CompTIA 220-1202 A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 2 Q21-40

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Q21. A technician is preparing to install Windows 10 on a system that already contains user data on a single partition. The customer wants to keep all files but also wants a refreshed operating system installation to resolve performance issues. Which installation method should the technician choose?

A) Clean install
B) Repair install
C) In-place upgrade
D) Unattended installation

Answer: C) In-place upgrade

Explanation:

An in-place upgrade is the most suitable method for a scenario where the user wants to preserve existing data but still refresh the operating system environment to correct performance deterioration. This method reinstalls Windows while retaining personal files, supported applications, and configurations. It effectively replaces corrupted or malfunctioning system files with new ones, mitigating issues that usually accumulate from software conflicts, registry bloat, problematic updates, or incomplete uninstalls. The process is performed from within the existing Windows environment and overwrites key operating system components without requiring data migration. This method is also much faster than a full clean installation and does not require the time-consuming process of manually backing up user data unless additional precaution is desired.

Option A, the clean install, would wipe out all existing data unless backups are first performed, contradicting the customer’s specific requirement to preserve personal files. Option B, the repair install, is often confused with an in-place upgrade; however, the traditional repair installation involves booting from installation media to fix a non-booting or corrupted installation. With modern versions of Windows, the term repair install is sometimes used in place of an in-place upgrade, but strictly within CompTIA terminology, the in-place upgrade is the method that keeps data intact while reinstalling OS components. Option D, the unattended installation, uses answer files and automated scripts for mass deployment and is typically applied in corporate or enterprise scenarios. It does not inherently guarantee file preservation unless specifically configured for such behavior, and its purpose is automation rather than data retention.

Option A: A clean install is effective when a technician needs to start from scratch with a fresh OS environment, particularly if malware infections or operating system corruption is severe. It formats the target partition before installation. The drawback is that personal files, applications, and settings are erased unless backed up beforehand. Given that the customer explicitly requests file retention, the clean install method is inappropriate.

Option B: A repair installation can help restore functionality when the existing operating system will not boot or certain critical files are damaged. However, modern repair methods commonly rely on system restore, startup repair, or command-line tools rather than reinstalling the OS from scratch. While a repair install may theoretically keep data, the terminology and intent differ from what the question describes. It is not the standard method endorsed by CompTIA for refreshing a functioning system while retaining user files.

Option C: The in-place upgrade is the only method that reinstalls the operating system while specifically preserving personal data. It is initiated within the currently running OS and uses setup files to replace broken components. This aligns with the requirement for data retention and performance improvement in a functioning environment.

Option D: Unattended installation automates deployment using a predefined answer file. It is beneficial for organizations deploying dozens or hundreds of systems. It does not inherently refresh a single user’s OS environment or guarantee the preservation of data unless explicitly scripted. Therefore, it is unrelated to the scenario provided.

Q22. A user reports that their Windows laptop displays “Operating System Not Found” during boot. After entering BIOS, the technician notices that the hard drive is not listed. What is the most likely cause?

A) Corrupted master boot record
B) Loose SATA connection
C) Incorrect boot order
D) Missing system files

Answer: B) Loose SATA connection

Explanation:

When the system BIOS fails to detect the hard drive, the most probable cause is physical connectivity failure. A loose SATA cable or disconnected power lead prevents the motherboard from communicating with the storage device. This results in the BIOS not listing the drive and produces an “Operating System Not Found” message because the system cannot locate a bootable partition. Mechanical laptop drives or removable SSD interfaces can become unseated due to impact, mobility, or gradual wear. Re-seating the drive or tightening its connector usually resolves the problem. Even with modern NVMe drives, improper seating in the M.2 slot can cause identical symptoms.

Option A: MBR corruption produces post-BIOS errors, such as “Bootmgr Missing” or “Invalid Partition Table.” This scenario assumes the BIOS can see the drive, but the partition structure used by the OS loader is damaged. Since the BIOS cannot detect the drive at all, this option does not fit.

