Isaca CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 8 Q 141- 160
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Question 141
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that user accounts are not disabled immediately after employees leave the organization. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience accessing systems
B) Former employees may retain access, potentially leading to unauthorized activity or data breaches
C) IT staff may spend more time managing accounts
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Former employees retaining access, potentially leading to unauthorized activity or data breaches, is the most significant risk when user accounts are not disabled immediately after separation. User account management is a critical control to enforce access restrictions and prevent unauthorized access. Active accounts of former employees create vulnerabilities that may be exploited maliciously or unintentionally.
A) Minor inconvenience for users is operational. While prompt account deactivation may slightly affect administrative workflows, this is negligible compared to the security implications of retained access.
B) Unauthorized access by former employees represents a direct threat to confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Auditors review account management policies to ensure that user accounts are disabled or removed promptly upon employee termination or role changes. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, HIPAA, and SOX require effective user lifecycle management to maintain security and compliance. Retained access increases the risk of data exfiltration, system manipulation, fraudulent activity, and reputational damage. Unmonitored accounts can be exploited by former employees or attackers leveraging dormant credentials, potentially compromising sensitive information, financial data, or intellectual property. Effective controls include automated deactivation workflows, periodic access reviews, and reconciliation with HR records to ensure alignment between employment status and system access. Failure to enforce timely account deactivation undermines access control policies, weakens internal security posture, and may lead to regulatory penalties if breaches occur. Organizations that neglect this control face elevated risk from both insider threats and external actors using dormant credentials to compromise systems.
C) IT staff spending more time managing accounts is operational. While administrative work may increase, the critical risk remains unauthorized access due to active accounts of former employees.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Performance is minimally impacted, whereas the main concern is security exposure from dormant accounts.
Timely disabling of user accounts after employee departure is essential for preventing unauthorized access and maintaining compliance. The most significant risk is that former employees may retain access, potentially leading to unauthorized activity or data breaches.
Question 142
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that incident response plans are not tested periodically. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience during testing
B) Incident response procedures may fail during actual incidents, increasing operational disruption and data loss
C) IT staff may spend more time responding to incidents
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Incident response procedures failing during actual incidents, increasing operational disruption and data loss, is the most significant risk when incident response plans are not tested periodically. Incident response is essential for identifying, containing, and mitigating security incidents effectively. Untested plans may not account for real-world scenarios or coordination challenges.
A) Minor inconvenience during testing is operational. While simulation exercises may temporarily affect staff or systems, this is negligible compared to the risk of plan failure during a real incident.
B) Failure during actual incidents represents a direct threat to availability, integrity, and continuity. Auditors review incident response plans, testing schedules, and scenario simulations to ensure that procedures are effective and actionable. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, NIST, PCI DSS, and HIPAA require periodic testing of incident response procedures to ensure preparedness and minimize the impact of security events. Without testing, response plans may lack clarity on roles, communication, escalation procedures, or technical steps for containment and recovery. Delays or mistakes during incidents can result in extended system downtime, data breaches, or financial losses. Testing identifies gaps in coordination, resource availability, and technical procedures, allowing organizations to refine and strengthen response capabilities. Exercises such as tabletop scenarios, simulated attacks, and recovery drills ensure that personnel understand responsibilities, communication channels, and decision-making processes. Neglecting periodic testing increases the likelihood of ineffective incident handling, prolonged exposure to threats, and regulatory non-compliance. Organizations must continuously review, update, and test incident response plans to maintain operational resilience and reduce the potential impact of security incidents.
C) IT staff spending more time responding to incidents is operational. While incident handling requires effort, the critical risk arises from plan ineffectiveness during actual events.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Performance is minimally affected, whereas the main concern is operational resilience and response effectiveness.
Periodic testing of incident response plans is essential for ensuring organizational readiness and minimizing incident impact. The most significant risk is that procedures may fail during actual incidents, increasing operational disruption and data loss.
Question 143
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that antivirus software is not updated regularly on endpoints. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience
B) Endpoints may be infected by malware, resulting in data loss, system compromise, or propagation across the network
C) IT staff may spend more time troubleshooting infections
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Endpoints being infected by malware, resulting in data loss, system compromise, or propagation across the network, is the most significant risk when antivirus software is not updated regularly. Antivirus updates provide the latest virus definitions, enabling detection and prevention of emerging threats.
A) Minor inconvenience for users is operational. While antivirus updates may occasionally affect performance, this is negligible compared to the risk of malware infection.
