VMware 2V0-21.23 vSphere 8.x Professional Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 5 Q81-100

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Question 81: 

A vSphere administrator notices that several workloads experience degraded performance after enabling vSphere Lifecycle Manager image-based management on a cluster. What is the most likely cause?

A) The cluster entered remediation mode and hosts temporarily ran with reduced capacity
B) The image does not include the correct vendor add-on required for optimal device performance
C) Storage policies became invalid and forced automatic VM migrations
D) DRS disabled resource pools during baseline recalculation

Answer: B) The image does not include the correct vendor add-on required for optimal device performance

Explanation: 

When evaluating the first possibility, it is important to understand the behavior of hosts when moving through the remediation process under lifecycle control. A cluster can experience reduced compute availability during transitions, but this reduction only occurs while the process is actively running. Once the remediation step completes, cluster capacity returns to normal levels. Because the performance issues continue even after lifecycle operations cease, this scenario does not align well with the long-term symptoms being observed.

A second perspective focuses on the importance of hardware compatibility when relying on centralized image definitions. A well-constructed image typically contains a base hypervisor version, supplemental components, and manufacturer-specific packages responsible for device optimization. These packages often include drivers, firmware coordination mechanisms, and enhancements required for achieving full throughput. When such elements are missing or mismatched, underlying devices such as NICs, storage adapters, or accelerators may fall back to generic modules that do not expose full feature sets. This can lead to degraded responsiveness, higher latency, or reduced bandwidth across workloads running on affected systems. Consistent degradation rather than short-term disruption is a notable indicator of this condition.

The third scenario involves policy-driven automation in storage frameworks. Invalidated policies could trigger virtual machine movement, but these movements primarily occur at policy application time rather than continuously. Additionally, storage transitions typically generate identifiable events and are unlikely to manifest as persistent cluster-wide slowdown without explicit alerts. This reduces the probability that storage policy misalignment is the central factor.

The final scenario considers dynamic cluster management features that distribute compute resources. Resource pools are not normally suppressed by dynamic management recalculation, and these constructs remain present unless modified manually by an administrator. Even in cases of recalculation or rebalancing, virtual machines maintain defined entitlements rather than experiencing ongoing detrimental effects solely due to recalculation activities.

The most coherent explanation is that the image-based management configuration lacks an essential manufacturer-specific component set. In such circumstances, device-level functionality remains operational but may run under limited capability conditions, contributing to generalized performance problems across workloads. Restoring the correct manufacturer package resolves the mismatch and restores optimal hardware utilization.

Question 82: 

A vSphere administrator wants to migrate a virtual machine with a connected USB device to another host using vMotion. What is required for the migration to succeed?

A) The USB device must be configured using USB passthrough backed by a network-based USB service
B) The virtual machine must be powered off prior to migration
C) The USB device must be disconnected during migration
D) The USB controller type must be changed to the latest supported version

Answer: A) The USB device must be configured using USB passthrough backed by a network-based USB service

Explanation: 

The first scenario involves using remote connectivity capabilities to expose peripheral devices across the network. Modern virtualization platforms allow attaching physical devices to virtual machines through network-backed mechanisms, enabling mobility without relying on local host hardware. When such configurations are used, the attachment no longer depends on physical proximity to a particular host, allowing seamless movement during live migration processes. This approach ensures full mobility while retaining access to the required peripheral device.

The second scenario requires examining whether powering down an environment is necessary. Moving workloads between hosts without interruption is a fundamental capability, and many features are designed so applications can continue running through infrastructure adjustments. Powering down interrupts running services, which defeats the purpose of live migration. Because vMotion is built specifically to support mobility without shutdown, requiring a power-off is contrary to the intended functionality and therefore not correct.

The third scenario suggests manual removal of peripherals prior to movement. While disconnecting accessories may make a virtual machine portable, it results in losing the functionality provided by the device. Environments requiring persistent access to USB-based hardware would experience disruption if attachment is interrupted. Removing the device does not align with the need to retain continuous access and thus would not meet expectations for seamless migration.

The final scenario involves changing the controller associated with device management within the virtual machine. While updating controllers can influence compatibility with various configurations, it does not fundamentally solve the core limitation associated with physical host dependency. A controller update does not provide a mechanism for remote accessibility, so mobility remains constrained despite upgrading. Updating the controller alone does not render a locally attached device transferable during a live movement.

The correct resolution involves deploying a network-backed mechanism for peripheral access. Such an arrangement allows the device connection to remain stable throughout the migration because it does not depend on local hardware resources of the source or destination host. This permits a virtual machine to maintain uninterrupted access to the USB peripheral while benefiting from the mobility features provided by the virtualization infrastructure.

Question 83: 

A virtual machine running on vSphere 8 is configured with a virtual TPM. What must be true for the virtual machine to migrate successfully using vMotion?

A) Both hosts must use the same key provider configuration
B) The destination host must use CPU hardware from the same manufacturer
C) The virtual machine must be encrypted in full
D) The VM storage must reside on vSAN

Answer: A) Both hosts must use the same key provider configuration

Explanation: 

The first scenario highlights the importance of consistent cryptographic frameworks across hosts participating in workload movement. A trusted module relies on identifiers, certificates, and key materials that are protected through external key management systems. When these systems differ across hosts, the trusted module cannot be safely reconstructed during migration. Ensuring alignment between participating hosts allows secure transfer of the protected state, enabling uninterrupted operation through the migration process.

Analyzing the second scenario involves understanding processor compatibility requirements for mobility. While matching processor families can simplify specific functionalities, virtualization platforms include extensive mechanisms to mask variations and broaden compatibility between different architectures from the same or different vendors. Processor uniformity is not a requirement for trusted module migration, because its operation is decoupled from CPU vendor differences. Therefore, this factor is not the determining requirement in this context.

The third scenario introduces the idea that complete encryption is necessary. Trusted module functionality does integrate with encryption frameworks, but full encryption is not a mandatory prerequisite. The trusted module itself can exist independently of full encryption, enabling secure operations without requiring every aspect of the workload to be protected. Encrypting everything increases security, but migration can succeed without enforcing full encryption.

The fourth scenario explores dependency on a specific storage platform. While integrated storage systems offer advantages in distributing stateful information, they are not required for trusted components to move successfully. Trusted configurations can be used with various storage platforms as long as the cryptographic protections remain intact during migration. The underlying storage does not need to be limited to a single type of storage technology to allow a trusted environment to migrate correctly.

Therefore, consistent key provider alignment is essential for successful movement of workloads that rely on trusted components. Without this alignment, the destination host cannot validate or rebuild the protected elements needed for proper operation. This consistency ensures continuity and security throughout the migration process.

Question 84: 

An administrator needs to deploy a new ESXi host and ensure that it automatically joins a cluster with image-based lifecycle management. What must be done to meet the requirement?

A) Configure the host to use a host profile derived from another cluster member
B) Set the cluster to automatically manage all hosts using the assigned image
C) Pre-register the host hardware in vCenter before installation
D) Deploy the host using scripted installation only

Answer: B) Set the cluster to automatically manage all hosts using the assigned image

Explanation: 

The first scenario examines whether adopting host configuration templates provides automatic integration. Templates ensure consistency across deployments, offering a straightforward method to align networking, storage, and security parameters. However, these templates mainly govern operational settings rather than integration logic for automated enrollment into lifecycle systems. They help ensure similarity but do not inherently enable automatic assignment of image-based policies.

The second scenario focuses on centralized governance of system software versions and associated components. A cluster configured to apply a specific image instructs newly added nodes to conform automatically. When a node joins, the cluster evaluates alignment with the established software definition, imposing remediation as necessary. Enabling automated management ensures that new nodes immediately adopt the cluster image, thereby satisfying the requirement for seamless enrollment.

The third scenario involves the idea of pre-registration within the management environment. While adding systems early can streamline oversight or prepare permissions, it does not enforce automatic association with a lifecycle policy. Registration alone does not guarantee enrollment, because lifecycle policies bind at the cluster level and require specific configuration settings to enable automatic governance.

The fourth scenario considers installation methods as a trigger for automated integration. Scripted installation can provide benefits for reproducibility and speed, but it does not inherently communicate with cluster-level lifecycle management settings. The method of installation does not determine whether a node automatically becomes managed through image-based mechanisms. Automation requires a cluster configured to enforce image-based control rather than reliance on installation methods alone.

Thus, enabling cluster-level automation ensures that all nodes entering the environment conform to the established image lifecycle strategy. This allows consistent application of software definitions without requiring manual assignment or remediation steps by administrators.

Question 85: 

A vSphere administrator must configure DRS to avoid moving a specific critical virtual machine unless absolutely necessary. Which feature should be used?

A) Set the virtual machine automation level to disabled
B) Use VM/Host affinity rules
C) Apply a latency sensitivity high configuration
D) Create a resource pool with reservations

Answer: A) Set the virtual machine automation level to disabled

Explanation: 

The first scenario addresses how to limit dynamic movement performed by cluster balancing mechanisms. Disabling movement at the individual workload level instructs the system not to relocate it automatically during rebalancing activities. This respects the desire to minimize relocation unless a migration is explicitly initiated by an administrator. Such a configuration preserves performance predictability and prevents automated adjustments from impacting mission-critical workloads.

The second scenario invokes pairing mechanisms between workloads and physical nodes. While this provides strong guidance regarding placement, it also restricts flexibility and may inadvertently force movements or constraints that are incompatible with balancing behavior. Affinity constructs define relationships between workloads and hosts but do not prevent movements entirely. They guide placement rather than eliminating automated mobility logic.

The third scenario concerns tuning workload sensitivity to real-time requirements. Configuring sensitivity affects scheduling patterns and ensures appropriate handling of latency-critical operations. However, this tuning does not restrict workload migration. A sensitive workload may still move unless other controls are applied. Sensitivity ensures proper scheduling behavior, not migration metadata or automation policy restrictions.

The fourth scenario involves creating protected resource guarantees. Reserving capacity ensures predictable access to compute resources but does not govern movement decisions. Even highly reserved workloads can be relocated if cluster balancing logic determines that movement supports a better load distribution. Reservations address resource availability, not the frequency or conditions of relocation.

Selecting the appropriate mechanism for preventing automated relocation requires focusing on settings that directly adjust the balancing engine’s behavior. Disabling automated movement at the workload level ensures that balancing algorithms ignore the workload when redistributing demand across cluster nodes. This approach provides the greatest control over mobility without interfering with resource management objectives across other workloads.

Question 86:

An administrator wants to use Fault Tolerance for a virtual machine with 8 vCPUs. What must be ensured before enabling FT?

A) The ESXi hosts must support FT up to the required CPU count
B) The virtual machine must have a paravirtual SCSI controller
C) The storage must be backed by vSAN
D) The virtual machine must be encrypted

Answer: A) The ESXi hosts must support FT up to the required CPU count

Explanation: 

The first scenario centers on platform capability. Technologies that mirror execution require support from both compute and virtualization layers. High vCPU configurations demand more advanced mechanisms and hardware features compared to smaller workloads. If the hosts lack the capacity to sustain heavily mirrored execution, the environment cannot maintain primary and secondary workloads efficiently. Ensuring platform readiness is therefore essential to successful activation of protection features.

The second scenario examines whether specialized I/O controllers play a role. While certain storage adapters may be advantageous in some settings, they do not influence the foundational requirements of mirrored execution. Ensuring storage functionality is important, but controller type does not determine eligibility for this protection mechanism.

The third scenario explores dependency on a particular storage platform. Mirroring execution states is chiefly a compute-focused feature rather than a storage-focused one. The protection mechanism requires reliable storage access but is not tied to a specific distributed storage solution. