The issue log records current problems or disputes that arise during the project, but it does not contain the original scope commitments. Although the disagreement may be logged as an issue, the issue log cannot resolve it because it does not define what should have been delivered.

The resource plan identifies personnel, equipment, and materials needed for the project. It does not define delivery requirements or contractual obligations. Because it does not address what must be delivered, it cannot be used to resolve disputes over completed work.

The scope statement is the correct answer because it clearly outlines the deliverables that must be completed and therefore serves as the authoritative source for resolving disputes about whether the project fulfilled its obligations.

Question 133 

A project team has completed deliverables, and the client is satisfied. What should the project manager do next?

A) Obtain formal acceptance
B) Release the team immediately
C) Close all risks
D) Update the schedule baseline

Answer:  A) Obtain formal acceptance

Explanation:

Formal acceptance is the process where stakeholders or clients officially acknowledge that the deliverables meet requirements and are satisfactory. This step is necessary before a project can move into closure, ensuring agreement that everything promised has been delivered. Without formal acceptance, the project remains exposed to disputes, revisions, or incomplete closure tasks.

Releasing the team immediately would be premature. The team may still need to help close contracts, gather lessons learned, finalize documents, or address any remaining follow-up items. Team release should only happen after all closure activities, including formal acceptance, are completed.

Closing all risks is part of the project closure phase, but it happens after formal acceptance. Some risks may still remain open until the project is officially accepted. Once acceptance is granted, the project manager can close remaining risks and archive risk documentation.

Updating the schedule baseline is not appropriate at the end of the project. Baselines are generally updated during execution if approved changes occur. At closure, the baseline is archived rather than changed.

Formal acceptance is the correct answer because it ensures agreement that deliverables meet expectations, providing authorization to proceed with closure activities.

Question 134 

A vendor contract includes penalties for late delivery. What type of contract is this?

A) Fixed Price
B) Cost Reimbursable
C) Time and Materials
D) Retainer Agreement

Answer:  A) Fixed Price

Explanation:

Fixed-price contracts establish a specific cost for the work to be completed and often include penalties or incentives tied to performance. Because the price is predetermined, vendors are motivated to complete the work on time and within cost. Penalty clauses for late delivery are common in these types of contracts, making them suitable when the buyer wants predictable costs and clear performance expectations.

Cost reimbursable contracts compensate the vendor for allowable costs plus an additional fee. These contracts usually do not include penalties for late delivery because the buyer assumes more cost risk. Delays may increase costs, but penalties are not a standard feature.

Time and materials contracts combine fixed hourly labor rates with material costs. They are flexible for ongoing work but do not typically include deadlines with penalties. Instead, they allow work to continue as long as necessary, with cost increasing over time.

Retainer agreements involve paying a vendor to remain available for services but are not tied to delivery timelines. They focus on access to expertise rather than on deliverable deadlines or penalties for late performance.

Fixed-price contracts are correct because they commonly incorporate delivery penalties to ensure timely performance.

Question 135 

A project manager wants to increase the likelihood of meeting project deadlines by identifying schedule flexibility. Which analysis technique should be used?

A) Float Analysis
B) Earned Value Analysis
C) Cost Benefit Analysis
D) Trend Analysis

Answer:  A) Float Analysis

Explanation:

Float analysis determines how much time each activity can be delayed without affecting the overall project timeline. By calculating float, the project manager identifies which tasks are flexible and which tasks must stay on schedule. Understanding float helps prioritize work and reduce schedule risks, making it the best tool for increasing the likelihood of meeting deadlines.

Earned value analysis measures project performance by comparing planned progress, actual progress, and costs. Although it provides insights into schedule performance, it does not calculate float or indicate how much an activity can slip without affecting the final completion date.

Cost benefit analysis compares the financial benefits of a decision to its costs. This technique supports decision-making but has no role in identifying schedule flexibility or determining float.

