Microsoft SC-200 Microsoft Security Operations Analyst Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 1 Q1-20
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Question 1:
Your organization wants to require MFA for users accessing Microsoft 365 apps from outside the corporate network, but allow seamless access from corporate devices. Which solution should you implement?
A) Conditional Access policy requiring MFA for external access
B) Security Defaults
C) Pass-through Authentication
D) Azure AD B2B collaboration
Answer: A) – Conditional Access policy requiring MFA for external access
Explanation:
Conditional Access policies enable administrators to enforce MFA selectively based on conditions such as network location, device state, and user risk level. Requiring MFA only for external sign-ins reduces security risk while minimizing friction for users on trusted devices.
Option A) is correct because administrators can:
Target all users or specific groups.
Apply conditions based on location (internal vs. external networks).
Require MFA only when users access resources from untrusted networks.
Monitor sign-ins for compliance and auditing.
Option B), Security Defaults, enforces MFA globally for privileged accounts and risky sign-ins, but cannot selectively apply location-based MFA.
Option C), Pass-through Authentication, validates credentials but cannot enforce conditional MFA based on device or location.
Option D), Azure AD B2B collaboration, manages guest accounts but does not enforce location-based MFA for internal users.
For example, a user signing in to Teams from home is challenged for MFA, while a corporate laptop in the office allows seamless access. This approach ensures that authentication requirements adjust based on where the user is connecting from. When a device connects from an external or less secure environment, the additional MFA challenge provides a necessary layer of protection against credential theft and unauthorized access. At the same time, users working inside the corporate network or on trusted, managed devices experience frictionless access, supporting productivity without compromising security.
In conclusion, a Conditional Access policy requiring MFA for external access ensures adaptive, secure authentication by strengthening protection where risk is higher while maintaining a smooth experience in trusted environments.
Question 2:
Your company wants to monitor cloud applications for risky behavior, such as unusual file downloads or external sharing. Which solution should you implement?
A) Azure AD Identity Protection
B) Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS)
C) Microsoft Information Protection
D) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
Answer: B) – Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS)
Explanation:
Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS) is a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) that provides visibility and control over cloud app usage and threats. It is specifically designed to detect risky user behaviors such as unusual file downloads, mass sharing of sensitive data, and logins from unfamiliar locations or devices.
Option B) is correct because MCAS allows administrators to:
Monitor user activity and cloud app usage.
Detect anomalies using machine learning and activity policies.
Enforce session controls, such as blocking downloads or restricting access from unmanaged devices.
Option A), Azure AD Identity Protection, primarily addresses identity-based risks such as compromised credentials, but does not provide session-level monitoring across cloud apps.
Option C), Microsoft Information Protection, focuses on classifying and labeling data but does not monitor user behavior in cloud applications.
Option D), Microsoft Defender for Endpoint, focuses on protecting endpoints rather than monitoring cloud app activity.
For example, if a user downloads hundreds of confidential documents late at night from OneDrive, MCAS can flag this as a risky activity, alert security teams, and block further downloads until verified. By implementing MCAS, organizations gain the ability to protect sensitive data proactively, maintain compliance, and reduce insider and external threats.
Question 3:
Your organization wants to classify and protect emails and documents containing sensitive data such as PII. Which solution should you implement?
A) Microsoft Information Protection (MIP)
B) Azure AD Conditional Access
C) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
D) Microsoft Defender for Office 365
Answer: A) – Microsoft Information Protection (MIP)
Explanation:
Microsoft Information Protection enables organizations to classify, label, and protect sensitive information across Microsoft 365 apps. MIP can automatically detect sensitive information such as PII, financial data, or health records, and apply protective actions like encryption, access restrictions, and auditing.
Option A) is correct because administrators can:
Automatically classify documents and emails based on content.
Apply labels that trigger encryption or restricted access.
Monitor and audit data access to ensure compliance.
Option B), Azure AD Conditional Access, controls access to apps based on user and device conditions, but does not classify or protect content.
Option C), Microsoft Endpoint Manager, manages devices and compliance policies but does not provide document-level classification or protection.
Option D), Microsoft Defender for Office 365, protects email and Office apps from threats but does not automatically classify or label sensitive content.
For example, an HR spreadsheet containing social security numbers can be automatically labeled “Confidential – PII,” encrypted, and restricted from being shared externally. This ensures sensitive information is consistently protected across the organization.
Question 4:
Your security team wants to identify and remediate compromised accounts used in phishing attacks. Which Microsoft Defender for Office 365 feature should be used?
A) Safe Links
B) Safe Attachments
C) Threat Explorer
D) Attack Simulator
Answer: C) – Threat Explorer
Explanation:
Threat Explorer is a feature of Microsoft Defender for Office 365 that allows organizations to investigate, monitor, and remediate email threats in real time. It is designed to detect compromised accounts, phishing campaigns, and malicious email activities.
Option C) is correct because Threat Explorer provides administrators with the ability to:
Search for indicators of compromise across the email environment.
Identify accounts affected by phishing or malware.
Take remediation actions, such as removing malicious emails or forcing password resets.
Option A), Safe Links, protects users from malicious URLs but does not provide investigative capabilities.
Option B), Safe Attachments, scans email attachments for malware but cannot detect compromised accounts or phishing patterns.
Option D), Attack Simulator, is for user training and simulating attacks, not real-time threat detection.
For example, if several users click on a phishing email, Threat Explorer allows administrators to track affected accounts, remove malicious emails, and enforce MFA to prevent further compromise. This improves response times and reduces the potential impact of phishing attacks on the organization.
Question 5:
Your organization wants to prevent users from downloading sensitive data to unmanaged devices while allowing access from compliant devices. Which solution should be implemented?
A) Microsoft Information Protection
B) Conditional Access App Control
C) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
D) Azure AD Identity Protection
Answer: B) – Conditional Access App Control
Explanation:
Conditional Access App Control, integrated with Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS), allows organizations to enforce real-time session policies based on device compliance and user context. It ensures that sensitive data can only be accessed or downloaded from managed, compliant devices while restricting actions on unmanaged devices.
Option B) is correct because administrators can:
Apply session controls to block downloads, copy, or print operations.
Monitor real-time activity and enforce policies for sensitive content.
Apply granular controls per user, device, location, or application.
Option A), Microsoft Information Protection, classifies and protects data but cannot enforce real-time download restrictions based on device state.
Option C), Microsoft Endpoint Manager, manages device compliance but cannot directly control session activity in cloud apps.
Option D), Azure AD Identity Protection, detects identity risks but does not provide session-level data control.
For example, a user accessing SharePoint on a personal laptop may be blocked from downloading confidential files, while the same action on a corporate-managed device proceeds without interruption. This ensures data security while maintaining usability for trusted devices.
Question 6:
Your organization wants to detect risky sign-ins and automatically block access for compromised accounts. Which solution should you implement?
A) Azure AD Identity Protection
B) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
C) Microsoft Information Protection
D) Microsoft Cloud App Security
Answer: A) – Azure AD Identity Protection
Explanation:
Azure AD Identity Protection allows organizations to detect, investigate, and respond to identity-based risks. It provides real-time risk assessment for user accounts and automatically enforces remediation policies.
Option A) is correct because administrators can:
Identify risky sign-ins and compromised accounts.
Require password changes or MFA for high-risk users.
Automatically block or restrict access for detected compromised accounts.
Option B), Microsoft Endpoint Manager, manages devices and compliance policies but does not provide risk detection for user sign-ins.
Option C), Microsoft Information Protection, classifies and protects data but does not monitor or respond to account risk.
Option D), Microsoft Cloud App Security, monitors cloud apps and user activities but does not directly remediate identity risks at the account level.
For example, if a user’s credentials are detected on the dark web or a sign-in occurs from an unusual location, Identity Protection can automatically require an MFA challenge or block access until the risk is mitigated, ensuring that potentially compromised accounts do not cause a security breach.
Question 7:
Your organization wants to simulate phishing attacks to train users and assess their responses. Which Microsoft 365 feature should you use?
A) Threat Explorer
B) Attack Simulator
C) Safe Links
D) Microsoft Cloud App Security
Answer: B) – Attack Simulator
Explanation:
Attack Simulator, part of Microsoft Defender for Office 365, allows security teams to run simulations of phishing, password spray, and other attack types to test user behavior and awareness.
Option B) is correct because administrators can:
Launch simulated phishing campaigns to measure user responses.
Track metrics on which users clicked links or submitted credentials.
Provide follow-up training to improve user security awareness.
Option A), Threat Explorer, is for monitoring and investigating actual threats rather than simulations.
Option C), Safe Links, protects users from malicious URLs in real time but does not simulate attacks.
Option D), Microsoft Cloud App Security, monitors cloud app activity but does not provide phishing simulations.
For example, an organization can send a simulated phishing email to employees and measure who clicks on it. This allows IT teams to identify high-risk users and conduct targeted security training to reduce susceptibility to real phishing attacks.
Question 8:
Your organization wants to enforce conditional access for specific users based on device compliance and location. Which solution should be implemented?
A) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
B) Azure AD Conditional Access
C) Microsoft Cloud App Security
D) Azure AD Identity Protection
Answer: B) – Azure AD Conditional Access
Explanation:
Azure AD Conditional Access allows administrators to create policies that grant or block access to resources based on user, device, location, application, and risk conditions.
Option B) is correct because administrators can:
Require MFA for users logging in from specific locations.
Restrict access to compliant devices only.
Apply granular policies to specific users or groups.
Option A), Microsoft Endpoint Manager, enforces device compliance but does not directly control access to cloud applications.
Option C), Microsoft Cloud App Security, provides session-level monitoring and enforcement but relies on Conditional Access policies for sign-in restrictions.
Option D), Azure AD Identity Protection, focuses on detecting risky sign-ins but does not implement conditional access based on all policy conditions.
For example, a user attempting to access SharePoint from a personal device outside the corporate network could be blocked or required to complete MFA, while users on managed devices within the network have seamless access. This approach ensures security policies are applied dynamically based on risk and compliance.
Question 9:
Your security team wants to monitor and control the sharing of sensitive documents in real time across Microsoft 365 apps. Which solution is appropriate?
A) Microsoft Information Protection
B) Conditional Access App Control
C) Microsoft Defender Antivirus
D) Azure AD Identity Protection
Answer: B) – Conditional Access App Control
Explanation:
Conditional Access App Control, integrated with Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS), enables organizations to monitor user sessions and enforce real-time controls over sensitive data.
Option B) is correct because administrators can:
Monitor document sharing and downloads in real time.
Block or restrict risky actions, such as sharing confidential files externally.
Apply policies based on device compliance, location, or user risk.
Option A), Microsoft Information Protection, classifies and labels data but does not enforce real-time sharing controls.
Option C), Microsoft Defender Antivirus, protects endpoints from malware but does not monitor cloud app activity.
Option D), Azure AD Identity Protection, detects identity risks but does not provide session-level controls.
For example, if a user attempts to share a sensitive file from OneDrive with an external recipient on an unmanaged device, App Control can block the action immediately while allowing the same sharing from a corporate-managed device. This ensures sensitive content remains secure without restricting productivity.
Question 10:
Your organization wants to detect insider threats by identifying abnormal user activities, such as mass file downloads or unusual access patterns. Which solution should be implemented?
A) Microsoft Cloud App Security
B) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
C) Azure AD Identity Protection
D) Microsoft Information Protection
Answer: A) – Microsoft Cloud App Security
Explanation:
Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS) is a CASB that provides visibility and control over user activities in cloud applications. It detects abnormal behavior that could indicate insider threats or policy violations.
Option A) is correct because administrators can:
Set activity policies to detect unusual actions such as mass downloads, file deletions, or external sharing.
Receive alerts and trigger automated remediation workflows.
Correlate user activity across multiple cloud apps for deeper insights.
Option B), Microsoft Endpoint Manager, manages device compliance but does not monitor user cloud activity.
Option C), Azure AD Identity Protection, detects identity risks but does not monitor insider threat activities.
Option D), Microsoft Information Protection, focuses on classifying and protecting data rather than detecting anomalous behavior.
For example, if an employee suddenly downloads hundreds of confidential documents from SharePoint outside normal working hours, MCAS can flag this as suspicious, alert security teams, and apply automated controls to prevent data exfiltration. This allows organizations to detect and mitigate potential insider threats effectively.
Question 11:
Your organization wants to enforce encryption on emails and documents that contain sensitive information, such as financial data or PII. Which solution should you implement?
A) Microsoft Information Protection
B) Azure AD Conditional Access
C) Microsoft Defender Antivirus
D) Microsoft Cloud App Security
Answer: A) – Microsoft Information Protection
Explanation:
Microsoft Information Protection (MIP) enables organizations to classify, label, and protect sensitive data across Microsoft 365 services. It can automatically detect sensitive content and apply encryption to prevent unauthorized access.
Option A) is correct because administrators can:
Automatically classify emails and documents based on content.
Apply labels that trigger encryption or access restrictions.
Microsoft Information Protection provides organizations with the tools to classify, label, and protect sensitive content across Microsoft 365 services and integrated third-party applications. It allows administrators to define policies that automatically identify documents and emails containing sensitive information, such as credit card numbers, social security numbers, personal health information, or intellectual property. Once identified, content can be labeled and automatically protected using encryption, rights management, and access restrictions. This ensures that only authorized users can view, edit, or share the information, both within and outside the organization. The ability to monitor and audit document usage also provides insights into who accessed or attempted to access sensitive content, supporting compliance and regulatory reporting requirements.
Option A, Microsoft Information Protection, is the correct solution because it applies content-level security. It goes beyond simple access control by embedding protections directly into the file or email, ensuring the protection persists even if the content leaves the organization’s network. For example, an email containing credit card numbers can be automatically encrypted and restricted from being forwarded externally. The recipient may only view the content if they are authorized, and any attempt to share or print it without permission can be blocked. This level of protection reduces the risk of accidental data exposure and provides a secure way to handle highly sensitive information in email, SharePoint, OneDrive, and Teams.
Option B, Azure AD Conditional Access, focuses on controlling access to applications and services based on user, device, and risk conditions. While it is critical for enforcing authentication policies, MFA, and session controls, it does not provide encryption or content-level protections. Conditional Access ensures that only authorized users can access a resource, but cannot prevent them from copying, forwarding, or downloading sensitive data once access is granted.
Option C, Microsoft Defender Antivirus, protects endpoints against malware, viruses, and other threats. It safeguards devices but has no functionality to classify, label, or encrypt files based on sensitivity. Antivirus solutions protect the environment from compromise, but do not address the need for persistent data protection.
Option D, Microsoft Cloud App Security, monitors user activity in cloud applications, identifies risky behavior, and can block or alert on suspicious actions. However, it does not apply persistent encryption or rights management to individual documents or emails. While it provides visibility and controls over cloud app usage, content-level protection must be handled by Microsoft Information Protection.
By using Microsoft Information Protection, organizations can enforce consistent policies across platforms, maintain visibility into content access and usage, and ensure that sensitive information remains secure regardless of how it is shared or distributed. This approach supports compliance, reduces the risk of data leaks, and enhances trust in collaboration and communication platforms.
Question 12:
Your organization wants to detect and respond to compromised user credentials that are used for risky sign-ins. Which solution should be implemented?
A) Microsoft Cloud App Security
B) Azure AD Identity Protection
C) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
D) Microsoft Information Protection
Answer: B) – Azure AD Identity Protection
Explanation:
Azure AD Identity Protection detects risky sign-ins and compromised accounts using signals from Microsoft’s threat intelligence and machine learning. It helps organizations prevent unauthorized access by enforcing policies for high-risk accounts.
Azure AD Identity Protection provides advanced detection and remediation capabilities for risky sign-ins and compromised accounts. It leverages Microsoft’s threat intelligence, behavioral analytics, and machine learning to identify unusual login patterns, leaked credentials, impossible travel events, and other indicators of compromise. When a risk is detected, administrators can enforce policies to protect the organization, such as requiring multi-factor authentication, initiating a password reset, or blocking access entirely until the risk is mitigated. Identity Protection continuously evaluates user behavior and access patterns, enabling organizations to reduce the likelihood of account takeover while maintaining operational efficiency.
Option B, Azure AD Identity Protection, is the correct choice because it provides direct capabilities to monitor risky sign-ins and compromised credentials. Administrators can configure risk-based conditional access policies to automatically challenge users when suspicious activity is detected. For example, if a user attempts to log in from a new country shortly after a normal sign-in from their usual location, Identity Protection can classify the sign-in as high risk and require additional verification. Policies can also be set to automatically block access, enforce MFA, or require a password change for accounts flagged as compromised. This automation ensures rapid response to threats, reduces manual intervention, and limits exposure to potential account takeover attacks.
