CompTIA PK0-005 Project+ Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 8 Q141-160

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Question 141

Which project document outlines how changes will be requested, evaluated, approved, or rejected?

A) Change Management Plan
B) Scope Statement
C) Quality Management Plan
D) Risk Register

Answer:  A) Change Management Plan

Explanation: 

The Change Management Plan serves as the guiding document for managing modifications within a project. It explains how change requests are submitted, evaluated, analyzed, approved, rejected, and communicated to stakeholders. This ensures that any modification to scope, schedule, cost, or quality is handled in a controlled manner. The Change Management Plan also identifies who has the authority to approve changes and outlines the workflow for documenting and tracking them. Because uncontrolled changes can destabilize a project, the Change Management Plan provides structure, accountability, and consistency, allowing the project to remain aligned with its baseline or adjust methodically where needed.

The Scope Statement outlines what the project will deliver, its boundaries, key objectives, acceptance criteria, assumptions, and constraints. While extremely important for defining what the project includes, it does not describe the procedures for how changes should be handled. It explains the initial scope but not how modifications to scope or other baselines are processed, which is why it cannot serve as a substitute for a change management process.

The Quality Management Plan is concerned with how the project will meet stakeholder expectations for product or service quality. It covers quality metrics, quality assurance procedures, quality control activities, and standards but not how to manage changes to scope or plans. Its purpose is to ensure deliverables are produced according to the required quality level, not to control change requests.

The Risk Register lists risks, their probability, impact, owners, triggers, and response strategies. While risks can lead to the need for changes, the Risk Register itself does not contain procedures for evaluating or approving change requests. It tracks uncertainties but not modifications to the project baselines.

Because the Change Management Plan is the only document that defines how changes are formally reviewed and integrated into the project, it is the correct answer. It ensures the project remains stable and changes are evaluated for their impacts before approval, protecting schedule, scope, cost, quality, and stakeholder expectations.

Question 142 

Which scheduling technique identifies tasks that can delay without affecting the project end date?

A) Float Analysis
B) Crashing
C) Fast Tracking
D) Bottom-Up Estimating

Answer:  A) Float Analysis

Explanation:

Float Analysis calculates how long an activity can be delayed without impacting the project’s final completion date or delaying a successor task. The amount of float helps project managers determine which tasks have scheduling flexibility and which must be closely monitored. Activities on the critical path have zero float, meaning any delay affects the overall schedule. Float Analysis is essential for resource optimization and prioritizing monitoring efforts during execution.

Crashing is a schedule compression technique where additional resources are applied to reduce the duration of activities on the critical path. While it shortens the schedule, it usually increases cost and does not identify how much time an activity can slip. It only accelerates critical tasks rather than evaluating schedule flexibility.

Fast Tracking is another schedule compression technique that involves performing tasks concurrently instead of sequentially. This increases risk because overlapping work can create rework if earlier tasks influence later ones. Like crashing, fast tracking does not determine float or help manage schedule flexibility.

Bottom-Up Estimating involves estimating activity durations or costs by analyzing individual components in detail. This method produces accurate estimates but does not identify which activities can slip or how delays impact the overall project timeline. It is a planning tool rather than a schedule flexibility analysis tool.

Float Analysis is the correct answer because it uniquely identifies how long non-critical tasks can be delayed without affecting the project finish date, enabling informed decision-making about resource reallocation and risk management.

Question 143 

Which phase includes obtaining final sign-off from the customer or sponsor?

A) Closing
B) Executing
C) Planning
D) Initiating

Answer:  A) Closing

Explanation: 

The Closing phase finalizes all activities in a project and includes obtaining formal acceptance from the customer or sponsor. This acceptance confirms that the deliverables meet the agreed-upon requirements and that the project is complete. Closing also includes releasing resources, archiving documents, and documenting lessons learned. Final sign-off is vital because it ensures the organization and stakeholders acknowledge that all contractual requirements and expectations have been fulfilled.

The Executing phase is where the work of the project is performed. Deliverables are developed, teams are coordinated, and resources are used. While deliverable creation occurs here, final sign-off does not happen in this phase. Instead, stakeholders review outputs during execution, but acceptance occurs later.