Option B: A loose SATA connection interrupts the physical link between the storage device and the system board. BIOS relies on this link to enumerate installed drives. If it cannot detect the device, the system cannot proceed to read boot information. The error message appears not because files are missing but because the drive itself is missing.

Option C: Incorrect boot order might cause the system to attempt booting from an external drive, network cable, or optical media first. However, the boot order does not determine whether the BIOS detects the drives. The internal drive would still appear in the BIOS device listing regardless of boot priority.

Option D: Missing system files happen after BIOS detection and typically generate Windows-specific messages. Boot files such as winload.efi or bootmgr might be corrupted, but the drive remains visible at the hardware level.

Q23. A technician needs to configure a dual-boot environment with Windows 10 and Linux on a workstation. Which requirement must be met before proceeding?

A) A dynamic disk configuration must be used
B) Each OS must have its own dedicated partition
C) Secure Boot must be enabled
D) Windows must be installed after Linux

Answer: B) Each OS must have its own dedicated partition

Explanation:

 Dual-boot environments involve installing two independent operating systems on the same physical machine. To function correctly, each OS must reside on its own partition, ensuring that boot files, system files, and user data remain segregated. Windows generally requires NTFS, while many Linux distributions prefer ext4 or similar file systems. Sharing a partition between the two systems would lead to file system corruption and boot loader conflicts. The boot loader, such as GRUB, references partition locations for each system, so proper separation is essential. Additionally, partitioning prevents accidental overwriting during installation.

Option A: Dynamic disks are primarily Windows-specific. They support features like spanning, striping, and mirroring but are not suitable for shared installations with Linux. Linux typically cannot install onto or boot from dynamic disks, making them inappropriate for dual-boot.

Option B: Dedicated partitions ensure clean separation and avoid file system conflicts. This is the core requirement of any dual-boot environment. It ensures stability, prevents overwriting, and allows each OS to coexist independently while leveraging a unified boot loader.

Option C: Secure Boot restricts the execution of unsigned boot loaders. Some modern Linux distributions support Secure Boot, but many still require disabling it. It is not a mandatory requirement for dual-boot and often complicates rather than enables the installation process.

Option D: Installing Windows second will overwrite the Linux boot loader with the Windows boot manager. This eliminates access to Linux unless repaired later. Installing Windows first allows Linux to detect and incorporate Windows into the GRUB menu.

Q24. A technician needs to migrate user profiles from an old Windows system to a new one during an OS upgrade. Which tool is the most appropriate to automate the transfer of user accounts, settings, and files?

A) Windows Easy Transfer
B) Robocopy
C) User State Migration Tool
D) Disk Cleanup

Answer: C) User State Migration Tool

Explanation

User State Migration Tool (USMT) is the enterprise-grade, command-line-based solution for migrating user profiles, documents, application settings, and system preferences. Unlike consumer-oriented utilities, USMT is designed for mass deployment scenarios, supporting automation through XML configuration files. It enables both scan and load operations to collect user state from one Windows installation and apply it to another. This is especially valuable in corporate environments where technicians need to manage upgrades across many devices with minimal manual intervention.

Option A: Windows Easy Transfer was convenient for home users but is obsolete. It does not function with Windows 10 and lacks advanced control over user-state data.

Option B: Robocopy is excellent for copying directories, mirroring folder structures, and ensuring data integrity. However, it cannot capture Windows user profiles, registry-based settings, or application configuration files.

Option C: USMT includes ScanState and LoadState utilities and provides granular control of profile migration. It is the official Microsoft-recommended tool in enterprise upgrades.

Option D: Disk Cleanup removes temporary files, system caches, and logs. It is unrelated to migration.

Q25. A Windows user reports slow performance, long boot times, and frequent hard drive activity even when no applications are running. In Task Manager, the technician sees extremely high disk usage attributed to a process called Superfetch (SysMain in newer versions). What should the technician do to address the issue?

