Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate SAA-C03 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 1 Q1-20

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Question 1:

A company is planning to deploy a web application to AWS that must be highly available and resilient to AZ failures. The application traffic varies throughout the day. Which architecture meets these requirements?

Answer:

A) Deploy the application on a single EC2 instance with an EBS volume
B) Deploy the application across multiple EC2 instances in multiple Availability Zones behind an Application Load Balancer
C) Deploy the application on a single EC2 instance with a backup snapshot
D) Deploy the application using AWS Lambda only

Explanation:

Option B is correct. Deploying EC2 instances across multiple Availability Zones (AZs) behind an Application Load Balancer ensures high availability and fault tolerance. The Load Balancer automatically distributes incoming traffic to healthy instances, while Auto Scaling dynamically adjusts capacity based on traffic demands, optimizing cost and performance. Option A is risky because a single EC2 instance is a single point of failure and would not survive an AZ outage. Option C provides a backup but does not guarantee uptime or failover during an AZ disruption. Option D could work for serverless applications, but if the application requires persistent state, specific compute configurations, or complex networking, Lambda alone may not meet availability requirements. In addition, combining EC2 with Load Balancers allows using additional AWS features such as Elastic IPs, security groups, and placement groups for improved fault tolerance and performance, which is essential for production-grade deployments. The architecture in option B also enables better monitoring with CloudWatch metrics and integration with AWS Auto Scaling policies, ensuring the infrastructure can respond automatically to sudden traffic spikes while maintaining high availability and low latency. This design aligns with AWS Well-Architected Framework principles, which recommend distributing workloads across multiple AZs and using managed services to reduce operational overhead. Therefore, option B provides the best combination of high availability, fault tolerance, scalability, and cost optimization for a variable-traffic web application.

Question 2:

Which AWS service provides a highly available, scalable, and globally distributed Domain Name System (DNS) service that can route user requests to endpoints worldwide?

Answer:

A) Amazon Route 53
B) AWS CloudFront
C) Elastic Load Balancing
D) AWS Direct Connect

Explanation:

Option A is correct. Amazon Route 53 is a highly available and scalable DNS web service that can route traffic globally to AWS resources such as EC2 instances, S3 buckets, or external endpoints. It also supports health checks and DNS failover, allowing for high availability even if certain endpoints fail. CloudFront is a Content Delivery Network (CDN) that caches content at edge locations globally to reduce latency, but it is not a DNS service. Elastic Load Balancing distributes traffic among instances within a region, but it does not provide global DNS routing or resolution. AWS Direct Connect establishes private network connectivity to AWS, which is unrelated to public DNS resolution. Route 53’s features such as latency-based routing, geolocation routing, and weighted routing allow organizations to optimize user experience and direct traffic efficiently. Additionally, Route 53 integrates with other AWS services for automated routing and management, making it ideal for global applications requiring high availability and reliable DNS management. Therefore, for globally distributed DNS with routing capabilities, Route 53 is the recommended solution.

Option A is correct. Amazon Route 53 is AWS’s fully managed, highly available, and scalable Domain Name System (DNS) web service designed to route end-user requests to application endpoints across the globe. It supports a wide range of routing policies—such as latency-based routing, geolocation routing, geoproximity routing, and weighted routing—that help organizations deliver traffic to the most optimal endpoints, whether those are AWS resources like EC2 instances and S3 buckets or external, on-premises servers. Route 53 also integrates health checks and DNS failover, meaning it continuously monitors the health of endpoints and can automatically redirect users if a failure is detected. This contributes to extremely high availability and resilience for global applications.

Option B, AWS CloudFront, is a powerful Content Delivery Network (CDN) that improves performance by caching static and dynamic content at edge locations around the world. However, while CloudFront enhances delivery speeds, it does not provide DNS services or global traffic-routing logic.

Option C, Elastic Load Balancing (ELB), distributes incoming application traffic across multiple targets within a single region, improving fault tolerance within that region but not offering DNS-level global routing.

Option D, AWS Direct Connect, provides dedicated, private network connectivity between on-premises environments and AWS but is unrelated to public DNS resolution or global traffic management.

Thus, for global DNS management, failover, and sophisticated traffic-routing capabilities, Amazon Route 53 is the correct and recommended solution.

Question 3:

A company wants all objects stored in Amazon S3 to be encrypted at rest with strict access controls. Which configuration should a Solutions Architect implement?