The Planning phase establishes how the work will be performed by defining scope, creating schedules, estimating costs, and developing various project management plans. While planning helps ensure deliverables meet expectations, it does not involve formal approval of completed work.

The Initiating phase authorizes the project and identifies high-level objectives. It includes creating the project charter and identifying stakeholders. No deliverables have been produced yet, so obtaining sign-off would not make sense during this stage.

Closing is the correct answer because formal acceptance marks the official end of the project and ensures all deliverables have been reviewed and approved by the responsible stakeholders.

Question 144 

What is the primary purpose of a kickoff meeting?

A) Align the team and stakeholders on objectives and expectations
B) Approve the project charter
C) Perform risk analysis
D) Create the schedule baseline

Answer:  A) Align the team and stakeholders on objectives and expectations

Explanation: 

A kickoff meeting is designed to establish a shared understanding of project goals, expectations, roles, responsibilities, and communication protocols among the project team and stakeholders. It introduces the project officially and ensures everyone begins with the same assumptions and objectives. The kickoff meeting fosters alignment, engagement, and clarity regarding how work will proceed. It also builds stakeholder confidence and motivates the team.

Approving the project charter occurs before the kickoff meeting. The charter must be authorized before a project can truly begin, as it formally appoints the project manager and defines the high-level purpose. A kickoff relies on the charter already being approved, so this option cannot be correct.

Performing risk analysis is a detailed planning activity that requires stakeholder input, documentation review, and expert judgment. It is not part of the kickoff meeting, which focuses on alignment rather than analysis. Risk analysis is completed after the kickoff as part of the planning phase.

Creating the schedule baseline also occurs during planning. It involves analyzing dependencies, estimating durations, and organizing the project timeline. This process is too detailed for a kickoff session, which aims at high-level understanding rather than constructing technical baselines.

Thus, the primary purpose of a kickoff meeting is to align all involved parties on objectives and expectations to ensure a successful start to the project.

Question 145 

Which type of contract transfers most cost risk to the buyer?

A) Time and Materials
B) Fixed Price
C) Cost Plus
D) Incentive Fee

Answer:  A) Time and Materials

Explanation: 

A Time and Materials contract charges the buyer based on the actual hours worked and cost of materials used. This type of contract leaves cost risk with the buyer because total expenses depend on how long the work takes and how many resources are needed. If the project takes longer than anticipated, the buyer pays more. Vendors benefit because they are compensated for all effort, making cost control primarily the buyer’s responsibility.

A Fixed Price contract sets a predetermined cost for the work, regardless of how long it takes or how many resources are consumed. Here, the seller bears more cost risk, because if they underestimate the effort required, they still must deliver for the agreed-upon price. Thus, this option transfers less risk to the buyer.

A Cost Plus contract reimburses the seller for allowable costs plus a predetermined fee or percentage for profit. While the buyer carries some cost risk because expenses can increase, the seller is required to justify costs. The risk to the buyer is lower than in Time and Materials because the fee structure is standardized, and costs are typically monitored more closely.

An Incentive Fee contract shares risk between the buyer and seller. The seller may receive bonuses for meeting or exceeding performance targets, and penalties may apply for falling short. This structure distributes risk but does not transfer most risk to the buyer.

Thus, Time and Materials is correct because it exposes the buyer to the greatest uncertainty and financial variability.

Question 146 

Which tool visually organizes project work into a hierarchical structure?

A) Work Breakdown Structure
B) Gantt Chart
C) Risk Matrix
D) Pareto Chart

Answer:  A) Work Breakdown Structure

Explanation: 

A Work Breakdown Structure presents a hierarchical decomposition of project deliverables and work packages into smaller, manageable components. It organizes work visually in a top-down structure, helping the project team understand the scope and how tasks fit together. The WBS is essential for planning, estimating, scheduling, assigning responsibilities, and controlling project scope by breaking large tasks into smaller chunks.