A) Disable the paging file
B) Turn off Superfetch (SysMain)
C) Increase virtual memory size
D) Replace the NIC drivers

Answer: B) Turn off Superfetch (SysMain)

Explanation:

Superfetch (renamed SysMain) is a Windows service intended to improve performance by preloading frequently used applications into memory. However, on systems with limited resources, failing drives, or heavy background disk activity, it can cause high disk utilization that degrades performance rather than enhancing it. Disabling Superfetch often reduces unnecessary preloading and stabilizes system responsiveness. This is particularly effective for older mechanical drives, which struggle with heavy read/write sequences.

Option A: The paging file is essential for virtual memory operations. Removing it forces all memory operations into RAM. Systems with limited RAM will experience crashes, slowdowns, and poor multitasking capability.

Option B: Disabling Superfetch halts aggressive caching behavior. When the service contributes to sustained high disk usage, turning it off offers immediate relief.

Option C: Increasing virtual memory may reduce memory faults but does not address excessive disk I/O caused by Superfetch.

Option D: NIC drivers affect network performance, not disk performance. There is no connection between network drivers and continuous disk utilization from Superfetch.

 Q26. A user reports that their computer suddenly shows pop-up warnings stating that the system is infected and demanding payment to remove the threat. The technician notices that the alerts do not match the interface of the legitimate antivirus installed on the system. What type of malware is most likely responsible?

A) Ransomware
B) Rogue antivirus
C) Rootkit
D) Spyware

Answer: B) Rogue antivirus

Explanation:

Rogue antivirus refers to a deceptive form of malware that pretends to be legitimate security software while providing fake warnings. These alerts are engineered to scare users into paying for unnecessary or fraudulent services. Rogue antivirus programs commonly mimic the look of authentic antivirus tools, but their icons, interface styling, and warning messages exhibit inconsistencies. The key indicator in this scenario is that the pop-ups do not match the genuine antivirus software installed on the system. The demands for payment and urgent threat notifications point toward rogue antivirus rather than other malware categories. These scams exploit user fear, triggering rash decisions that lead to financial loss or further infection. Rogue antivirus often arrives through malicious websites, bundled installers, or misleading advertisements. Once installed, it may modify startup entries, block real security tools, or redirect the user to fake support sites.

Option A: Ransomware’s intent is to render data inaccessible until payment is made. It does not masquerade as security software or produce constant fake scanning alerts. Its symptoms are severe file encryption or a locked desktop.

Option B: Rogue antivirus matches the description perfectly. It pretends to detect infections, produces fake scan results, and demands payment. The interface discrepancy is the strongest evidence.

Option C: Rootkits are stealth-oriented malware used to hide other infections, alter system processes, or embed themselves within system files. They rarely present graphical alerts.

Option D: Spyware silently monitors browsing habits, keystrokes, and user data. It does not impersonate antivirus tools or request money through pop-ups.

Q27. A technician notices that multiple computers on the network are attempting to contact unfamiliar IP addresses at random intervals. The systems are running slowly, and network traffic appears unusually high. What type of malware infection is most consistent with these symptoms?

A) Botnet
B) Worm
C) Trojan
D) Logic bomb

Answer: A) Botnet

Explanation:

A botnet refers to a group of compromised machines controlled remotely by a command-and-control server. When a system becomes part of a botnet, it may send periodic requests to external servers, perform distributed tasks, or participate in attacks such as DDoS traffic floods. The critical signs in this scenario include multiple machines contacting unfamiliar IP addresses and the sudden spike in network traffic. These indicators reflect remote coordination. Botnet infections often spread through phishing emails, exploit kits, or trojanized downloads. Once activated, the infected hosts silently await commands and consume resources, which explains system slowdowns. Large numbers of outbound connections at odd intervals suggest that the machines are receiving instructions or exfiltrating data.

Option A: Botnets create exactly the behavior described. Machines communicate with external controllers, cause high resource usage, and operate without the user’s awareness. This aligns with all listed symptoms.

Option B: Worms cause rapid spreading and bandwidth overload but do not necessarily maintain ongoing communication with unknown IP addresses, which is the defining feature of botnets.