Option A, Microsoft Cloud App Security, focuses primarily on monitoring user activity and cloud application behavior. It provides visibility into file access, unusual downloads, and risky app usage, and can alert administrators when suspicious activity occurs. While MCAS can detect anomalous behavior within applications and enforce automated remediation actions, it does not inherently detect compromised credentials or risky sign-ins at the identity level. For example, it may notice a user downloading large amounts of sensitive data, but it cannot automatically evaluate the risk associated with a leaked password or suspicious login location.
Option C, Microsoft Endpoint Manager, is designed to manage and enforce compliance on devices used to access organizational resources. It ensures devices meet security policies, deploys updates, and maintains configuration compliance. While Endpoint Manager is crucial for device security and reducing the attack surface, it does not analyze login activity, evaluate risk signals, or enforce sign-in restrictions based on compromised credentials. It cannot detect high-risk sign-ins or automatically enforce password resets or MFA challenges in response to suspicious activity.
Option D, Microsoft Information Protection, focuses on protecting sensitive data and ensuring regulatory compliance by applying classifications, labels, and data loss prevention policies. It prevents unauthorized access, sharing, or leakage of content, but it does not monitor authentication behavior, evaluate risky sign-ins, or detect compromised accounts. While it is essential for securing data, it does not provide identity-level threat protection or respond to credential compromise.
In practice, Azure AD Identity Protection integrates seamlessly with conditional access policies to enforce risk-based controls while maintaining usability. For instance, if a user’s credentials appear in a leaked database, the service can automatically flag the account, enforce MFA challenges, and require a password reset before access is restored. This proactive approach prevents potential account takeover, enhances organizational security posture, and aligns with best practices for identity protection and secure access management. By combining detection, automation, and remediation, Identity Protection ensures that threats are mitigated quickly and effectively, reducing risk to the organization while providing a streamlined experience for legitimate users.
Option B) is correct because administrators can:
Monitor risky sign-ins and detect compromised credentials.
Require MFA or password resets for high-risk users.
Automatically block or restrict access based on risk levels.
Option A), Microsoft Cloud App Security, monitors user activity but does not directly detect credential compromise.
Option C), Microsoft Endpoint Manager, manages devices but cannot detect risky sign-ins.
Option D), Microsoft Information Protection, protects content but does not detect identity compromise.
For example, if a user’s credentials appear in a leaked database, Identity Protection can flag the account and require the user to reset their password and perform MFA before access is restored, reducing the risk of account takeover.
Question 13:
Your security team wants to enforce real-time access policies for users accessing Microsoft 365 apps from unmanaged devices. Which solution is most appropriate?
A) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
B) Conditional Access App Control
C) Azure AD Identity Protection
D) Microsoft Defender for Office 365
Answer: B) – Conditional Access App Control
Explanation:
Conditional Access App Control, part of Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS), enables real-time monitoring and enforcement of session-level policies for cloud apps. It allows organizations to restrict risky actions on unmanaged devices while allowing access from compliant devices.
Option B) is correct because administrators can:
Block downloads, copying, or printing of sensitive files from unmanaged devices.
Monitor user activity in real time.
Apply policies based on device compliance, user risk, and location.
Option A), Microsoft Endpoint Manager, manages device compliance but does not enforce session-level access policies.
Option C), Azure AD Identity Protection, detects risky sign-ins but does not enforce app-level controls.
Option D), Microsoft Defender for Office 365, protects email and attachments but does not control access from unmanaged devices.
For example, a user accessing SharePoint from a personal laptop may be restricted from downloading sensitive files, while the same action on a corporate-managed device proceeds without interruption, ensuring secure and controlled access.
Question 14:
Your organization wants to classify data containing sensitive information automatically and apply retention policies in Microsoft 365. Which solution should you implement?
A) Microsoft Information Protection
B) Azure AD Conditional Access
C) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
D) Microsoft Cloud App Security
Answer: A) – Microsoft Information Protection
Explanation:
Microsoft Information Protection (MIP) allows organizations to classify, label, and protect sensitive information automatically. It integrates with retention policies to ensure that data is retained or deleted according to compliance requirements.
Option A) is correct because administrators can:
Automatically apply sensitivity labels to emails and documents.
Trigger encryption or access restrictions based on the content.
Enforce retention or deletion policies for classified content.
Option B), Azure AD Conditional Access, manages access but does not classify or retain content.
Option C), Microsoft Defender for Endpoint, protects endpoints but does not manage document classification or retention.