A Gantt Chart displays tasks over time with start dates, end dates, durations, and dependencies. While useful for scheduling, it is not hierarchical and does not decompose work into smaller components; instead, it emphasizes the timing of tasks.

A Risk Matrix categorizes risks based on probability and impact. It is not used to organize work or illustrate deliverable structures. Its function is to help prioritize risks and determine which require the most attention.

A Pareto Chart highlights major contributors to a problem using the 80/20 principle. It is helpful for analyzing issues but has no relation to organizing project work.

The correct answer is the Work Breakdown Structure because it is uniquely designed to break down and visually organize project work into a clear hierarchy.

Question 147 

Which communication method is best for urgent, complex issues requiring immediate clarification?

A) Face-to-face
B) Email
C) Newsletter
D) Status Report

Answer:  A) Face-to-face

Explanation: 

Face-to-face communication is the most effective method for addressing urgent, complex issues because it allows immediate interaction, rapid clarification, and the ability to read body language and tone. When decisions must be made quickly or misunderstandings must be resolved, talking in person provides the fastest and most accurate communication. It minimizes delays and reduces the risk of confusion.

Email is effective for documentation and non-urgent communication but not suitable for sensitive or complex issues that require real-time discussion. Email can be misinterpreted and lacks the emotional cues needed for nuanced understanding. Responses may also be delayed, making it ineffective for urgent matters.

A Newsletter is used for broad communication to a large audience and is not interactive. It conveys information passively and is not appropriate for urgent questions or detailed problem-solving discussions. Newsletters are typically scheduled and do not support immediate response needs.

A Status Report summarizes progress, issues, risks, and achievements. It provides structured information but is not a communication method suited for immediate clarification or decision-making. It does not allow the rapid exchange needed when addressing complex issues urgently.

Face-to-face communication is clearly the best method for urgent, complex situations because it provides immediacy, clarity, collaboration, and reduced risk of miscommunication.

Question 148 

Which cost estimating technique uses historical data from similar projects?

A) Analogous Estimating
B) Parametric Estimating
C) Bottom-Up Estimating
D) Three-Point Estimating

Answer:  A) Analogous Estimating

Explanation: 

Analogous Estimating uses data from previous similar projects to estimate costs or durations for the current project. It is often used early in the project when details are limited. Analogous estimates rely on expert judgment, experience, and historical data, making it quicker but less precise. It is especially useful when projects share similar characteristics, such as size, complexity, and industry.

Parametric Estimating uses mathematical models and statistical relationships between variables. For example, cost may be estimated using cost per unit multiplied by the number of units. It is more accurate than analogous estimating when reliable quantitative data is available.

Bottom-Up Estimating calculates costs by estimating each individual work package or activity and then summing them. While extremely accurate, it is time-consuming and not based primarily on historical project comparisons.

Three-Point Estimating uses optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates to calculate expected durations or costs. It accounts for uncertainty and provides a more balanced estimate but does not rely on previous project data.

Analogous Estimating is the correct answer because it is the only method that explicitly uses historical project data as the basis for estimation.

Question 149 

Which document assigns risk owners and tracks mitigation actions?

A) Risk Register
B) Issue Log
C) Scope Baseline
D) Change Log

Answer:  A) Risk Register

Explanation: 

The Risk Register tracks all identified risks, their probability, impact, response strategies, triggers, and owners. It also monitors mitigation actions and updates the status of risks throughout the project. Risk owners are responsible for implementing response strategies and monitoring risk conditions. Because the Risk Register is updated during the entire project lifecycle, it serves as the central tool for managing uncertainty.

The Issue Log documents active problems that have already occurred and require immediate resolution. Issues are current events, not potential future risks. The Issue Log does not track risk mitigation activities or assign risk ownership.

The Scope Baseline includes the project scope statement, Work Breakdown Structure, and WBS dictionary. Its purpose is to define what work will be done, not to track risks or mitigation efforts.

The Change Log records approved and rejected change requests. It is used to track modifications to scope, schedule, cost, or other project components. It does not identify risk owners or mitigation plans.

The Risk Register is the correct answer because it alone records risk owners, mitigation strategies, and ongoing tracking details.

Question 150 

Which technique reduces cost by removing unnecessary features without reducing functionality?

A) Value Engineering
B) Crashing
C) Fast Tracking
D) SWOT

Answer:  A) Value Engineering

Explanation: 

Value Engineering focuses on optimizing project value by improving efficiency, reducing unnecessary costs, and eliminating non-essential features while maintaining required functionality. It analyzes the relationship between the function of a component and its cost, seeking ways to achieve the same functionality at a lower cost. It is widely used in engineering, construction, and product development projects.

Crashing compresses the schedule by adding additional resources to critical tasks, usually increasing cost. It is focused on time reduction, not cost reduction through feature removal or optimization.

Fast Tracking also compresses schedules by performing tasks in parallel. This approach increases risk and does not reduce cost or evaluate unnecessary features.

A SWOT analysis identifies strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. It is used for planning, strategic thinking, and decision-making. It does not evaluate functions or cost-saving measures.

Value Engineering is the correct answer because it specifically evaluates which features provide value and eliminates unnecessary ones without compromising performance.

Question 151 

Which process determines how project deviations will be corrected?

A) Integrated Change Control
B) Quality Assurance
C) Initiating
D) Procurement

Answer:  A) Integrated Change Control

Explanation:

Option A, Integrated Change Control, is the formal project management process used to evaluate any deviation that arises from the established project baselines, whether those baselines relate to scope, time, or cost. The purpose of this process is to ensure that any requested change or detected deviation is reviewed, analyzed, and either approved or rejected based on its potential impact across the entire project. This process also ensures that corrective or preventive actions are properly documented and communicated. Integrated Change Control provides the mechanism for maintaining alignment between the project plan and the actual execution, guiding project managers on how to remedy differences so that the project remains on track.

Option B, Quality Assurance, focuses on evaluating and improving the processes used to manage and produce project deliverables. It ensures the project team follows established standards and methodologies, but it does not directly address how deviations from baselines should be corrected. While this process contributes to reducing future issues through process improvement, it is not used to correct existing deviations that have already affected cost, scope, or schedule. Quality Assurance maintains consistency but does not govern the implementation of corrective actions or the approval of changes.

Option C, Initiating, involves authorizing the project or a project phase. This process includes developing the project charter, identifying stakeholders, and setting high-level objectives. Although the Initiating process sets direction, authority, and initial expectations, it does not play a role in addressing deviations during execution. Once the project has begun, any deviation discovered would not be corrected by returning to the Initiating phase; instead, the corrections must be performed through structured change control processes.

Option D, Procurement, deals with acquiring goods and services from external vendors. While procurement activities may require change requests, contract adjustments, or corrective measures if issues arise with vendor performance, procurement itself is not responsible for determining how the overall project should correct deviations from baseline performance. Its primary purpose is sourcing, selecting, and managing external resources rather than controlling project-wide changes.

For these reasons, Integrated Change Control is the only process designed specifically to evaluate deviations and determine corrective actions. It ensures that all proposed adjustments undergo a systematic review that considers impacts across all knowledge areas. This keeps the project synchronized with its baselines and ensures that updated plans are approved, communicated, and implemented in a controlled and consistent manner. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Question 152 

Which method identifies potential causes of a problem?

A) Fishbone Diagram
B) MoSCoW
C) Gantt Chart
D) RACI Matrix

Answer:  A) Fishbone Diagram

Explanation:

Option A, the Fishbone Diagram, also known as the Ishikawa or cause-and-effect diagram, is a structured tool used specifically for identifying potential causes of a problem by categorizing them into groups such as materials, methods, people, equipment, or environment. This tool enables teams to brainstorm systematically and visually organize contributing factors that might explain why a particular issue is occurring. The structure of the diagram resembles a fish skeleton, where the head represents the effect or problem, and the bones branching off represent categories of potential causes. Because of this design, the Fishbone Diagram is widely used in root cause analysis to uncover underlying factors rather than simply addressing symptoms.

Option B, MoSCoW, is a prioritization technique used primarily in requirements management. It divides requirements into four categories: Must have, Should have, Could have, and Won’t have. This method helps stakeholders clarify expectations and enables project teams to understand which requirements are essential and which are flexible. While it is extremely useful for scope planning and negotiation, MoSCoW does not identify causes of problems. Instead, it is strictly concerned with determining the relative importance of requirements.

Option C, a Gantt Chart, is a scheduling tool that visually displays activities, durations, timelines, and dependencies. It helps project managers track progress, understand sequencing, and monitor deadlines. Gantt Charts play a major role in schedule management, especially in communicating the timeline to stakeholders. However, they do not analyze problems or causes. Their focus is on time-based planning and execution, not on diagnosing the origins of issues that arise during the project.

Option D, the RACI Matrix, clarifies roles and responsibilities by identifying who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed for each activity. It supports communication, accountability, and clarity in team coordination. Although a RACI Matrix can help prevent organizational confusion that may lead to problems, it is not a tool designed to identify causes of issues. Instead, it is oriented toward defining involvement and decision-making authority.

Therefore, the Fishbone Diagram is the only method from the list specifically intended to identify potential causes of a problem. It gives teams a structured approach to explore multiple contributing factors and visually organize them, making it easier to pinpoint root causes. For this reason, option A is the correct answer.

Question 153 

Which stakeholder has the highest authority over project decisions?

A) Sponsor
B) Team Lead
C) End User
D) Vendor

Answer:  A) Sponsor

Explanation:

Option A, the Sponsor, is the individual or group that authorizes the project, provides financial resources, and holds overarching authority over major project decisions. The sponsor approves project objectives, validates requirements at a high level, and serves as the escalation point for major issues the project manager cannot resolve. They also sign off on major changes, support the project manager in securing resources, and ensure alignment between the project and organizational goals. Because of their role in funding and authorizing the project, sponsors hold the highest decision-making authority.

Option B, the Team Lead, is responsible for supervising team members, assigning tasks, and ensuring timely completion of their work. While team leads may make decisions within their workstream or technical disciplines, they do not have the authority to approve major project scope changes, budget adjustments, or schedule shifts. Their authority is limited to tactical and operational decision-making, often subordinate to the project manager and sponsor.

Option C, the End User, is the individual or group who will eventually use the product, service, or result generated by the project. While end users play an important role in defining requirements and validating deliverables, they do not have overarching decision authority over the project. Their input influences design and functionality, but they cannot authorize major strategic decisions, funding changes, or baseline modifications. End users are important stakeholders, but they do not hold the final say in project governance.

Option D, the Vendor, provides external services, products, or expertise contracted by the organization. Vendors fulfill their contractual obligations, but they cannot influence or control internal project decisions beyond the scope of their contract. They may negotiate terms, timelines, or deliverables as part of procurement agreements, but they cannot dictate the project’s overall direction, budget allocation, or internal strategic choices. Their authority is limited to what the procurement contract specifies.

For these reasons, the Sponsor holds the highest authority over project decisions among the listed stakeholders. They authorize the project, make key financial decisions, approve major changes, and guide the project’s alignment with organizational goals. This makes option A the correct answer.

Question 154 

Which scheduling tool shows task sequences and critical paths?

A) Network Diagram
B) Pareto Chart
C) Scatter Plot
D) Histogram

Answer:  A) Network Diagram

Explanation: 

Option A, the Network Diagram, is a scheduling tool that shows the logical sequence of project activities and the dependencies between them. It visually maps out the relationships among tasks, enabling project managers to identify the sequence in which tasks must be completed and highlight which path determines the minimum project duration, known as the critical path. By analyzing early starts, late starts, floats, and dependencies, network diagrams reveal which activities cannot be delayed without affecting the overall timeline. Because it provides both sequencing and critical path determination, it is the central tool for schedule analysis.

Option B, the Pareto Chart, is a quality management tool based on the Pareto principle (80/20 rule). It displays issues or causes in descending order of frequency, helping teams identify which categories contribute the most to a problem. While it is useful for prioritizing corrective actions in quality improvement efforts, it does not show task sequences or critical paths. Its focus is strictly on analyzing the significance of quality issues rather than scheduling tasks.

Option C, the Scatter Plot, displays two variables on a graph to show whether a relationship or correlation exists between them. This tool helps identify patterns, trends, or associations, such as the relationship between time spent on a task and defect rates. While valuable for analysis and forecasting, scatter plots do not depict project schedules, dependencies, or paths. They examine relationships between variables, not sequences of tasks.

Option D, the Histogram, is a frequency distribution chart showing how often certain data values occur. It is commonly used in quality management to understand variation or distribution of results, such as defect occurrences or processing times. Although histograms provide insights into trends and performance, they do not represent schedule activities or dependencies. They also do not identify critical paths or task sequences.

Given these distinctions, the Network Diagram is the only tool that provides the necessary information to understand activity sequences and identify the critical path. It visually represents the flow of tasks and reveals which activities directly influence the overall project duration. Thus, option A is the correct answer.

Question 155 

What is the primary outcome of lessons-learned sessions?

A) Improved future project performance
B) Change request approvals
C) Funding authorization
D) Vendor selection

Answer:  A) Improved future project performance

Explanation:

Option A, improved future project performance, represents the core purpose of conducting lessons-learned sessions. These sessions are held to capture insights about what worked well, what went wrong, and how processes, communication, and decision-making can be improved. Lessons learned involve documenting successes, identifying failures, and developing best practices that can benefit not only the current project but also future projects within the organization. This institutional learning helps reduce repeated mistakes, strengthen efficiency, and improve overall project outcomes over time.

Option B, change request approvals, is not an outcome of lessons-learned sessions. Change requests go through the Integrated Change Control process, where they are evaluated for cost, schedule, scope, and risk impact. While lessons-learned discussions might reveal that changes were poorly managed or should have been handled differently, they do not approve or reject change requests. Change approval is governed by the change control board or designated authority.

Option C, funding authorization, is also unrelated to lessons-learned activities. Funding decisions are made during project initiation and occasionally during major phase gates when budgets need adjustment. Funding authorization is typically the responsibility of the sponsor or senior management, not the lessons-learned team. Although lessons learned may influence budgeting practices in future projects, they do not authorize funding directly.

Option D, vendor selection, occurs during procurement processes. It involves evaluating proposals, selecting vendors, negotiating contracts, and awarding agreements. Lessons-learned discussions might capture issues related to vendor performance or contract effectiveness, but they do not select vendors themselves. Procurement teams conduct vendor selection using established evaluation criteria.

Therefore, the primary outcome of lessons-learned sessions is a documented set of insights that improve the performance of future projects. These sessions capture knowledge that strengthens organizational maturity and helps teams replicate successful methods while avoiding previously encountered pitfalls. This makes option A the correct answer.

Question 156 

Which method communicates information to large audiences with minimal interaction?

A) Push Communication
B) Pull Communication
C) Interactive Communication
D) Collaborative Tools

Answer:  A) Push Communication

Explanation:

Option A, push communication, refers to a communication method in which information is delivered directly to recipients without requiring them to actively seek it. This method is commonly used when the sender must distribute information to a large audience quickly, consistently, and with very little expectation of dialogue or feedback. Examples of push communication include mass emails, newsletters, memos, posters, and automated notifications. Because the communication flows primarily in one direction, it is effective when stakeholders need to be informed but do not need to participate in discussion or decision making. It is also efficient when the audience is broad, dispersed, or has limited availability for interaction.

Option B, pull communication, is different because it requires the audience to seek out the information themselves. Typical examples include project websites, document repositories, portals, intranet pages, or bulletin boards. Pull communication is ideal when stakeholders need detailed or archival information, or when the content does not require immediate distribution. Because the audience must take action to access the information, this method does not ensure that everyone receives or reviews the message, making it unsuitable for urgent or mandatory communication.

Option C, interactive communication, involves two-way information exchange where both the sender and receiver participate actively. Meetings, video calls, workshops, and real-time discussions are examples of this method. Interactive communication is best when conversation, collaboration, or clarification is necessary. It requires more time, more coordination, and smaller audience sizes to remain effective. This makes it impractical when information must simply be disseminated widely without the need for direct dialogue.

Option D, collaborative tools, include platforms such as shared documents, project management systems, communication boards, and team collaboration applications. These tools enable ongoing participation, contribution, and updates from multiple stakeholders. While collaborative tools support teamwork, they are not designed primarily for one-directional communication to large audiences. Their purpose is to foster shared input, discussion, and co-creation rather than broadcasting information.

When comparing all four options, the method that best meets the requirement of communicating to large audiences with minimal interaction is push communication. It provides a simple, efficient process for distributing information broadly without needing engagement from recipients. The other options either require audience action, involve two-way communication, or are designed for team collaboration rather than mass communication. Therefore, push communication is the correct choice.

Question 157 

Which type of risk response transfers the impact to a third party?

A) Insurance
B) Avoidance
C) Acceptance
D) Mitigation

Answer:  A) Insurance

Explanation:

Option A, insurance, is a classic example of a risk transfer strategy. When an organization purchases insurance, it pays a premium to shift the financial impact of a risk event to an external party, such as an insurance company. The risk may still occur, but the cost of dealing with the consequences is borne by the insurer rather than the project or organization. This approach is used when a risk cannot be fully eliminated, but the project team wants to avoid carrying the financial burden. Other forms of transfer include warranties, performance bonds, and outsourcing elements of high-risk work to specialized vendors.

Option B, avoidance, is a strategy in which the project team eliminates the risk entirely by changing the project plan. This may involve altering scope, modifying requirements, extending timelines, or redesigning processes to remove the condition that creates the risk. Avoidance does not involve shifting responsibility to another party; instead, it seeks to ensure the risk cannot occur. This method is useful when a risk has high impact and the project has flexibility to adjust work in ways that reduce exposure.

Option C, acceptance, means the project team acknowledges the risk and chooses not to take any immediate action. This can be passive, where no steps are taken unless the risk occurs, or active, where contingency reserves or action plans are prepared. Acceptance is appropriate when the risk is low, the cost of responding is too high, or the project team determines that dealing with the risk later is more practical than attempting to address it in advance.

Option D, mitigation, attempts to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk but does not eliminate it or transfer responsibility. Examples include adding extra testing, improving training, or implementing safety measures. Mitigation helps manage risks that can be reduced through planning and proactive action, but the project team still retains responsibility.

Among all the options, only insurance transfers the financial consequences of a risk to a third party. Avoidance removes the risk, acceptance acknowledges it, and mitigation reduces it, but none of these approaches involve shifting responsibility elsewhere. Therefore, insurance is the correct answer.

Question 158 

Which document captures ongoing project problems requiring immediate attention?

A) Issue Log
B) Risk Register
C) Charter
D) Baseline

Answer:  A) Issue Log

Explanation:

Option A, an issue log, is the document used to record ongoing problems that are currently affecting the project and require attention or resolution. Issues are different from risks because they are events that have already occurred, are actively influencing the project, and need management action. An issue log captures details such as the description of the problem, its owner, the status, priority level, and required corrective actions. This document helps ensure transparency and accountability, allowing project managers and stakeholders to track progress on resolving problems that must be addressed promptly to prevent further disruptions.

Option B, the risk register, records uncertain events that may occur in the future and could affect the project either positively or negatively. Risks require monitoring and planning, but they are not yet active problems. The risk register includes risk descriptions, probabilities, impacts, triggers, owners, and response strategies. While risks may develop into issues if they occur, the risk register is not the document that handles ongoing challenges already impacting the project at the present moment.

Option C, the project charter, is a foundational document that authorizes the project and defines objectives, scope, key stakeholders, and high-level requirements. It is created early in the project and serves as a formal agreement between the project sponsor and the project team. The charter does not track problems, risks, tasks, or day-to-day operational details, so it cannot serve as the primary tool for documenting current issues or managing problem resolution.