Answer:

A) Enable S3 server-side encryption with AWS KMS-managed keys (SSE-KMS) and enforce access using IAM policies
B) Store data in S3 without encryption and rely on network security
C) Use client-side encryption but allow public access
D) Enable S3 versioning without encryption

Explanation:

Option A is correct. SSE-KMS encrypts objects at rest using keys managed in AWS KMS and allows fine-grained access control using IAM policies. This ensures that only authorized users can access encrypted data. Option B is insecure because encryption is not enforced and access relies solely on network controls. Option C is risky because public access compromises security, and client-side encryption alone does not provide centralized key management. Option D provides versioning but does not enforce encryption or prevent unauthorized access. Using SSE-KMS ensures compliance with security standards such as PCI DSS or HIPAA by providing audit logs and access control for encryption keys. Additionally, IAM policies combined with bucket policies can restrict access to specific users or roles, providing granular security at the object level. By implementing SSE-KMS with IAM policies, the company can maintain compliance, secure sensitive data, and ensure that encryption is enforced automatically for all objects in the S3 bucket. This approach reduces operational overhead while enhancing data security.

Question 4:

Which AWS service is best suited to deliver static website content globally with low latency?

Answer:

A) Amazon CloudFront
B) Amazon EC2
C) AWS Elastic Beanstalk
D) Amazon RDS

Explanation:

Option A is correct. Amazon CloudFront is a global Content Delivery Network (CDN) that caches content at edge locations around the world, reducing latency and improving performance for end users. EC2 is a compute service that hosts applications but does not provide global content distribution. Elastic Beanstalk automates application deployment but does not inherently provide caching at global edge locations. RDS is a managed database service and is not designed for delivering static content. CloudFront also integrates with AWS WAF for security, supports HTTPS for secure content delivery, and can be configured with origin failover to increase availability. Using CloudFront allows static content such as HTML, CSS, JavaScript, and images to be delivered with minimal delay, improving the overall user experience for a globally distributed audience. For organizations requiring both high availability and low latency content delivery, CloudFront is the optimal choice.

Question 5:

A company wants to monitor application performance and AWS resource utilization in real time. Which combination of services should a Solutions Architect recommend?

Answer:

A) AWS CloudTrail and AWS Config
B) Amazon CloudWatch and AWS X-Ray
C) AWS Trusted Advisor and AWS Inspector
D) AWS IAM and AWS Organizations

Explanation:

Option B is correct. CloudWatch monitors metrics such as CPU usage, memory utilization, and network traffic, providing real-time visibility into AWS resource performance. X-Ray provides tracing for application requests, allowing developers to identify bottlenecks, latency issues, and errors within distributed applications. CloudTrail records API activity and Config monitors resource configuration changes, but neither provides real-time performance monitoring. Trusted Advisor provides cost optimization, security, and best practice recommendations, while Inspector scans for security vulnerabilities. IAM and Organizations manage users, permissions, and accounts rather than monitoring performance. Using CloudWatch and X-Ray together enables organizations to have a comprehensive view of both infrastructure metrics and application-level performance, facilitating faster troubleshooting and improved operational efficiency. This combination is essential for maintaining service-level agreements and ensuring applications meet performance and availability expectations.

Option B is correct because Amazon CloudWatch and AWS X-Ray work together to give a complete picture of both infrastructure performance and application behavior. CloudWatch collects and monitors metrics such as CPU utilization, disk I/O, memory usage (via custom metrics), network throughput, and other operational indicators. It also supports alarms, dashboards, and logs, allowing teams to react quickly when performance thresholds are breached. This real-time visibility helps organizations keep their applications healthy and responsive while providing the data needed to make scaling decisions or investigate unusual activity.

AWS X-Ray complements CloudWatch by providing distributed tracing across microservices and serverless components. It helps teams understand how requests flow through an application, where latency is introduced, and which specific services may be slowing down the overall response. With features like service maps and trace analysis, X-Ray makes it easier to pinpoint issues in complex architectures that involve APIs, Lambda functions, containerized services, or multi-tier backends.

Option A, AWS CloudTrail and AWS Config, focuses on auditing, API tracking, and configuration management rather than live performance monitoring. Option C, AWS Trusted Advisor and AWS Inspector, is oriented toward cost optimization, best practices, and security assessments. Option D, AWS IAM and AWS Organizations, deals with user access management and multi-account governance. These services are valuable but do not provide real-time performance insights like CloudWatch and X-Ray do.