Option D), Microsoft Cloud App Security, monitors cloud app activity but does not classify or enforce retention policies.
For example, a financial report containing sensitive PII can be automatically labeled, encrypted, and set to be retained for a specific period while preventing unauthorized sharing, ensuring compliance and data protection.
Question 15:
Your organization wants to monitor abnormal user activity in Microsoft 365 to detect potential insider threats, such as unusual file sharing or mass downloads. Which solution is most suitable?
A) Microsoft Cloud App Security
B) Microsoft Information Protection
C) Azure AD Identity Protection
D) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
Answer: A) – Microsoft Cloud App Security
Explanation:
Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS) provides visibility into user activity across cloud apps and detects anomalies that may indicate insider threats or policy violations. It allows administrators to take action to prevent data leaks or unauthorized activity.
Option A) is correct because administrators can:
Detect unusual user activities such as mass downloads or external sharing.
Set policies and alerts for suspicious behavior.
Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS) provides advanced monitoring and automated remediation capabilities for detecting and responding to abnormal user activity across cloud applications. By continuously analyzing user behavior, access patterns, and file interactions, MCAS can identify potential insider threats, data exfiltration attempts, and risky activities that may indicate compromised accounts. Unlike traditional security solutions, MCAS applies behavioral analytics to determine what constitutes abnormal activity based on historical patterns and contextual factors such as time, location, device, and volume of data access.
When abnormal behavior is detected, MCAS enables administrators to take immediate, automated remediation actions. These actions can include alerting security teams, blocking or suspending user sessions, restricting downloads, or enforcing additional verification steps. For instance, if an employee attempts to download an unusually large number of confidential files late at night or from an unfamiliar location, MCAS can automatically block further activity until the event is reviewed. This prevents potential data exfiltration while maintaining operational continuity for legitimate users. Administrators can also configure custom policies to align with organizational risk tolerance, regulatory requirements, or data classification levels, ensuring a tailored and proactive security posture.
Option B, Microsoft Information Protection, focuses on classifying, labeling, and protecting sensitive data both at rest and in transit. While it helps prevent unauthorized data sharing and ensures compliance with regulatory frameworks, it does not provide behavioral monitoring or automated responses to insider threats. It cannot detect abnormal access patterns or unusual user activity in real time.
Option C, Azure AD Identity Protection, evaluates identity risks such as compromised credentials, atypical sign-ins, and risky devices. While this is critical for securing user accounts, it does not offer detailed activity monitoring for insider threats or the ability to remediate unusual actions within cloud applications. Identity Protection focuses primarily on authentication risk rather than ongoing operational behavior.
Option D, Microsoft Endpoint Manager, is responsible for enforcing device compliance, configuration, and management policies. Although it ensures that devices meet security requirements, it does not track or respond to abnormal cloud activity by users. Endpoint Manager provides no insight into user actions, data access, or insider threat detection.
By using MCAS, organizations gain a proactive and automated layer of defense against insider threats and anomalous behavior. It integrates with multiple Microsoft 365 services and third-party cloud applications, providing unified visibility, risk scoring, and response mechanisms. This approach enhances data protection, reduces the likelihood of data breaches, and supports regulatory compliance by ensuring that potentially harmful activity is detected and contained promptly. Automated alerts and remediation improve operational efficiency while maintaining business continuity and minimizing human intervention.
Question 16:
Your organization wants to block access to Microsoft 365 apps from legacy authentication protocols while allowing modern authentication. Which solution should you implement?
A) Azure AD Conditional Access
B) Microsoft Information Protection
C) Microsoft Cloud App Security
D) Microsoft Defender for Office 365
Answer: A) – Azure AD Conditional Access
Explanation:
Azure AD Conditional Access allows organizations to control access to Microsoft 365 apps based on authentication protocols, device compliance, and other conditions. It enables blocking of legacy authentication methods to enhance security.
Option A) is correct because administrators can:
Create policies that block access from legacy authentication protocols.
Require modern authentication for access to cloud apps.
Apply policies selectively to specific users, groups, or applications.
Option B), Microsoft Information Protection, focuses on classifying and protecting data rather than controlling access protocols.
Option C), Microsoft Cloud App Security, monitors sessions but does not enforce protocol-level access policies.
Option D), Microsoft Defender for Office 365, protects against email threats but does not control authentication protocols.