Option D, the baseline, refers to the approved version of the project plan, which includes scope, schedule, and cost. It is used as a reference point to measure project performance and evaluate deviations. Although a baseline is essential for comparing actual progress to planned targets, it does not record active problems or provide a method for tracking their resolution. It is a measurement tool rather than a problem-tracking document.

When comparing all the options, the document specifically designed to capture active problems requiring immediate corrective action is the issue log. Risks belong in the risk register, initial project details belong in the charter, and planned targets belong in the baseline. Only the issue log fulfills the function described in the question, making it the correct answer.

Question 159 

Which technique estimates activity duration using quantitative data and mathematical relationships?

A) Parametric Estimating
B) Analogous Estimating
C) Qualitative Risk Analysis
D) Benchmarking

Answer:  A) Parametric Estimating

Explanation:

Option A, parametric estimating, uses quantitative models and mathematical relationships to estimate activity durations or costs. This method applies statistical data and unit-based measurements such as cost per square foot, hours per installation, or output per worker. By identifying parameters that reliably predict effort, parametric estimating creates objective, data-driven forecasts. This technique is especially useful when the project has measurable components and historical data is robust enough to produce accurate formulas or productivity rates. Because it relies on numerical relationships, it allows for consistent and defendable estimates.

Option B, analogous estimating, is a top-down technique in which the project team relies on past similar projects to estimate current activity durations. It is faster and requires less data than parametric estimating but is less precise. Analogous estimating is useful in early project phases when detailed information is lacking, but it depends heavily on expert judgment and similarity between past and current projects. It does not use mathematical modeling, making it less accurate than parametric methods for tasks with measurable units.

Option C, qualitative risk analysis, is not an estimating technique at all. Instead, it evaluates risks based on their probability and impact using descriptive scales. This method helps prioritize risks for further response planning but does not predict activity duration, cost, or resource needs. It uses subjective assessments, categories, and ranking tools rather than numerical formulas.

Option D, benchmarking, compares project performance or processes against industry standards, best practices, or similar organizations. This technique helps identify performance gaps and improve efficiency but is not a method used to calculate duration or cost estimates. Benchmarking may inform planning decisions, but it cannot generate mathematical activity duration estimates the way parametric modeling does.

Considering all four options, the only method that uses numerical relationships and measurable data to estimate activity duration is parametric estimating. It involves mathematical formulas and quantitative analysis, making it the correct answer.

Question 160 

Which constraint is most commonly affected when scope increases?

A) Schedule
B) Quality
C) Stakeholders
D) Procurement

Answer:  A) Schedule

Explanation:

Option A, schedule, refers to the time required to complete all project activities. When project scope increases, the amount of work also increases. More tasks, more deliverables, or more requirements naturally require more time unless additional resources are added or productivity improves significantly. Because time is one of the three primary project constraints, any change in scope directly affects the schedule. As scope expands, the duration of activities and the sequencing of tasks may change, causing overall project timelines to shift unless corrective measures are put in place.

Option B, quality, may be influenced indirectly by a scope increase, but it is not the constraint most immediately affected. Quality refers to meeting the project’s defined standards and ensuring deliverables are fit for purpose. When scope increases, quality expectations might change or additional quality checks may be required, but the quality constraint does not change automatically. It will be impacted only if the increased workload pressures the team or forces compromises due to lack of time or budget.

Option C, stakeholders, refers to individuals or groups with interest or influence in the project. While stakeholders may be affected by scope increases, they are not considered a project constraint. Changes in scope may require new stakeholders, more approvals, or additional communications, but stakeholders are not part of the traditional constraints that define project limitations. They influence and participate in the project, but they are not a time, cost, or quality boundary.

Option D, procurement, may experience changes when scope increases because additional resources, materials, or services might be needed. However, procurement is a supporting element rather than a fundamental project constraint. While scope changes can result in increased procurement effort, procurement is not the primary or automatic constraint affected when scope grows.

When comparing the options, the schedule is the most directly and consistently affected constraint when scope increases. More work requires more time, making the schedule the constraint most commonly impacted. Therefore, schedule is the correct answer.