Question 6:

A company needs a cost-effective solution to store archival data that is rarely accessed. Which AWS storage option is most appropriate?

Answer:

A) S3 Standard
B) S3 Intelligent-Tiering
C) S3 Glacier Deep Archive
D) Amazon EBS gp3

Explanation:

Option C is correct. S3 Glacier Deep Archive is designed for long-term storage of rarely accessed data at the lowest cost, providing high durability. S3 Standard is optimized for frequently accessed data and would be cost-prohibitive for archival storage. Intelligent-Tiering automatically moves objects between access tiers but may not be the cheapest option for purely archival workloads. EBS is block storage for EC2 instances and is not designed for long-term, infrequently accessed data. Glacier Deep Archive supports retrieval within hours and provides encryption at rest, making it suitable for compliance and backup requirements. Organizations can also use lifecycle policies to automatically transition older data to Glacier Deep Archive, minimizing management overhead. This storage class ensures cost efficiency while maintaining data durability and compliance, making it the optimal choice for archival storage in AWS.

Question 7:

A company requires a fully managed relational database service that automatically handles backups, patching, and scaling. Which AWS service should be used?

Answer:

A) Amazon RDS
B) Amazon EC2 with MySQL installed
C) Amazon DynamoDB
D) Amazon S3

Explanation:

Option A is correct. RDS provides a managed relational database service that automatically handles backups, software patching, monitoring, and scaling based on performance needs. EC2 with MySQL requires manual database management and maintenance, including backups and patching. DynamoDB is a managed NoSQL database, not relational. S3 is object storage and unsuitable for relational database workloads. Using RDS allows organizations to focus on application development while AWS manages administrative database tasks. Multi-AZ deployments in RDS ensure high availability, and Read Replicas can provide read scaling without manual configuration. RDS integrates with CloudWatch for monitoring and can be encrypted at rest using KMS. This service aligns with AWS best practices for operational efficiency, security, and reliability.

Option A is the correct choice because Amazon RDS offers a fully managed relational database solution that takes care of many operational responsibilities that teams would otherwise have to handle manually. RDS automates routine but critical tasks such as daily backups, database snapshots, minor version patching, monitoring of performance metrics, and automatic storage scaling when workloads grow. It supports several popular relational engines including MySQL, PostgreSQL, MariaDB, SQL Server, and Oracle, making it a flexible option for many different application requirements. Multi-AZ deployments provide strong availability by maintaining a synchronous standby replica in another Availability Zone, and Read Replicas allow applications to scale read-heavy workloads with minimal effort.

Option B, running MySQL on an EC2 instance, places all administrative duties on the user. Backups, fault tolerance, patching, and failover mechanisms must be implemented and maintained manually, which increases operational overhead and the risk of misconfiguration. Option C, Amazon DynamoDB, is a fully managed database as well, but it is designed for NoSQL workloads and does not support relational schemas or SQL-based queries. Option D, Amazon S3, is optimized for object storage and is not suitable for traditional transactional database operations. Because RDS delivers managed operations, strong availability features, security integrations, and easy scalability, it is the most appropriate service for organizations needing a dependable relational database without the burden of hands-on administration.

Question 8:

An application must automatically handle sudden traffic spikes without manual intervention. Which AWS service enables this capability?

Answer:

A) Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
B) Amazon S3
C) Amazon RDS
D) AWS Lambda

Explanation:

Option A is correct. EC2 Auto Scaling automatically adjusts the number of EC2 instances based on traffic or performance metrics, ensuring availability and cost optimization. S3 is storage and does not handle compute workloads. RDS scaling may require manual intervention depending on the configuration. Lambda can scale automatically but requires event-driven architectures; traditional web applications hosted on EC2 benefit most from Auto Scaling. Combining Auto Scaling with a Load Balancer provides both high availability and performance optimization, allowing applications to maintain responsiveness during unpredictable traffic surges. Auto Scaling policies can be configured for scheduled, dynamic, or predictive scaling based on historical patterns, providing operational flexibility and efficiency.