Trend analysis examines historical project data to predict future performance trends. While helpful in forecasting delays or issues, it does not quantify slack or the time available for task delays.

Float analysis is the correct answer because it directly identifies schedule flexibility, supporting better planning and risk mitigation.

Question 136 

A major risk has occurred, causing a delay. The project manager executes the pre-planned response strategy. What process is being performed?

A) Risk Response Implementation
B) Risk Identification
C) Qualitative Risk Analysis
D) Scope Validation

Answer:  A) Risk Response Implementation

Explanation:

Risk response implementation occurs when a risk event happens and the project manager carries out the previously planned response strategy. This step ensures the project follows the predetermined actions meant to reduce the risk’s impact. It is part of executing the risk management plan and is carried out when the risk becomes reality.

Risk identification focuses on discovering potential risks before they happen. It occurs during planning, not after a risk event has materialized. Since the risk has already occurred in the scenario, identification is not the correct process.

Qualitative risk analysis prioritizes risks by evaluating their likelihood and impact. It helps determine which risks deserve attention during planning but does not involve carrying out responses once risks occur.

Scope validation ensures completed deliverables meet acceptance criteria. It is unrelated to risk events, mitigation strategies, or executing response plans.

Risk response implementation is correct because it involves putting the pre-planned response into action after the risk occurs.

Question 137 

A stakeholder requests weekly updates through email instead of monthly meetings. How should the project manager respond?

A) Update the communication plan
B) Reject the request
C) Escalate to the sponsor
D) Change the project scope

Answer:  A) Update the communication plan

Explanation:

Updating the communication plan ensures the project aligns with stakeholder communication needs. Communication plans are dynamic documents that must be revised when stakeholder expectations or preferences change. If a stakeholder requests weekly email updates instead of monthly meetings, the project manager should adjust the plan to maintain engagement and ensure information flows as expected.

Rejecting the request would be inappropriate because communication must be tailored to stakeholder needs. Ignoring such requests may reduce stakeholder support, cause misunderstandings, or damage working relationships.

Escalating to the sponsor is unnecessary unless the request conflicts with organization-wide communication rules, which the scenario does not indicate. Minor adjustments to communication frequency or method rarely require sponsor intervention.

Changing the project scope is inappropriate because communication preferences do not alter deliverables or project boundaries. Scope changes affect work content, not communication methods.

Updating the communication plan is the correct answer because it accounts for stakeholder needs and ensures proper information distribution.

Question 138 

Which meeting focuses on determining why a project failed or succeeded and identifying improvements?

A) Lessons Learned Meeting
B) Kickoff Meeting
C) Steering Committee Meeting
D) Daily Standup

Answer:  A) Lessons Learned Meeting

Explanation: 

A lessons learned meeting is conducted to examine a project’s successes, failures, and opportunities for improvement. This type of meeting typically occurs during project closure but can also take place throughout the project. The goal is to document insights that will benefit future projects, making it the primary forum for discussing what went well and what did not.

A kickoff meeting occurs at the start of the project and focuses on introductions, expectations, and alignment. It does not evaluate performance or analyze reasons for success or failure.

A steering committee meeting addresses major decisions, escalations, and high-level oversight. These meetings guide project direction but do not focus on reviewing overall performance or identifying lessons.

A daily standup is a short, focused meeting aimed at coordinating immediate work and identifying short-term blockers. It is not intended for evaluating the entire project or identifying deep improvements.

The option lessons learned meeting is correct because it focuses specifically on understanding performance outcomes and deriving improvements.

Question 139
 

A project manager is determining whether the project should continue based on value delivered and remaining costs. Which action is being performed?