B) Malware infection represents a direct threat to confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Auditors assess endpoint protection measures, update procedures, and compliance with organizational security policies. Without regular updates, antivirus software may fail to detect newly emerging malware, ransomware, trojans, or spyware. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, NIST, and HIPAA emphasize endpoint protection and malware defense as critical controls. Infected endpoints may be used as a launchpad for lateral movement, data exfiltration, or ransomware propagation. Timely antivirus updates are essential for maintaining the effectiveness of detection engines, heuristic analysis, and signature-based defenses. Failure to update endpoints increases vulnerability, reduces detection capability, and undermines overall network security posture. Organizations must implement automated updates, monitoring, and reporting to ensure consistent endpoint protection. Neglecting this control exposes systems to cyberattacks, operational disruption, financial loss, and reputational damage.
C) IT staff spending more time troubleshooting infections is operational. Administrative workload increases, but the critical risk arises from unprotected endpoints and malware infection.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Performance impact is minimal compared to the consequences of unprotected endpoints.
Regularly updating antivirus software is critical for maintaining endpoint security. The most significant risk is that endpoints may become infected by malware, compromising data, systems, and network integrity.
Question 144
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that default security configurations are used on critical servers. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience
B) Servers may be exploited by attackers using known default settings, compromising data and systems
C) IT staff may spend more time configuring servers
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Servers being exploited by attackers using known default settings, compromising data and systems, is the most significant risk when default security configurations are used on critical servers. Default configurations are widely known and often not optimized for security, making them a common target for attacks.
A) Minor inconvenience is operational. Users may experience minor usability issues, but this is secondary to security threats arising from default configurations.
B) Exploitation represents a direct threat to confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Auditors evaluate configuration management practices, hardening procedures, and compliance with organizational and regulatory standards. Critical servers with default settings may have weak passwords, open ports, unnecessary services, or default accounts that attackers can exploit to gain unauthorized access. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, NIST, and HIPAA emphasize secure configuration and server hardening to reduce exposure to attacks. Attackers leverage default configurations to deploy malware, exfiltrate data, or disrupt services. Effective hardening includes disabling unused services, changing default credentials, applying security patches, and implementing access controls. Failure to harden servers increases the likelihood of successful attacks, operational disruption, financial loss, and regulatory penalties. Organizations must maintain configuration baselines, monitor deviations, and enforce hardening standards to ensure critical servers are secure. Using default configurations undermines the security posture and exposes sensitive data and systems to preventable risks.
C) IT staff spending more time configuring servers is operational. While effort is required for hardening, the primary risk is exploitation of unsecure default configurations.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Performance is minimally affected, while the critical risk involves potential system compromise.
Implementing secure configurations on servers is essential for protecting data and critical systems. The most significant risk is that attackers may exploit default settings to compromise systems and sensitive information.
Question 145
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that encryption is not applied to sensitive data stored on portable devices. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience
B) Loss or theft of portable devices may result in exposure of sensitive data
C) IT staff may spend more time managing encryption
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Loss or theft of portable devices resulting in exposure of sensitive data is the most significant risk when encryption is not applied. Portable devices such as laptops, USB drives, and external hard drives are easily lost or stolen, and unencrypted data can be accessed directly.
A) Minor inconvenience for users is operational. While encryption may slightly affect usability, this is negligible compared to the risk of data exposure.
B) Data exposure due to device loss or theft represents a direct threat to confidentiality and compliance. Auditors review encryption policies, endpoint security controls, and portable device management procedures. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, GDPR, HIPAA, and PCI DSS require encryption of sensitive data at rest to prevent unauthorized access in case of device loss. Unencrypted portable devices increase the likelihood of unauthorized access, intellectual property theft, and exposure of personal data. Effective encryption involves strong algorithms, secure key management, and endpoint policy enforcement. Organizations must also implement device tracking, remote wipe, and access controls to mitigate risk. Failure to encrypt portable devices can result in breaches, regulatory fines, and reputational damage. Encryption ensures that even if a device is lost, the data remains unreadable to unauthorized individuals.
C) IT staff spending more time managing encryption is operational. Administrative workload is secondary to the primary risk of unencrypted data exposure.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Performance impact is minimal, while the critical risk lies in protecting sensitive data on portable devices.
Applying encryption to sensitive data on portable devices is essential for data protection. The most significant risk is that lost or stolen devices may expose sensitive information, resulting in breaches and regulatory consequences.
Question 146
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that multi-factor authentication (MFA) is not implemented for remote access. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience when logging in
B) Remote access accounts may be compromised, leading to unauthorized access to corporate systems and sensitive data
C) IT staff may spend more time managing passwords
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Remote access accounts being compromised, leading to unauthorized access to corporate systems and sensitive data, is the most significant risk when multi-factor authentication is not implemented. MFA adds a critical layer of security beyond traditional username and password credentials. Without MFA, attackers can easily exploit weak or stolen credentials to gain remote access.
A) Minor inconvenience when logging in is operational. MFA may add an extra step for users, but this inconvenience is negligible compared to the risk of unauthorized access.
B) Compromise of remote access accounts represents a direct threat to confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Auditors evaluate authentication controls, remote access policies, and compliance with security standards to ensure that MFA is applied consistently. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, NIST, PCI DSS, and HIPAA emphasize strong authentication for remote access, particularly for systems containing sensitive or regulated information. Without MFA, attackers can gain access through phishing, credential theft, brute force, or password reuse, potentially compromising sensitive corporate systems, exfiltrating data, deploying malware, or disrupting operations. Implementing MFA mitigates these risks by requiring a second form of authentication, such as one-time passwords (OTP), hardware tokens, or biometric verification. MFA ensures that even if credentials are stolen, unauthorized access is significantly more difficult. Failure to enforce MFA for remote access leaves critical systems vulnerable to compromise, which can result in regulatory penalties, financial loss, and reputational harm. Continuous monitoring, logging, and enforcement of MFA policies are essential for reducing the attack surface associated with remote connectivity.
C) IT staff spending more time managing passwords is operational. While MFA can reduce password-related support efforts over time, the primary risk is unauthorized access due to compromised credentials.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Performance impact from MFA implementation is minimal compared to the risk of remote access compromise.
Implementing MFA for remote access is critical for securing corporate systems. The most significant risk is that accounts may be compromised, leading to unauthorized access to sensitive systems and data.
Question 147
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that sensitive data is transmitted over unencrypted channels. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience
B) Data may be intercepted or altered, compromising confidentiality and integrity
C) IT staff may spend more time troubleshooting network issues
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Data being intercepted or altered, compromising confidentiality and integrity, is the most significant risk when sensitive information is transmitted over unencrypted channels. Unencrypted communications are vulnerable to interception by attackers, leading to potential exposure of sensitive information.
A) Minor inconvenience is operational. Transmission over secure channels may require configuration or additional steps, but inconvenience is negligible compared to security risks.
B) Interception and modification of data represent a direct threat to confidentiality and integrity. Auditors evaluate encryption protocols, such as TLS, SSL, VPNs, and secure file transfer methods, to ensure data is protected in transit. Regulatory frameworks like ISO 27001, PCI DSS, HIPAA, and NIST mandate secure transmission of sensitive information to prevent unauthorized disclosure. Unencrypted channels expose sensitive data to man-in-the-middle attacks, eavesdropping, or tampering. This could lead to the compromise of personal data, intellectual property, financial information, or other confidential material. Implementing encryption ensures that even if transmissions are intercepted, the content remains unreadable or tamper-evident. Encryption also supports compliance reporting and risk management objectives by mitigating potential breaches. Organizations must enforce secure transmission policies, monitor network traffic for unencrypted data, and educate employees about the risks of unsecured communication. Failure to encrypt sensitive data in transit increases the likelihood of breaches, legal penalties, reputational damage, and operational disruption.
C) IT staff spending more time troubleshooting network issues is operational. Administrative effort to secure transmissions is secondary to the main risk of intercepted or altered data.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Encryption may have minimal impact on performance, but the critical risk lies in exposure of sensitive data.
Encrypting sensitive data in transit is essential for maintaining confidentiality and integrity. The most significant risk is that unencrypted transmissions may be intercepted or altered, potentially compromising data.
Question 148
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that security logs are not reviewed for failed login attempts. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience
B) Brute-force or unauthorized access attempts may go undetected, increasing the risk of system compromise
C) IT staff may spend more time analyzing logs
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Brute-force or unauthorized access attempts going undetected, increasing the risk of system compromise, is the most significant risk when failed login attempts are not reviewed. Security logs provide critical evidence of attempted attacks and unauthorized activity.
A) Minor inconvenience is operational. Users may be slightly affected by monitoring procedures, but this is not significant compared to security threats.
B) Undetected unauthorized attempts represent a direct threat to confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Auditors review log management policies, monitoring procedures, and alerting mechanisms to ensure that failed login attempts are tracked and investigated. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, NIST, PCI DSS, and HIPAA emphasize monitoring login activity to detect anomalies and potential breaches. Failing to review logs allows attackers to attempt brute-force attacks, credential guessing, or other unauthorized access methods without detection. Timely review and correlation of failed login attempts can indicate compromised accounts, malware activity, or insider threats. Implementing alerting mechanisms, automated monitoring, and periodic review ensures early detection and response, reducing the likelihood of successful compromise. Organizations that neglect failed login monitoring may experience breaches, unauthorized data access, or system disruptions. Effective log management includes analyzing failed attempts, investigating anomalies, correlating events, and implementing appropriate access controls to mitigate risks.