Option A is the correct choice because Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling is designed specifically to adjust the number of running EC2 instances based on changing workload conditions. When traffic suddenly increases, Auto Scaling can launch additional instances to absorb the load, and when demand drops, it can terminate unneeded instances to reduce costs. This process requires no manual involvement once configured, allowing applications to stay responsive during unexpected usage spikes. Auto Scaling also works smoothly with Elastic Load Balancing, distributing incoming requests across healthy instances so that performance remains consistent even during intense traffic periods. Organizations can configure different scaling strategies, such as dynamically responding to CloudWatch metrics, using scheduled actions for predictable patterns, or enabling predictive scaling features that anticipate demand based on historical data.

Option B, Amazon S3, provides highly durable and scalable object storage but does not process compute workloads. Option C, Amazon RDS, supports database scaling, but certain scaling activities may require manual adjustments or downtime depending on the engine and configuration. Option D, AWS Lambda, automatically scales as well, but it is best suited for event-driven or serverless architectures rather than traditional applications running on EC2. For workloads that depend on virtual servers and need seamless scaling during unpredictable spikes, EC2 Auto Scaling is the most appropriate and effective service.

Question 9:

Which AWS service allows centralized management of multiple accounts, consolidated billing, and policy enforcement across an organization?

Answer:

A) AWS Organizations
B) AWS IAM
C) AWS CloudTrail
D) AWS Config

Explanation:

Option A is correct. AWS Organizations allows a company to centrally manage multiple AWS accounts, set up consolidated billing, and enforce Service Control Policies (SCPs) across all accounts. IAM controls users and roles within an account but cannot manage multiple accounts. CloudTrail logs API activity across accounts but does not enforce policies or billing. AWS Config monitors resource configurations but does not manage accounts centrally. Using Organizations helps enforce security and compliance standards consistently across the enterprise, simplifies billing by consolidating invoices, and allows automated account creation using organizational units. It also integrates with SCPs to restrict services or actions across accounts, ensuring governance without the need for manual monitoring in each account.

Question 10:

A Solutions Architect needs to decouple components of a web application to improve fault tolerance and scalability. Which AWS service should be used?

Answer:

A) Amazon SQS
B) Amazon RDS
C) Amazon EC2
D) Amazon CloudFront

Explanation:

Option A is correct. Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS) decouples application components by allowing messages to be stored in a queue until they are processed. This prevents one component’s failure from impacting others, improving fault tolerance. RDS is a managed relational database and does not provide decoupling. EC2 is compute without inherent decoupling. CloudFront is a content delivery network. By using SQS, producers and consumers of messages can operate independently, which enhances reliability, enables scaling of individual components, and supports asynchronous processing. For example, a web server can push requests to an SQS queue, and worker servers can process messages at their own pace. This design pattern ensures system resilience, smooth handling of traffic spikes, and improved fault isolation, which is critical for building scalable, highly available architectures on AWS.

Option A is the correct answer because Amazon SQS is specifically designed to decouple application components through reliable message queuing. When components communicate directly, a failure in one layer can quickly cascade into other parts of the system. By inserting a queue between producers and consumers, SQS ensures that messages are stored safely until the receiving component is ready to process them. This approach increases overall fault tolerance since the application can continue accepting requests even if the backend processing layer is temporarily overloaded or unavailable. SQS also supports horizontal scaling, allowing multiple consumers to pull messages simultaneously to handle high workloads more efficiently. This is especially useful for applications that experience unpredictable traffic surges or have variable processing times.

Option B, Amazon RDS, focuses on relational database operations and plays no role in decoupling components. Option C, Amazon EC2, provides compute capacity but does not inherently separate system layers or manage asynchronous communication. Option D, Amazon CloudFront, accelerates content delivery across global edge locations but does not influence how internal components communicate. By using SQS, developers gain flexibility, better reliability, and improved system resilience, enabling each component to operate independently without creating bottlenecks or tight coupling. This design pattern is widely used in scalable cloud architectures to improve performance and maintain smooth operation during peak demand.

Question 11:

Which AWS service enables defining infrastructure as code for automated deployment of AWS resources?

Answer:

A) AWS CloudFormation
B) AWS Lambda
C) Amazon EC2
D) Amazon S3

Explanation:

Option A is correct. AWS CloudFormation allows users to define infrastructure as code using JSON or YAML templates, enabling automated provisioning of AWS resources in a repeatable and consistent manner. Lambda executes code but does not manage infrastructure. EC2 provides compute resources manually managed. S3 is object storage and not suitable for infrastructure automation. CloudFormation templates allow creation of multi-tier architectures with dependencies, such as VPCs, subnets, security groups, EC2 instances, RDS databases, and IAM roles, all in one automated deployment. It supports version control, auditing, and rollback capabilities, making it ideal for DevOps practices and ensuring infrastructure consistency across development, staging, and production environments.