A) Cost-Benefit Analysis
B) Requirement Traceability
C) Contract Negotiation
D) Quality Inspection

Answer:  A) Cost-Benefit Analysis

Explanation:

Cost-benefit analysis is a decision-making technique used to determine whether the benefits of continuing a project outweigh the remaining costs required to complete it. When a project manager evaluates whether the project should continue, this method provides a structured way to compare expected value against ongoing investment. It takes into account financial returns, operational advantages, and strategic benefits and contrasts them with future expenses, resource needs, and potential risks. By analyzing both tangible and intangible outcomes, cost-benefit analysis helps project leaders judge whether the project still provides a positive return on investment. This makes it particularly useful during mid-project evaluations, where the question is not only about progress but also about whether completing the remaining work is justified.

Requirement traceability, in contrast, is a technique used to ensure that every project requirement is linked to a corresponding deliverable and ultimately fulfilled. It supports quality assurance and scope management by verifying that all documented requirements are accounted for throughout the project lifecycle. While this tool is essential for maintaining alignment between deliverables and stakeholder expectations, it does not address questions about economic value or financial justification. Requirement traceability helps the team confirm that the project is building the right product, but it does not determine whether continuing the project makes financial sense, which is the central issue in the given scenario.

Contract negotiation is a process in which buyers and vendors discuss pricing structures, timelines, deliverables, and responsibilities. This activity focuses on establishing agreements that define how external parties will work with the project team. Although negotiation plays a critical role in procurement management, it does not contribute to assessing whether the project should continue. Negotiation may influence cost structures or clarify terms, but it does not evaluate the value being generated relative to remaining expenses. Because the question involves deciding whether continuation is worthwhile, contract negotiation cannot address the required analysis.

Quality inspection involves checking deliverables to ensure that they meet established standards and criteria. It is an important part of quality control, supporting the detection of defects or deviations from expectations. However, examining deliverables for quality compliance does not provide insight into the financial or strategic value of continuing the project. While quality inspection confirms that work meets specifications, it does not answer whether the cost of completing the project is still justified compared to the benefits it will deliver.

Cost-benefit analysis is the correct answer because it directly addresses the core decision of whether the project should move forward based on a balanced comparison of value received and cost remaining.

Question 140 

A project is halfway complete when the sponsor asks for a progress summary highlighting accomplishments, issues, and upcoming milestones. Which document should the project manager provide?

A) Status Report
B) Risk Register
C) Statement of Work
D) Work Breakdown Structure

Answer:  A) Status Report

Explanation:

A status report is a communication document designed to provide a clear, concise summary of the project’s current condition. It usually includes information about work completed, ongoing activities, upcoming milestones, issues that may be affecting progress, and any significant risks that require attention. Sponsors and stakeholders often rely on status reports for regular visibility into the project’s health, allowing them to understand whether the project is on track, behind schedule, or encountering challenges. Because the sponsor in the scenario is specifically asking for a progress summary that highlights accomplishments, issues, and future milestones, the status report is the most appropriate document to deliver this information. It serves as the primary tool for communicating structured project updates.

The risk register, while important, has a much narrower purpose. It focuses on identifying project risks, documenting their probability and impact, and outlining response strategies and ownership. Although some risks may be included within a status report, the risk register itself does not provide a full overview of progress or upcoming milestone achievements. It is not designed to summarize accomplishments or give insight into the overall condition of the project. Instead, it is a management tool used to monitor and track potential threats and opportunities, making it insufficient for delivering the broader summary requested by the sponsor.

The statement of work outlines the overall purpose of the project by describing objectives, deliverables, high-level requirements, and boundaries. It is typically created at the beginning of the project to establish expectations between the project team and the client. However, it does not track ongoing progress or reflect what has been completed or what remains. Because it does not communicate performance, achievements, issues, or updates, it cannot serve as an effective progress summary.

The work breakdown structure divides the project into manageable tasks and deliverables. It is a powerful planning tool that helps organize and define the total scope of work. However, it does not communicate the project’s current state, progress accomplishments, risks, or milestones. It is static once created and therefore cannot provide a progress narrative.

The status report is the correct answer because it delivers the comprehensive, high-level overview of accomplishments, issues, risks, and upcoming milestones that the sponsor specifically requested.