For example, users attempting to connect to Exchange Online using legacy protocols such as IMAP or POP can be blocked automatically, while users accessing via modern OAuth-based authentication continue seamlessly, reducing the risk of credential compromise.
Question 17:
Your organization wants to enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA) only for users with high-risk sign-ins detected by Microsoft 365. Which solution should you implement?
A) Azure AD Conditional Access
B) Security Defaults
C) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
D) Microsoft Information Protection
Answer: A) – Azure AD Conditional Access
Explanation:
Azure AD Conditional Access allows administrators to apply policies based on user sign-in risk levels. This enables requiring MFA for high-risk sign-ins while allowing low-risk sign-ins to proceed normally.
Option A) is correct because administrators can:
Define risk-based conditions to trigger MFA.
Target specific users or groups.
Conditional Access policies in Azure AD allow organizations to enforce adaptive, risk-based controls on user sign-ins by integrating with Azure AD Identity Protection. Identity Protection continuously evaluates multiple risk signals, such as sign-in anomalies, unfamiliar locations, impossible travel, leaked credentials, or suspicious device activity. By leveraging these risk scores, Conditional Access can dynamically require additional verification, such as multi-factor authentication, when a login is deemed risky, while allowing low-risk sign-ins to proceed uninterrupted. This ensures a balance between security and usability, minimizing unnecessary interruptions for users while enforcing strong protection where it matters most.
For example, if an employee attempts to sign in from a new device in a foreign location that is inconsistent with their typical behavior, Conditional Access can enforce an MFA challenge or block access entirely. Conversely, if the same user signs in from a trusted corporate device in a known location, the system may allow access without additional prompts. This adaptive approach reduces friction for legitimate users while ensuring that high-risk events trigger immediate protective measures. Administrators can further refine policies by combining conditions such as user group membership, application sensitivity, device compliance, and network location. This allows organizations to apply stricter controls to external partners or privileged accounts while maintaining a seamless experience for internal, low-risk users.
Option B, Security Defaults, provides baseline security by enforcing MFA for all users or selected privileged accounts. While useful for smaller organizations or those just starting with MFA, Security Defaults lacks the granularity and adaptive capabilities needed for risk-based authentication. It cannot differentiate between low-risk and high-risk sign-ins, nor can it apply conditions based on user type, device compliance, or application sensitivity. As a result, it may create unnecessary friction or fail to enforce stronger protection in risky scenarios.
Option C, Microsoft Endpoint Manager, is primarily focused on device compliance and management. While it can enforce policies related to device health, encryption, and configuration, it does not evaluate user sign-in risk or trigger MFA challenges based on detected anomalies. Similarly, Option D, Microsoft Information Protection, is designed to secure data at rest or in transit, classify sensitive information, and prevent unauthorized data sharing, but it does not provide controls over authentication or adaptive access.
By combining Conditional Access with Azure AD Identity Protection, organizations gain a dynamic, automated approach to authentication security. Administrators can monitor risk trends, enforce policies based on real-time threat intelligence, and adjust controls to reflect evolving security requirements. This integration aligns with best practices for secure access management by reducing risk exposure, improving operational efficiency, and maintaining user productivity. Logging, monitoring, and alerting capabilities provide additional oversight, enabling organizations to detect anomalies, investigate incidents, and comply with regulatory standards while ensuring secure, frictionless access for legitimate users.
Question 18:
Your organization wants to track and investigate potentially compromised email accounts that may have sent phishing emails. Which solution should you use?
A) Threat Explorer
B) Safe Links
C) Microsoft Cloud App Security
D) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
Answer: A) – Threat Explorer
Explanation:
Threat Explorer is a feature of Microsoft Defender for Office 365 that provides real-time visibility into email threats, allowing security teams to investigate compromised accounts and phishing campaigns.
Option A) is correct because administrators can:
Search for suspicious or malicious emails sent from compromised accounts.
Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Threat Explorer is specifically designed to help administrators investigate, analyze, and remediate phishing campaigns, malware attacks, suspicious email activity, and compromised accounts within an organization. When a phishing incident occurs, administrators must quickly determine which users were affected, what messages were delivered or clicked, and whether any accounts have been compromised. Threat Explorer provides the visibility and investigative depth required to carry out this analysis effectively.