Question 12:

A company wants to expose APIs securely with authentication and authorization without managing servers. Which AWS service should be used?

Answer:

A) Amazon API Gateway with AWS IAM or Cognito
B) Amazon EC2
C) AWS Lambda only
D) Amazon CloudFront

Explanation:

Option A is correct. API Gateway allows developers to create, deploy, and secure APIs using IAM or Amazon Cognito for authentication and authorization. EC2 requires manual server management. Lambda alone cannot expose secure APIs without API Gateway. CloudFront is a CDN for caching content and cannot handle API authentication. API Gateway provides throttling, request validation, caching, and logging, enabling secure, scalable, and serverless API endpoints. It integrates seamlessly with Lambda, allowing developers to build fully serverless applications with minimal operational overhead while ensuring secure access controls and compliance with best practices.

Option A is the correct choice because Amazon API Gateway provides a fully managed way to create, publish, secure, and monitor APIs without requiring any server management. It supports multiple authentication and authorization approaches, including IAM permissions, Amazon Cognito user pools, and custom authorizers. This gives organizations the flexibility to protect their APIs with identity-based access control, token-based user authentication, or even third-party identity providers. API Gateway also includes features such as request throttling, payload validation, caching, rate limiting, and detailed logging, all of which help maintain performance and security for applications exposed over the internet. Since it integrates seamlessly with AWS Lambda, it enables a completely serverless architecture where backend code runs only when invoked, reducing operational overhead and cost.

Option B, Amazon EC2, could host an API, but it requires teams to manage servers, patch software, and handle scaling manually, which increases complexity. Option C, AWS Lambda, cannot expose secure, public-facing APIs on its own; it needs API Gateway to provide routing, authentication, and endpoint management. Option D, Amazon CloudFront, focuses on content distribution and caching and does not provide the access control or API management features needed for secure API delivery. For a scalable and secure API layer with minimal operational effort, API Gateway combined with IAM or Cognito is the ideal solution.

Question 13:

Which Amazon RDS deployment option provides automatic multi-AZ failover for high availability?

Answer:

A) Single-AZ RDS instance
B) Multi-AZ RDS deployment
C) Read Replica RDS instance
D) RDS on EC2

Explanation:

Option B is correct. Multi-AZ RDS deployments replicate data synchronously to a standby instance in another Availability Zone. If the primary instance fails, failover occurs automatically without manual intervention, minimizing downtime. Single-AZ instances do not provide automatic failover. Read replicas are primarily for read scaling and do not provide automatic failover. RDS on EC2 requires manual replication and failover configuration. Multi-AZ deployments also integrate with automated backups and CloudWatch monitoring, ensuring data durability, availability, and operational simplicity. This configuration aligns with high-availability architecture patterns recommended by AWS.

Option B is the correct answer because a Multi-AZ RDS deployment is specifically designed to deliver high availability and automatic failover capabilities. In this setup, Amazon RDS maintains a primary database instance and a fully synchronized standby instance located in a different Availability Zone. The synchronous replication ensures that the standby consistently mirrors the primary’s data, allowing the system to switch over quickly if the primary encounters issues such as hardware failures, network disruptions, or planned maintenance. This failover process is automated and typically requires no manual action, which significantly reduces downtime and keeps applications accessible.

Option A, a Single-AZ RDS instance, operates entirely in one Availability Zone, making it vulnerable to outages in that zone and offering no automatic failover. Option C, a Read Replica, is designed to offload read-heavy workloads and improve performance for applications with many read requests, but it does not serve as a failover mechanism and uses asynchronous replication, which is not intended for high availability. Option D, running a database on EC2, gives full control over configuration but shifts all responsibility for replication, failover planning, backups, and monitoring to the user, increasing operational complexity.

A Multi-AZ RDS deployment provides a balanced, reliable, and low-maintenance approach that fits well with high-availability requirements and operational best practices in cloud architectures.

Question 14:

Which AWS service allows querying large amounts of structured or unstructured data stored in S3 using standard SQL without managing servers?