Option C: Trojans enable unauthorized access or install additional payloads. While they may create outbound traffic, they do not typically coordinate multiple infected machines unless they act as a botnet component.

Option D: Logic bombs operate based on a programmed condition or a specific date. They do not create persistent outbound connections.

Q28. A user reports that their browser repeatedly opens unwanted tabs and redirects to advertising pages whenever they try to access normal websites. The technician finds several suspicious browser extensions installed. What kind of threat is most likely responsible

A) Keylogger
B) Adware
C) Rootkit
D) Backdoor

Answer: B) Adware

Explanation:

Adware specializes in presenting users with unwanted advertisements, redirections, and intrusive pop-ups. The hallmark of adware infections is unsolicited browser behavior involving forced navigation to commercial or unsafe sites. The presence of suspicious browser extensions reinforces the likelihood of adware, as such extensions often inject advertising scripts or modify Chrome, Edge, or Firefox settings. Adware thrives by generating revenue for its creators through click-through activity or forced impressions. It may change default search engines, create pop-ups, cause browser slowdowns, or redirect queries through advertising networks. Adware often installs silently via bundled installers or deceptive downloads.

Option A: Keyloggers are stealthy and are not designed to manipulate browser behavior. Their goal is credential harvesting, not advertising redirection.

Option B: Adware directly aligns with all symptoms. Forced tabs, unwanted redirects, and intrusive advertisements are defining traits.

Option C: Rootkits conceal infections from the OS, but they do not typically manifest through browser ads.

Option D: Backdoors enable remote control and malicious access. They do not affect browsing in this manner.

Q29. A technician discovers that a user’s workstation has unauthorized remote administration software installed. The user states they never installed or authorized such a tool. Which type of threat does this most likely represent?

A) RAT
B) Worm
C) Trojan
D) SQL injection

Answer: A) RAT

Explanation:

A Remote Access Trojan (RAT) is a malicious tool that grants attackers stealthy, unauthorized remote control over a victim’s computer. Unlike legitimate remote administration tools, RATs install themselves silently, often bundled with other downloads or delivered via trojans. Once active, they allow attackers to browse files, capture screenshots, execute programs, log keystrokes, and manipulate system settings. The essential detail in the scenario is that unauthorized remote administration software is installed without user consent. This aligns perfectly with RAT behavior, which mimics legitimate tools while enabling full control from an attacker.

Option A: RAT infections involve hidden remote-control programs exactly like those described in the scenario. Their installation without user knowledge is their defining characteristic.

Option B: Worms focus on replication, not unauthorized remote access tools.

Option C: Trojans hide inside seemingly safe downloads, but unless specifically functioning as a RAT, they do not match the symptoms. Trojans may deliver RATs, but the correct classification of the installed tool remains RAT.

Option D: SQL injection targets databases, not desktop systems.

Q30. A user suspects their mobile device is infected with malware because applications are crashing, battery life drains quickly, and data usage is unusually high. Which security best practice should the technician recommend first?

A) Disable screen lock
B) Factory reset the device
C) Install apps only from trusted stores
D) Enable developer mode

Answer: C) Install apps only from trusted stores

Explanation:

 Installing apps from trusted stores is the most appropriate initial recommendation because many mobile infections originate from sideloaded apps, unverified APKs, or malicious third-party stores. Trusted platforms such as Google Play or Apple’s App Store implement rigorous screening processes that significantly reduce malicious content. Encouraging users to download apps exclusively from verified sources prevents future infections. While the device may already be compromised, this best practice is forward-looking and aligns with recognized mobile security guidelines. High battery drain, unstable apps, and abnormal data usage indicate malicious background processes, often introduced through untrusted app sources. Reinforcing proper installation habits is essential for preventing recurrence.

Option A: Removing screen locks weakens device security. It does nothing to mitigate malware or prevent future infections.

Option B: Factory reset is a last resort after confirming malware. It is powerful but not the first recommended step for general best practice.

Option C: Limiting installations to trusted stores is the most relevant initial guideline. It closes the primary entry point for mobile malware.

Option D: Developer mode increases exposure by enabling debugging tools and installation from unknown sources.

Q31. A Windows user reports that after installing a new third-party application, the system frequently freezes and becomes unresponsive. Task Manager shows the CPU usage at 100% with the new application consuming most of the resources. What is the BEST initial troubleshooting step?

A) Remove the application from Startup programs
B) Replace the system’s CPU
C) Reinstall Windows
D) Disable all Windows services

Answer: A) Remove the application from Startup programs

Explanation:

When a Windows system begins freezing after installing a specific third-party program, the first step is to isolate that software’s impact on system performance. Since the application is consuming excessive CPU resources, disabling it from Startup prevents it from launching automatically. This allows the technician to determine whether the application is responsible for the resource spike without fully removing it or making system-wide changes. Startup management is a safe, reversible, and non-destructive step that fits the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology. By preventing the app from loading at boot, the technician can reboot the device and observe whether system stability improves. If performance normalizes after disabling startup entry, the issue is isolated to the installed application or its configuration.

Option A: Removing the app from Startup focuses directly on the newly introduced variable. It is unobtrusive, quick to apply, and safe. It preserves the environment while helping determine if the new software is causing the freeze. This aligns with first-steps troubleshooting methodology.

Option B: Replacing the CPU is not rational given the system worked properly before installing the new application. Hardware replacement is only considered for hardware faults, not software-related slowdowns.

Option C: Reinstalling Windows would resolve the issue but is excessive at this stage. It involves data backup, application reinstallation, and reconfiguration. It should never be the first response to a single misbehaving application.

Option D: Disabling all Windows services disrupts networking, printing, security, and system functions. It is neither diagnostic nor safe and would likely cause more severe issues.

Q32. A user cannot connect to a company network resource using a mapped drive. The drive shows a red X symbol in File Explorer. Other network functions work normally. What is the MOST likely cause?

A) Incorrect DNS server address
B) The mapped drive credentials are invalid or expired
C) The user’s hard drive is failing
D) A corrupted Windows installation

Answer: B) The mapped drive credentials are invalid or expired

Explanation:

A red X on a mapped network drive typically indicates that Windows attempted to authenticate to the network share but was unable to maintain the connection. This often stems from expired or incorrect credentials stored in the Credential Manager. When the drive was originally mapped, the system might have used a username or password that has since changed due to password updates or domain policies. Although the user can still access other network resources, the specific share requires valid credentials. Once expired, Windows displays the red X but may reconnect once the user manually re-enters the correct username and password. This behavior aligns closely with login policies in corporate environments where periodic password changes are enforced.

Option B: Credential failure is the classic cause. When passwords are changed, mapped drive authentication breaks until credentials are updated.

Option A: DNS problems would also affect websites, server names, and network resolution. The user reports normal network access, making this unlikely.

Option C: Hard drive failure causes file corruption, slow performance, or failure to boot—not network resource issues.

Option D: A corrupted OS leads to crashes, missing files, and inconsistent behavior, not specifically a red X on a mapped drive.

Q33. A user’s workstation freezes randomly throughout the day. Event Viewer logs show several application errors and memory faults. Which troubleshooting step should the technician perform FIRST?

A) Replace the RAM immediately
B) Run memory diagnostics to verify RAM integrity
C) Update the BIOS
D) Reinstall all affected applications

Answer: B) Run memory diagnostics to verify RAM integrity

Explanation:

When application errors and memory faults appear in Event Viewer, the logical first step is to test the memory modules using Windows Memory Diagnostic or a third-party tool. Memory faults may stem from faulty RAM, mismatched modules, overheating, or improper seating. A diagnostic tool performs controlled tests that detect bit errors, latency issues, and stability problems. This step follows the troubleshooting methodology: identify the problem, hypothesize the cause, test the hypothesis, and take corrective action. Running diagnostics is non-destructive and requires no hardware replacement until faults are confirmed. If memory tests show errors, replacing the RAM becomes justified. If the RAM passes, the technician can investigate software, drivers, or thermal issues.