C) IT staff spending more time analyzing logs is operational. While reviewing logs requires effort, the critical risk is the failure to detect malicious activity.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Log review has minimal impact on system performance compared to the threat of undetected unauthorized access.
Reviewing security logs for failed login attempts is essential for detecting and preventing unauthorized access. The most significant risk is that brute-force or unauthorized attempts may go undetected, increasing the likelihood of system compromise.
Question 149
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that system configurations are not backed up before applying changes. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience
B) Misconfigured systems may not be recoverable, leading to downtime and operational disruption
C) IT staff may spend more time manually restoring configurations
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Misconfigured systems not being recoverable, leading to downtime and operational disruption, is the most significant risk when system configurations are not backed up before applying changes. Configuration backups are essential for rollback in case changes introduce errors or vulnerabilities.
A) Minor inconvenience is operational. Users may be slightly affected during configuration changes, but this is negligible compared to the risk of system downtime.
B) System misconfiguration represents a direct threat to availability and integrity. Auditors evaluate configuration management practices, including backup procedures, version control, and change management. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, NIST, PCI DSS, and ITIL emphasize proper configuration management to maintain service continuity. Without backups, failed changes may render systems inoperable, affecting critical business operations. Implementing configuration backups ensures that administrators can restore known good states, minimize downtime, and prevent data loss. Additionally, backups support auditing, troubleshooting, and recovery from human errors or malicious changes. Neglecting configuration backups increases the likelihood of prolonged outages, operational disruption, and financial or reputational impact. Effective change management includes pre-change backups, testing in controlled environments, and documentation of configuration changes to reduce risk and maintain stability.
C) IT staff spending more time restoring configurations is operational. While administrative effort may increase, the primary risk is system unavailability and disruption due to misconfiguration.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Performance is minimally affected, whereas the critical concern is recoverability and operational continuity.
Backing up system configurations before changes is critical for operational resilience. The most significant risk is that misconfigured systems may not be recoverable, causing downtime and disruption.
Question 150
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that mobile devices accessing corporate email are not encrypted. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience
B) Loss or theft of mobile devices may result in exposure of sensitive corporate emails
C) IT staff may spend more time managing devices
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Loss or theft of mobile devices resulting in exposure of sensitive corporate emails is the most significant risk when encryption is not applied. Mobile devices are portable and easily lost, making unencrypted data highly vulnerable.
A) Minor inconvenience is operational. Encryption may require passwords or device PINs, but inconvenience is minor compared to the potential exposure of corporate information.
B) Data exposure due to lost or stolen devices represents a direct threat to confidentiality and compliance. Auditors review mobile device management policies, encryption requirements, and access controls for corporate email. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, GDPR, HIPAA, and PCI DSS mandate encryption of sensitive data on mobile devices to prevent unauthorized access. Unencrypted devices may expose sensitive emails, attachments, or contact information, leading to data breaches, regulatory penalties, and reputational harm. Effective controls include device encryption, remote wipe, strong authentication, and endpoint monitoring. Organizations must enforce encryption policies consistently across all mobile devices accessing corporate systems. Failure to encrypt devices increases the likelihood of unauthorized access and data compromise, particularly given the high mobility and loss risk of mobile devices. Encryption ensures that even if a device is lost, the information remains protected against unauthorized access.
C) IT staff spending more time managing devices is operational. Administrative workload is secondary to the critical risk of unencrypted sensitive data.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Encryption may minimally affect device performance, but the main concern is protection of sensitive information.
Encrypting mobile devices accessing corporate email is essential for safeguarding sensitive data. The most significant risk is that lost or stolen devices may expose corporate emails, leading to data breaches and regulatory consequences.
Question 151
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that no data classification policy exists within the organization. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience when accessing data
B) Sensitive information may be mishandled, leading to unauthorized disclosure or loss
C) IT staff may spend more time organizing data
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Sensitive information being mishandled, leading to unauthorized disclosure or loss, is the most significant risk when no data classification policy exists. Data classification establishes a framework to identify, categorize, and protect information according to its sensitivity and value. Without such a policy, employees may inadvertently treat sensitive data as public, increasing the risk of breaches and regulatory violations.
A) Minor inconvenience is operational. While data classification may require users to follow certain procedures, the operational burden is minimal compared to the potential risk of mishandled sensitive data.