Answer:

A) Amazon Athena
B) Amazon RDS
C) Amazon Redshift
D) Amazon DynamoDB

Explanation:

Option A is correct. Athena enables serverless querying directly on S3 data using standard SQL, eliminating the need for provisioning or managing servers. RDS is relational and requires managed compute. Redshift is a data warehouse for structured data with clusters to manage. DynamoDB is NoSQL and does not support SQL queries directly. Athena integrates with Glue Data Catalog to define schemas, supports multiple formats like CSV, JSON, Parquet, and ORC, and charges only for the amount of data scanned. It is ideal for ad-hoc analytics, log analysis, and querying large datasets without upfront infrastructure costs or management overhead.

Option A is the correct answer because Amazon Athena is a fully serverless, interactive query service designed to analyze data stored in Amazon S3 using familiar SQL syntax. One of Athena’s most appealing strengths is that it requires absolutely no infrastructure management. There are no servers to configure, no clusters to tune, and no scaling concerns, since Athena automatically allocates the necessary resources behind the scenes. This makes it extremely convenient for teams that want to run queries quickly without dealing with provisioning or long-term setup. Athena supports a wide range of data formats such as CSV, JSON, Parquet, ORC, and Avro, giving users flexibility in how they store and organize their datasets. It also integrates with the AWS Glue Data Catalog, allowing schemas and metadata to be centrally managed and reused across other analytical tools.

Option B, Amazon RDS, provides managed relational databases but always operates on provisioned compute, which means users must manage instance sizes, backups, and failover configurations. It is suited for transactional applications, not direct analysis of large files in object storage. Option C, Amazon Redshift, is a high-performance data warehouse built for structured data and large-scale processing, but it requires managing clusters or using Redshift Serverless with more complex configurations than Athena. While Redshift excels at long-running analytical workloads and complex joins across massive datasets, it is not as effortless or cost-efficient for ad-hoc queries on raw S3 data. Option D, Amazon DynamoDB, is a managed NoSQL database optimized for fast key-value and document access. It does not natively support SQL queries or scanning data stored in S3.

Athena is ideal for scenarios such as log exploration, business intelligence analysis, compliance audits, and quick investigations on historical datasets. Because it charges only for the amount of data scanned, users can control costs by compressing files or using columnar formats. Its simplicity, flexibility, and serverless nature make Athena the most efficient option for querying S3 data without managing infrastructure.

Question 15:

A company wants to deliver content globally with low latency and HTTPS support. Which AWS service is most suitable?

Answer:

A) Amazon CloudFront
B) Amazon S3
C) Amazon RDS
D) AWS Direct Connect

Explanation:

Option A is correct. CloudFront caches content at global edge locations, reducing latency and providing secure delivery using HTTPS. S3 stores objects but does not provide global edge caching. RDS is a relational database and cannot deliver static content globally. Direct Connect provides private network connectivity to AWS, which is unrelated to global content delivery. CloudFront also integrates with WAF for security, supports origin failover, and can reduce load on the origin servers. It is the recommended solution for globally distributed content with low latency and secure delivery.

Option A is the correct answer because Amazon CloudFront is specifically engineered to deliver content to users around the world with consistently low latency and strong security features. CloudFront operates through a globally distributed network of edge locations that cache content closer to users. When someone requests an object, such as an image, video, API response, or web asset, CloudFront serves the content from the nearest edge location, drastically reducing round-trip time compared to fetching the data from a central origin every time. This global footprint is what makes CloudFront an optimal choice for companies that need predictable performance for a widely distributed audience.

CloudFront fully supports HTTPS, enabling encrypted delivery and protecting data as it travels across the internet. It integrates seamlessly with AWS Certificate Manager, allowing users to manage SSL/TLS certificates without additional cost or manual renewal processes. Security can be enhanced further through integration with AWS WAF, where companies can set custom rules to protect applications from malicious traffic. CloudFront also supports features like origin failover, which directs traffic to a secondary origin if the primary becomes unavailable, improving availability and resilience.

Option B, Amazon S3, is highly durable object storage and can serve static content, but it does not provide global caching or the low-latency performance achieved with CloudFront’s edge locations. Option C, Amazon RDS, is a managed relational database service and is not intended for content delivery or caching. Option D, AWS Direct Connect, provides dedicated private network connectivity between on-premises data centers and AWS but does not play a role in distributing public content or improving global latency.

CloudFront is also efficient in reducing load on the origin servers because cached content can be delivered repeatedly from edge locations without requiring every request to reach the backend. This makes applications more scalable and cost-effective. For organizations that prioritize worldwide performance, secure delivery, and operational reliability, CloudFront is the most appropriate solution among the listed options.