Option B: Running diagnostics is safe, logical, and provides evidence-based confirmation before replacing components.

Option A: Replacing hardware prematurely can waste time and resources if the issue is caused by software, overheating, or driver conflicts instead.

Option C: BIOS updates should not be attempted unless necessary; failed updates can render a system unbootable.

Option D: Reinstalling applications does not resolve underlying memory errors and is unrelated to the Event Viewer logs.

Q34. A user reports that after installing a new graphics-intensive program, their system frequently crashes with a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) showing VIDEO_TDR_FAILURE. What is the MOST likely cause?

A) Faulty network adapter
B) Outdated or corrupted graphics drivers
C) Insufficient RAM
D) Incorrect keyboard drivers

Answer: B) Outdated or corrupted graphics drivers

Explanation:

The VIDEO_TDR_FAILURE message specifically relates to Timeout Detection and Recovery (TDR) errors in the graphics subsystem. Windows uses TDR to reset a GPU that becomes unresponsive for too long. When the GPU fails to recover, a BSOD occurs. This is commonly caused by corrupt, outdated, or incompatible graphics drivers. Installing a new graphics-intensive application places greater demand on the GPU, which exacerbates pre-existing driver faults. Updating, reinstalling, or rolling back the GPU drivers often resolves the issue. Sometimes system crashes occur when the driver fails to communicate properly with the operating system or hardware.

Option B: GPU drivers are directly tied to the VIDEO_TDR_FAILURE BSOD code. Updating or reinstalling the graphics driver resolves the vast majority of such errors.

Option A: Network adapter failures produce network connectivity issues, not GPU-related blue screens.

Option C: While RAM shortages can crash applications, they do not generate GPU timeout errors.

Option D: Keyboard drivers have no connection to GPU operations and cannot cause TDR failures.

Q35. A user complains that their computer takes an extremely long time to log into their Windows profile. Once logged in, everything works normally. What is the MOST likely cause?

A) Corrupted user profile
B) Faulty power supply
C) Failed CPU fan
D) Incorrect monitor resolution

Answer: A) Corrupted user profile

Explanation:

Slow logins combined with normal performance after entering the desktop are classic symptoms of a corrupted user profile. Windows profiles contain settings, preferences, registry entries, and application data. When damage occurs—often due to abrupt shutdowns, malware, or storage issues—the login process struggles to load the profile correctly. This delay may include extended periods stuck at “Preparing Windows” or “Welcome” screens. Once the system eventually loads the damaged profile, desktop performance becomes relatively normal because the core operating system itself is not compromised. Creating a new profile and migrating data typically resolves the issue.

Option A: Corrupted profiles delay login because Windows must attempt to load damaged configuration data. After login, the system behaves normally.

Option B: Power supply issues cause boot failures or shutdowns, not long login times.

Option C: CPU fan failures cause overheating, thermal throttling, or shutdowns, not profile loading delays.

Option D: Display resolution misconfiguration has no connection to login processes.

Q36

A technician is preparing company laptops for employees who frequently travel and connect to public Wi-Fi networks. Management wants to ensure that all devices follow standardized procedures, maintain compliance, and reduce the risk of accidental security violations. Which type of documentation should the technician rely on to guide employees in day-to-day actions

A) Asset management report
B) Standard operating procedure
C) Network topology map
D) Change-request form

Answer: B) Standard operating procedure

Explanation:

Option B A standard operating procedure, commonly known as an SOP, is created to establish a clear, consistent method for performing tasks in a repeatable and predictable manner. When employees travel frequently and use public wireless networks, there is a heightened risk of unsafe behaviors such as connecting to unsecured hotspots, bypassing VPN requirements, disabling firewalls, or missing essential update routines. An SOP directly addresses this by offering step-by-step guidance that informs employees what to do and how to do it in a standard manner. This is essential in operational procedures because its purpose is to reduce liability, improve security, maintain compliance, and ensure that even non-technical employees can follow safe practices. SOPs also assist technicians by giving them a formal reference when explaining required behavior, and they support audits by demonstrating that standardized instructions were provided to staff. For organizations concerned about operational governance, consistent security hygiene, and uniform device configuration, SOP documents are indispensable. They help avoid ambiguity by creating predictable procedures instead of leaving employees to rely on inconsistent personal judgment.