B) Mishandling sensitive information represents a direct threat to confidentiality, integrity, and compliance. Auditors evaluate whether organizations have formal data classification policies, procedures for labeling and handling information, and enforcement mechanisms. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, GDPR, HIPAA, and PCI DSS require that sensitive information be identified and protected based on its classification. Without a policy, employees may store sensitive files in unsecured locations, share information with unauthorized parties, or fail to apply encryption, leading to data breaches, intellectual property theft, or regulatory fines. Effective data classification involves defining categories (e.g., public, internal, confidential, restricted), labeling information appropriately, and implementing handling procedures such as access controls, encryption, and monitoring. Organizations also need employee training and periodic audits to ensure compliance with classification requirements. Failure to implement a data classification policy increases exposure to accidental disclosure, insider threats, or intentional misuse. Breaches resulting from mishandling sensitive information may result in financial loss, reputational damage, and legal consequences.
C) IT staff spending more time organizing data is operational. While data management effort may increase, the critical risk is unauthorized access or loss of sensitive information.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. System performance is not directly impacted by the absence of a data classification policy; the primary concern is information security.
Implementing a data classification policy is essential for protecting sensitive information. The most significant risk is that information may be mishandled, resulting in unauthorized disclosure, loss, and potential regulatory violations.
Question 152
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that default credentials are used on network devices. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience
B) Network devices may be exploited by attackers, compromising system availability and data integrity
C) IT staff may spend more time managing passwords
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Network devices being exploited by attackers, compromising system availability and data integrity, is the most significant risk when default credentials are used. Default usernames and passwords are widely known and documented, making devices vulnerable to unauthorized access, configuration changes, or malicious control.
A) Minor inconvenience is operational. Users may occasionally face issues during device access or password changes, but this is negligible compared to the risk of device compromise.
B) Exploitation represents a direct threat to availability, integrity, and confidentiality. Auditors review configuration management, access controls, and security policies to ensure that network devices use strong, unique credentials. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, NIST, PCI DSS, and HIPAA emphasize secure configuration of network infrastructure to prevent unauthorized access. Devices with default credentials are prone to attacks such as brute force, remote exploitation, and lateral network movement. Compromised devices can be used to intercept or manipulate network traffic, deploy malware, disrupt services, or exfiltrate sensitive data. Effective controls include changing default passwords, implementing strong authentication, logging administrative actions, and periodic security reviews. Neglecting secure credentials exposes the organization to operational disruptions, financial loss, regulatory violations, and reputational harm. Network security hygiene, including regular audits and monitoring, ensures that devices remain protected and reduces attack surfaces. Failure to change default credentials is considered a basic yet critical security lapse that can have severe consequences.
C) IT staff spending more time managing passwords is operational. While administrative effort increases, the primary risk is security compromise from default credentials.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Performance is minimally impacted; the critical risk is device exploitation and network compromise.
Changing default credentials on network devices is essential for maintaining network security. The most significant risk is that attackers may exploit default passwords, compromising system availability and data integrity.
Question 153
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that no formal process exists for evaluating third-party vendors’ security controls. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience when interacting with vendors
B) Third-party vendors may introduce vulnerabilities, increasing the risk of data breaches or operational disruption
C) IT staff may spend more time coordinating with vendors
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Third-party vendors introducing vulnerabilities, increasing the risk of data breaches or operational disruption, is the most significant risk when no formal evaluation process exists. Many organizations rely on external vendors for critical services, software, or infrastructure, making vendor security a critical component of overall risk management.
A) Minor inconvenience is operational. Users may experience slight delays or communication issues when interacting with vendors, but this is secondary to security risks introduced by unassessed vendors.
B) Vendor-related vulnerabilities represent a direct threat to confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Auditors assess vendor management programs, due diligence procedures, contracts, and security assessments to ensure that third-party services do not compromise organizational security. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, NIST, PCI DSS, and HIPAA require organizations to evaluate and manage vendor risks, particularly when sensitive or regulated data is involved. Without a formal evaluation process, vendors may lack adequate security measures, making systems susceptible to malware, unauthorized access, misconfigurations, or service outages. Effective vendor risk management includes pre-engagement assessment, ongoing monitoring, contractual security requirements, audit rights, and incident response coordination. Failure to assess vendor security can lead to data breaches, regulatory penalties, operational disruptions, and reputational damage. High-profile breaches often occur through weak third-party controls, highlighting the criticality of vendor risk management. Organizations must also track changes in vendor services or security posture to ensure continuous alignment with organizational requirements.
C) IT staff spending more time coordinating with vendors is operational. While vendor interactions require effort, the primary risk is security exposure from unassessed third parties.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Performance is minimally affected; the critical concern is vendor-related security risk.