Question 16:

Which AWS storage solution provides block-level storage for EC2 instances and supports snapshots for backup and recovery?

Answer:

A) Amazon EBS
B) Amazon S3
C) Amazon Glacier
D) AWS Storage Gateway

Explanation:

Option A is correct. Amazon EBS provides persistent block storage for EC2 instances and supports snapshots for backup. S3 and Glacier are object storage, not block storage. Storage Gateway integrates on-premises storage with AWS but is not direct block storage for EC2. EBS supports different volume types like gp3 and io2, allowing optimization of cost and performance. Snapshots can be automated using lifecycle policies and provide point-in-time recovery, ensuring data durability. EBS integrates with AWS Backup and CloudWatch for monitoring and management.

Option A is the correct choice because Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) is designed to provide persistent, block-level storage that can be attached directly to EC2 instances. This type of storage behaves similarly to traditional hard drives or SSDs in on-premises environments, making it suitable for workloads that require low-latency, high-performance access at the block level. EBS volumes continue to persist even when an EC2 instance is stopped or restarted, which is essential for maintaining data integrity across compute lifecycle events. Another important advantage of EBS is its snapshot capability. Snapshots capture a point-in-time copy of a volume and store it in Amazon S3 internally, providing a reliable option for backup, disaster recovery, and data migration. These snapshots can be scheduled through lifecycle policies and restored into new volumes at any time, contributing to flexible and durable storage management.

Option B, Amazon S3, is an object storage service designed for storing and retrieving large amounts of unstructured data. While S3 is extremely durable and scalable, it is not intended for block-level storage or direct attachment to EC2 instances. Option C, Amazon Glacier, now Glacier Flexible Retrieval and S3 Glacier Deep Archive, is built for long-term archival storage where access is infrequent and slow retrieval times are acceptable. It is optimized for cost savings rather than serving as a primary storage layer for running compute workloads. Option D, AWS Storage Gateway, provides hybrid storage capabilities that bridge on-premises environments with AWS, offering file, volume, and tape-based interfaces, but it does not function as native block storage directly attached to EC2.

EBS also provides multiple volume types such as gp3 for general-purpose workloads and io2 for I/O-intensive applications. This allows organizations to choose the right balance of price and performance. Integration with CloudWatch and AWS Backup further enhances monitoring, automation, and centralized management. For EC2 workloads requiring dependable, high-performance block storage with snapshot support, Amazon EBS is the most appropriate solution among the listed options.

Question 17:

Which AWS service continuously identifies security vulnerabilities and deviations from best practices in EC2 instances and container images?

Answer:

A) Amazon Inspector
B) AWS CloudTrail
C) AWS Config
D) AWS Trusted Advisor

Explanation:

Option A is correct. Amazon Inspector scans EC2 instances and container images for vulnerabilities and configuration deviations. CloudTrail provides API activity logs but does not perform vulnerability assessments. Config monitors configuration compliance but does not identify security vulnerabilities in real time. Trusted Advisor offers recommendations but is not continuous scanning. Inspector generates findings with severity levels, integrates with AWS Security Hub, and supports automated remediation. Continuous vulnerability assessment allows organizations to maintain secure environments, comply with regulations, and reduce the risk of security breaches.

A company wants to continuously identify security vulnerabilities and deviations from best practices in its EC2 instances and container images. The AWS service designed specifically for this purpose is Amazon Inspector. Amazon Inspector provides automated, continuous security assessment of applications running on AWS, helping organizations detect potential vulnerabilities and misconfigurations before they can be exploited. It evaluates both the operating system and application layers for EC2 instances and scans container images stored in Amazon Elastic Container Registry (ECR), providing detailed findings with severity levels that allow security teams to prioritize remediation efforts effectively.

AWS CloudTrail, while essential for auditing API calls and maintaining activity logs, does not perform vulnerability scanning or evaluate security compliance in real time. Similarly, AWS Config focuses on monitoring resource configurations and compliance against defined rules but does not analyze security vulnerabilities or misconfigurations in application components. AWS Trusted Advisor offers best practice recommendations across cost optimization, performance, and security, but it is not designed for continuous vulnerability scanning and cannot provide the detailed, actionable insights on system-level vulnerabilities that Inspector delivers.