Option A is incorrect because asset management reports track devices, serial numbers, ownership information, warranty status, and sometimes hardware configurations, but they do not provide staff with behavioral guidance. Although asset reports help technicians manage inventories, they do not instruct employees on how to operate devices safely, nor do they outline public Wi-Fi procedures.

Option C is incorrect because a network topology map is a diagram that shows how network devices interconnect. It includes routers, switches, firewalls, and other infrastructure components. Though topology maps help IT teams visualize architecture and troubleshoot network paths, they have no relevance to employee behavior or travel guidelines, nor do they explain how users should conduct themselves on public networks.

Option D is incorrect because a change-request form is part of the change-management process. It is used when modifying configurations, updating systems, or deploying new technology. These forms provide documentation for approvals, risk evaluations, and implementation planning. They are critical in controlling unapproved changes but do not serve the purpose of guiding daily user actions. A traveling employee connecting to Wi-Fi networks does not submit change-request forms for normal usage.

Thus, the only option designed to inform users about daily expectations and proper procedures is the standard operating procedure.

Q37.

 A company recently implemented mandatory backup procedures for all workstation users. The IT department needs to train employees on what types of data must be backed up, how frequently the process should be performed, and what steps must be followed when restoring files. Which type of documentation would best support this training effort?

A) Acceptable use policy
B) Backup policy
C) Disaster recovery plan
D) Chain of custody form

Answer: B) Backup policy

Explanation:

Option B A backup policy provides a formal outline of requirements and expectations related to company data protection. When employees are responsible for backing up workstations, the policy details what data categories must be preserved, how often backups must occur, what tools or storage systems must be used, and how restorations are handled. Such a policy is essential because it standardizes behavior across the company. Without it, employees will perform backups inconsistently, leaving critical data at risk. A well-designed backup policy also explains retention periods, encryption requirements, storage locations, and responsibilities. This helps ensure compliance, reduces data-loss incidents, and supports continuity efforts. It is also a component of operational procedures because regular backups safeguard organizations from accidental deletion, corruption, ransomware, and hardware failures. Training employees becomes much easier when the policy offers specific guidance that can be referenced in manuals, workshops, or onboarding events.

Option A is incorrect because an acceptable use policy focuses on the proper and improper uses of company equipment. It may discuss prohibited behaviors such as accessing inappropriate websites, installing unauthorized applications, or misusing network resources. While important, it does not define backup procedures or restoration workflows.

Option C is incorrect because a disaster recovery plan is a higher-level organizational document used when catastrophic events occur, such as cyberattacks, natural disasters, or large-scale outages. Although backups play a role in disaster recovery, the DRP covers many broader concepts including failover sites, emergency communication, business-impact analysis, and recovery time objectives. It does not specify what everyday users must back up on their workstations.

Option D is incorrect because a chain-of-custody form is required when handling evidence during investigations. It documents who accessed an item, at what time, and for what purpose. It is essential for legal processes, forensic investigations, or law-enforcement collaboration, but irrelevant to routine backup training.

The backup policy is the only document that directly teaches employees how and when to back up data, making it the correct choice.

Q38.

A technician is tasked with presenting proper documentation procedures to new hires. One topic involves recording every step taken while troubleshooting and noting the final solution used. Which type of documentation is the technician describing?