Implementing a formal process to evaluate third-party security controls is essential for protecting organizational assets. The most significant risk is that vendors may introduce vulnerabilities, leading to breaches or operational disruption.
Question 154
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that software development projects do not follow a formal change management process. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience during development
B) Unauthorized or poorly tested changes may be introduced, resulting in defects, security vulnerabilities, or operational disruption
C) IT staff may spend more time coordinating changes
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Unauthorized or poorly tested changes resulting in defects, security vulnerabilities, or operational disruption is the most significant risk when software development projects lack a formal change management process. Change management ensures that modifications to systems, code, or configurations are documented, tested, approved, and implemented in a controlled manner.
A) Minor inconvenience is operational. Users may experience slight delays or disruptions, but this is negligible compared to the risks associated with uncontrolled changes.
B) Unauthorized or poorly tested changes represent a direct threat to integrity, availability, and security. Auditors review development lifecycle processes, version control, testing practices, approval workflows, and deployment procedures. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, NIST, PCI DSS, HIPAA, and ITIL emphasize change management to maintain system stability and security. Without a formal process, changes may be implemented without adequate testing, review, or documentation, increasing the likelihood of introducing bugs, vulnerabilities, or system failures. Poorly managed changes may result in data corruption, unauthorized access, downtime, or regulatory non-compliance. Effective change management includes impact assessment, segregation of duties, testing in controlled environments, approval by responsible stakeholders, and proper documentation. Organizations without structured change management processes face higher risks of defects, security breaches, and operational disruptions that can affect business continuity, user satisfaction, and compliance.
C) IT staff spending more time coordinating changes is operational. While coordination effort increases, the primary risk lies in defects, vulnerabilities, or disruptions from uncontrolled changes.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Performance may be marginally affected, but the main concern is stability, security, and integrity of software systems.
Following a formal change management process is essential for software development projects. The most significant risk is that unauthorized or poorly tested changes may introduce defects, security vulnerabilities, or operational disruption.
Question 155
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that network segmentation is not implemented between sensitive and non-sensitive systems. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience
B) A compromise in non-sensitive systems could spread to sensitive systems, increasing the risk of data breaches or operational disruption
C) IT staff may spend more time managing the network
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
A compromise in non-sensitive systems spreading to sensitive systems, increasing the risk of data breaches or operational disruption, is the most significant risk when network segmentation is not implemented. Segmentation isolates critical systems to prevent lateral movement of threats and limit exposure during incidents.
A) Minor inconvenience is operational. Users may experience slight restrictions or complexity, but this is negligible compared to the risk of lateral movement in a flat network.
B) Lateral movement represents a direct threat to confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Auditors evaluate network architecture, segmentation controls, access policies, and firewall configurations to ensure sensitive systems are isolated from lower-trust networks. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, NIST, PCI DSS, and HIPAA emphasize segmentation to reduce exposure of critical systems. Without segmentation, malware, ransomware, or unauthorized access in less sensitive systems can spread to sensitive systems, increasing the likelihood of breaches, operational disruption, or regulatory non-compliance. Effective segmentation includes network zones, firewalls, access controls, VLANs, and monitoring to limit movement between systems. Organizations without segmentation face heightened risk of widespread compromise, loss of sensitive data, and financial or reputational damage. Segmentation also facilitates incident response, containment, and regulatory compliance by limiting the scope of security incidents.
C) IT staff spending more time managing the network is operational. Administrative effort increases, but the primary risk is compromise of sensitive systems due to lack of segmentation.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Performance is minimally affected; the critical concern is exposure and risk containment.
Implementing network segmentation is essential for protecting sensitive systems and reducing exposure during incidents. The most significant risk is that a compromise in non-sensitive systems may spread, leading to breaches or operational disruption.
Question 156
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that antivirus definitions are not updated automatically on servers. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience
B) Servers may become vulnerable to new malware, potentially leading to data compromise or system failure
C) IT staff may spend more time manually updating antivirus definitions
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Servers becoming vulnerable to new malware, potentially leading to data compromise or system failure, is the most significant risk when antivirus definitions are not updated automatically. Antivirus software relies on up-to-date signature databases and heuristics to detect and prevent malware infections. Without regular updates, servers are exposed to emerging threats that can bypass outdated antivirus protection.
A) Minor inconvenience for users is operational. While manual updates or delayed protection may cause small inconveniences, this is negligible compared to the potential for malware infection and system compromise.