Inspector integrates seamlessly with AWS Security Hub and other AWS security services, enabling a centralized view of security findings and supporting automated remediation workflows. This continuous assessment capability ensures that organizations can proactively manage risks, maintain compliance with industry standards, and respond quickly to emerging threats. By incorporating Amazon Inspector into the security strategy, companies can strengthen their AWS environments, reduce exposure to attacks, and improve overall operational security without manually inspecting each instance or container. This automated, continuous, and detailed approach makes Amazon Inspector the ideal choice for organizations aiming to maintain secure, compliant, and resilient AWS workloads.

Question 18:

A company wants to enforce encryption at rest for all S3 objects automatically. Which solution achieves this?

Answer:

A) Use S3 default encryption or bucket policies
B) Manually enable encryption for each object
C) Use Amazon Macie
D) Use CloudFront

Explanation:

Option A is correct. S3 default encryption ensures that all new objects uploaded to the bucket are automatically encrypted. Bucket policies can enforce encryption requirements and block uploads that do not meet encryption standards. Manual encryption is error-prone and difficult to enforce. Macie is for data classification and sensitive data discovery, not encryption enforcement. CloudFront is a CDN and cannot manage encryption at rest. Default encryption with SSE-KMS or SSE-S3 provides strong security and compliance without requiring manual intervention, simplifying operations and improving data protection.

Question 19:

Which AWS service provides a fully managed, scalable NoSQL database with single-digit millisecond latency?

Answer:

A) Amazon DynamoDB
B) Amazon RDS
C) Amazon Redshift
D) Amazon Aurora

Explanation:

Option A is correct. DynamoDB is a fully managed NoSQL database designed for high performance, single-digit millisecond latency, and horizontal scalability. RDS is relational, Redshift is analytical, and Aurora is relational, not NoSQL. DynamoDB supports on-demand or provisioned capacity, Global Tables for multi-region replication, and integration with Lambda for serverless architectures. It is ideal for applications requiring low-latency, high-throughput read/write operations with minimal operational overhead.

A company requires a fully managed, highly scalable NoSQL database capable of providing single-digit millisecond latency for high-performance applications. Amazon DynamoDB is the AWS service that fulfills these requirements. DynamoDB is a fully managed NoSQL database that automatically handles the complexities of distributed data storage, replication, and scaling, allowing developers to focus on application logic rather than database administration. It supports both key-value and document data models, making it flexible for a wide variety of application use cases, including gaming, IoT, mobile backends, and real-time analytics.

Unlike Amazon RDS, which provides managed relational databases, DynamoDB is designed for applications requiring low-latency access to large volumes of data. RDS, while reliable and fully managed, is relational and may experience higher latencies under heavy workloads, and scaling typically involves vertical adjustments or read replicas. Amazon Redshift is an analytical data warehouse optimized for complex queries over structured data, not for low-latency transactional workloads. Similarly, Amazon Aurora is a relational database compatible with MySQL and PostgreSQL, designed for high performance within relational workloads, but it does not offer the same NoSQL flexibility or millisecond response times for high-velocity applications.

DynamoDB supports on-demand capacity mode, which automatically scales to accommodate fluctuating workloads, and provisioned capacity mode, which allows fine-grained control over throughput. Global Tables enable multi-region replication, providing low-latency access for globally distributed applications and automatic failover in case of regional disruptions. Integration with AWS Lambda allows serverless architectures where database triggers can execute functions automatically, further reducing operational overhead. With features such as DynamoDB Streams, fine-grained access control, and encryption at rest, DynamoDB offers a secure, high-performance, and resilient solution for modern applications requiring rapid, predictable, and scalable data access without the need for database management or complex infrastructure. This makes DynamoDB the optimal choice for applications demanding speed, scalability, and operational simplicity.

Question 20:

A company wants to run code in response to events without provisioning or managing servers. Which AWS service should be used?

Answer:

A) AWS Lambda
B) Amazon EC2
C) AWS Elastic Beanstalk
D) Amazon ECS

Explanation:

Option A is correct. Lambda executes code in response to events from S3, DynamoDB, Kinesis, API Gateway, and other triggers without managing servers. EC2 requires server provisioning and management. Elastic Beanstalk manages applications but provisions underlying servers. ECS orchestrates containers, which require cluster management. Lambda is ideal for serverless architectures, automatic scaling, and pay-per-use pricing, allowing developers to focus on code and business logic rather than infrastructure. Event-driven designs with Lambda improve agility, reduce operational overhead, and support microservices architectures.