A) Incident documentation
B) Workstation baseline
C) Service-level agreement
D) Regulatory compliance report

Answer: A) Incident documentation

Explanation:

Option A  Incident documentation refers to the detailed recording of troubleshooting steps, observed symptoms, attempted solutions, and final resolutions used during an IT support event. When technicians record this information, the organization benefits in several ways: knowledge retention increases, future troubleshooting becomes faster, recurring issues can be analyzed, and historical records assist audits. It is also critical from an operational-procedures viewpoint because documenting incidents ensures transparency and supports quality assurance. When new hires learn how to document an incident properly, they understand the importance of clear communication, accountability, and accurate reporting. This documentation often includes timestamps, device details, user reports, diagnostic steps, conclusions, and recommendations for avoiding the issue in the future. A well-maintained incident log creates a repository of institutional knowledge that enriches the help-desk environment and supports long-term service improvements.

Option B is incorrect because a workstation baseline describes the standard configuration for devices in an organization. Baselines define OS versions, installed applications, security settings, and performance expectations. They do not include troubleshooting steps or the solutions applied during incidents.

Option C is incorrect because a service-level agreement is a contract between service providers and clients that outlines expected response times, availability guarantees, and performance commitments. It does not track troubleshooting actions or store internal incident data.

Option D is incorrect because regulatory compliance reports ensure that an organization meets required legal or industry standards. These reports might involve security controls, privacy requirements, or environmental regulations, but they do not describe step-by-step technical troubleshooting.

Therefore, the type of documentation that captures detailed troubleshooting actions is incident documentation.

Q39.

 A help-desk technician resolves a recurring printer issue at a branch office. Management now wants the technician to update documentation so that other technicians can resolve the issue more quickly in the future. Which documentation should be updated?

A) Knowledge base article
B) End-user license agreement
C) System image file
D) Safety data sheet

Answer: A) Knowledge base article

Explanation:

Option A  knowledge base article is written for technicians and sometimes for end users to provide clear, repeatable instructions on how to resolve known issues. When a recurring printer problem has finally been solved, updating the knowledge base ensures that other technicians can reference the exact steps, symptoms, and corrective actions. This improves efficiency, reduces downtime, and eliminates the need to reinvent solutions. Knowledge bases often include screenshots, procedure outlines, diagnostic methods, and notes about variations or exceptions. They serve as a living repository of organizational troubleshooting experience. By updating the KB article, the technician ensures that institutional learning continues and that support teams remain aligned in their processes. This is a fundamental part of operational procedures because documenting solutions strengthens consistency across the IT department.

Option B is incorrect because an end-user license agreement is a legal contract between a software vendor and the customer. It governs usage rights, limitations, and obligations but does not explain printer troubleshooting or any technical solutions.

Option C is incorrect because a system image file contains the saved state of an operating system or workstation build. While images are helpful for restoring configurations or deploying new systems, they do not function as a location for documenting troubleshooting solutions.

Option D is incorrect because a safety data sheet provides chemical safety information for substances used in workplace environments. It is entirely unrelated to IT troubleshooting.

Thus, the correct documentation for sharing a repeatable solution is the knowledge base article.

Q40.

A technician must present a detailed summary of tasks performed during a recent IT maintenance window, including patches installed, devices affected, issues encountered, and the final status of all systems. Which document should the technician prepare?

A) Post-implementation report
B) Master service catalog
C) Security awareness memo
D) Environmental impact assessment

Answer: A) Post-implementation report

 Explanation:

Option  A post-implementation report is created after completing a scheduled change, update, or maintenance event. It includes details about what actions were taken, what devices were updated, whether the change succeeded, any unexpected issues, and any follow-up tasks that remain. This is essential for operational procedures because it ensures accountability, maintains historical records, and provides transparency for management and audit teams. When technicians document patch installations and maintenance outcomes, they create a reliable reference for future planning. It also allows the organization to assess whether the maintenance achieved its intended goals and whether additional steps are necessary to prevent future complications.

Option B is incorrect because a master service catalog lists the services available to internal or external customers. It does not summarize maintenance tasks or describe patch outcomes.

Option C is incorrect because a security awareness memo is used to communicate best practices or reminders to employees regarding security behavior. It does not explain technical maintenance procedures.

Option D is incorrect because an environmental impact assessment evaluates ecological consequences of physical projects, not IT maintenance activities.

Therefore, the proper document for summarizing maintenance window activities is the post-implementation report.