B) Vulnerability to malware represents a direct threat to confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Auditors review endpoint protection policies, update procedures, and compliance with security standards to ensure servers remain protected. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, NIST, PCI DSS, and HIPAA mandate continuous monitoring and protection against malware to safeguard sensitive data and maintain operational stability. Malware infection on servers can lead to data exfiltration, corruption, system downtime, ransomware deployment, or propagation to other systems. Automated updates are essential because manual processes are prone to delays, errors, and inconsistencies across servers. Without timely updates, servers are unable to detect the latest threats, increasing the likelihood of successful attacks. Implementing automated antivirus updates, monitoring update status, and logging update activity are critical controls to maintain endpoint security. Neglecting automatic updates exposes servers to preventable attacks, operational disruptions, regulatory non-compliance, and financial or reputational damage. Failure to maintain current antivirus definitions can undermine the organization’s overall security posture and leave critical assets unprotected against modern malware.
C) IT staff spending more time manually updating antivirus definitions is operational. While administrative effort increases, the primary concern is security exposure to malware due to outdated definitions.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. The performance impact is minimal, while the main risk is malware infection and compromise of server systems.
Maintaining automated updates of antivirus definitions on servers is critical for effective malware protection. The most significant risk is that servers may become vulnerable to new malware, leading to data compromise or system failure.
Question 157
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that wireless networks are not encrypted using strong protocols. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience connecting to wireless networks
B) Data transmitted over the wireless network may be intercepted, leading to unauthorized access or data breaches
C) IT staff may spend more time troubleshooting connectivity issues
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Data transmitted over the wireless network being intercepted, leading to unauthorized access or data breaches, is the most significant risk when wireless networks are not encrypted using strong protocols. Wireless communications are inherently vulnerable because signals can be intercepted by attackers within range, making encryption essential to protect confidentiality and integrity.
A) Minor inconvenience for users is operational. Connecting securely to wireless networks may require authentication or configuration steps, but this inconvenience is negligible compared to the risk of interception.
B) Interception of wireless communications represents a direct threat to confidentiality and integrity. Auditors assess encryption protocols (such as WPA3, WPA2-Enterprise), network authentication mechanisms, and monitoring procedures to ensure wireless networks are secure. Regulatory frameworks like ISO 27001, NIST, PCI DSS, and HIPAA require secure transmission to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data. Unencrypted or weakly encrypted wireless networks are susceptible to man-in-the-middle attacks, packet sniffing, and unauthorized access. Attackers can intercept sensitive information such as login credentials, emails, financial data, and intellectual property. Implementing strong encryption, robust authentication, and monitoring controls ensures that wireless communications are protected from eavesdropping and tampering. Failure to secure wireless networks exposes the organization to data breaches, compliance violations, operational disruption, and reputational damage. Regular assessment of wireless security, enforcement of encryption standards, and user training on secure connectivity are essential for maintaining a secure wireless environment.
C) IT staff spending more time troubleshooting connectivity issues is operational. While administrative effort may increase, the critical risk lies in potential interception and unauthorized access to data.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Encryption may introduce minimal overhead, but the primary concern is protecting sensitive wireless communications.
Encrypting wireless networks using strong protocols is essential for preventing interception and unauthorized access. The most significant risk is that unencrypted or weakly encrypted transmissions could lead to data breaches.
Question 158
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that privileged accounts are not monitored for abnormal activities. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience
B) Unauthorized or malicious use of privileged accounts may go undetected, leading to system compromise or data breaches
C) IT staff may spend more time reviewing logs
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Unauthorized or malicious use of privileged accounts going undetected, leading to system compromise or data breaches, is the most significant risk when privileged accounts are not monitored. Privileged accounts, such as administrators or system operators, have elevated access, and misuse can result in significant operational and security impact.
A) Minor inconvenience is operational. Monitoring privileged accounts may require additional verification or controls, but this is negligible compared to the risk posed by misuse of such accounts.
B) Malicious activity using privileged accounts represents a direct threat to confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Auditors review access controls, monitoring processes, logging, and alerting mechanisms for privileged accounts. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, NIST, PCI DSS, and HIPAA require strict control and monitoring of privileged access to prevent unauthorized actions. Unmonitored accounts can be used to modify system configurations, access sensitive data, bypass security controls, or install malware. Effective monitoring includes real-time alerts, periodic reviews, separation of duties, and activity logging. Detecting abnormal behavior, such as login at unusual times, access from unauthorized locations, or changes to critical files, allows timely investigation and response. Without monitoring, malicious or inadvertent actions can go unnoticed, causing data loss, operational disruptions, financial harm, or regulatory penalties. Privileged account monitoring is a critical component of cybersecurity frameworks and risk management strategies. It reduces the likelihood of insider threats and ensures accountability for high-risk activities. Organizations must implement continuous monitoring, access logging, and anomaly detection for privileged accounts to maintain system integrity and protect sensitive information.
C) IT staff spending more time reviewing logs is operational. While monitoring requires administrative effort, the primary risk is undetected misuse of privileged accounts.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. The main concern is the security exposure from unmonitored privileged activity, not performance.
Monitoring privileged accounts is essential for detecting and preventing unauthorized access or malicious activities. The most significant risk is that misuse may go undetected, leading to system compromise or data breaches.
Question 159
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that patch management procedures are not consistently followed for critical applications. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience
B) Applications may be exploited due to unpatched vulnerabilities, leading to unauthorized access, data compromise, or operational disruption
C) IT staff may spend more time manually applying patches
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Applications being exploited due to unpatched vulnerabilities, leading to unauthorized access, data compromise, or operational disruption, is the most significant risk when patch management procedures are not consistently followed. Patch management ensures that known vulnerabilities are remediated promptly to maintain application security and operational stability.
A) Minor inconvenience for users is operational. While patching may involve downtime or temporary service interruptions, this is negligible compared to the security risks posed by unpatched applications.
B) Exploitation of unpatched vulnerabilities represents a direct threat to confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Auditors assess patch management processes, vulnerability assessment, testing procedures, and compliance with organizational security policies. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, NIST, PCI DSS, and HIPAA require timely application of patches to reduce exposure to known threats. Unpatched applications may be targeted by attackers using exploits to gain unauthorized access, inject malware, exfiltrate data, or disrupt operations. Effective patch management includes vulnerability scanning, prioritization based on risk, testing patches in controlled environments, approval workflows, and automated deployment where possible. Failure to follow patch management procedures consistently increases the likelihood of breaches, operational failures, regulatory violations, and reputational damage. Organizations must track patch status, monitor vulnerabilities, and maintain an up-to-date inventory of applications to ensure timely remediation. Regular audits and verification of patch deployment support compliance and reduce the risk associated with unpatched software.
C) IT staff spending more time manually applying patches is operational. While patching may increase workload, the primary risk is exploitation due to unpatched vulnerabilities.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. Performance impact is minimal, whereas the critical risk is security exposure from unpatched applications.
Consistently following patch management procedures for critical applications is essential for maintaining security and operational integrity. The most significant risk is that unpatched vulnerabilities may be exploited, leading to unauthorized access, data compromise, or operational disruption.
Question 160
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that network intrusion detection systems (IDS) are not configured to alert on suspicious traffic patterns. Which risk is MOST significant?
A) Users may experience minor inconvenience
B) Suspicious or malicious activity may go undetected, increasing the likelihood of system compromise or data breaches
C) IT staff may spend more time manually reviewing traffic
D) System performance may slightly degrade
Answer: B)
Explanation
Suspicious or malicious activity going undetected, increasing the likelihood of system compromise or data breaches, is the most significant risk when IDS systems are not configured to alert on anomalous traffic. Intrusion detection systems are critical for identifying potential attacks, malware propagation, and unauthorized access attempts.
A) Minor inconvenience is operational. While IDS alerts may require attention or configuration, the inconvenience is negligible compared to the risk of undetected attacks.
B) Undetected malicious activity represents a direct threat to confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Auditors evaluate IDS configuration, alerting mechanisms, network monitoring procedures, and response protocols. Regulatory frameworks such as ISO 27001, NIST, PCI DSS, and HIPAA require proactive monitoring to detect and respond to potential threats. An improperly configured IDS may fail to detect brute-force attempts, port scanning, malware traffic, or exfiltration activities. This increases the likelihood of prolonged unauthorized access, data theft, or disruption of services. Effective IDS deployment involves defining appropriate alert thresholds, correlating events, integrating with security information and event management (SIEM) systems, and ensuring timely response to alerts. Failure to configure alerts reduces situational awareness, delays incident response, and increases organizational exposure to cyberattacks. Continuous monitoring, tuning, and testing of IDS rules are essential to detect and mitigate emerging threats effectively. Organizations that neglect IDS configuration risk breaches, operational disruption, regulatory non-compliance, and financial or reputational damage.
C) IT staff spending more time manually reviewing traffic is operational. While monitoring requires effort, the primary risk is failure to detect and respond to malicious activity.
D) Slight system performance degradation is operational. IDS monitoring has minimal performance impact compared to the risk of undetected attacks and data compromise.
Configuring IDS to alert on suspicious traffic patterns is critical for threat detection and incident response. The most significant risk is that malicious activity may go undetected, leading to system compromise or data breaches.
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