With Threat Explorer, administrators can track message flow from the moment it enters the environment, determine whether it was quarantined, delivered, or blocked, and see which users interacted with the message. This level of detail is essential for incident response teams because it allows them to assess how far a phishing campaign has spread and how many users may be at risk. If a compromised account begins sending malicious emails internally, Threat Explorer can display all outbound messages associated with that account, helping security teams quickly identify suspicious behavior. This capability is critical for preventing lateral movement within the organization and stopping the spread of malicious links or attachments before they escalate into larger incidents.
Once impacted messages and users are identified, Threat Explorer allows administrators to take direct remediation actions. These include purging malicious emails from user mailboxes, blocking specific senders or domains, analyzing attachments, and applying advanced filtering rules. In cases where an account appears to be compromised, administrators can initiate additional steps outside of Threat Explorer, such as forcing password resets, initiating multifactor authentication registration, or applying Conditional Access restrictions to prevent further unauthorized access. This integrated remediation workflow supports rapid containment of threats and minimizes the window of exposure.
Option B, Safe Links, is a preventive feature that scans URLs in emails and documents at the time of click, blocking access to malicious sites. While highly valuable for protection, it is not designed for post-incident investigation or for identifying which users were affected after an attack.
Option C, Microsoft Cloud App Security, focuses on monitoring cloud application usage and detecting risky behavior within SaaS environments. Although it provides insight into cloud activity, it does not offer specialized tools for tracing phishing messages or analyzing compromised email accounts.
Option D, Microsoft Endpoint Manager, provides device management, compliance enforcement, and application deployment, but does not focus on email-based threats or phishing investigation.
Threat Explorer’s detective and investigative capabilities make it the correct solution for identifying affected users, analyzing malicious messages, and executing rapid containment measures. Its deep integration with Defender for Office 365, real-time analysis tools, and automated remediation options support a full incident response lifecycle. Administrators benefit from granular visibility, actionable intelligence, and centralized control, enabling them to respond quickly to phishing incidents, reduce risk, and strengthen their overall security posture.
Question 19:
Your organization wants to apply data loss prevention (DLP) policies to emails and documents containing sensitive information. Which solution should you implement?
A) Microsoft Information Protection
B) Azure AD Conditional Access
C) Microsoft Defender for Office 365
D) Microsoft Cloud App Security
Answer: A) – Microsoft Information Protection
Explanation:
Microsoft Information Protection enables organizations to classify and protect sensitive data and enforce DLP policies across Microsoft 365 apps. It detects sensitive content such as PII, financial data, or proprietary information and applies policies to prevent unauthorized sharing.
Option A) is correct because administrators can:
Create DLP policies to detect sensitive information in emails and documents.
Apply actions such as block, encrypt, or restrict access.
Monitor compliance and generate reports for auditing.
Option B), Azure AD Conditional Access, controls access to resources but does not enforce DLP on content.
Option C), Microsoft Defender for Office 365, protects against threats but does not enforce content-level DLP.
Option D), Microsoft Cloud App Security, monitors cloud activity but does not classify or enforce DLP directly within Microsoft 365 apps.
For example, if a user attempts to email a file containing social security numbers outside the organization, DLP policies can automatically block or encrypt the email to prevent accidental data leaks.
Question 20:
Your organization wants to enforce session-level monitoring to block risky actions in cloud applications, such as copying confidential files to unmanaged devices. Which solution should you implement?
A) Conditional Access App Control
B) Microsoft Information Protection
C) Azure AD Identity Protection
D) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
Answer: A) – Conditional Access App Control
Explanation:
Conditional Access App Control, integrated with Microsoft Cloud App Security, enables organizations to monitor and control user sessions in real time. It allows blocking or restricting risky actions such as downloading, copying, or printing sensitive files from unmanaged devices.
Option A) is correct because administrators can:
Apply session policies that restrict risky activities.
Monitor user actions in cloud applications in real time.
Enforce policies based on device compliance, user risk, and location.
Option B), Microsoft Information Protection, classifies and protects content but does not enforce session-level controls.
Option C), Azure AD Identity Protection, detects risky sign-ins but does not control session activities.
Option D), Microsoft Endpoint Manager, manages devices but does not provide session-level enforcement in cloud apps.
For example, if a user attempts to download confidential SharePoint files from a personal device, Conditional Access App Control can block the download, while the same action from a managed corporate device is allowed. This ensures sensitive data remains secure while enabling productivity for trusted devices.
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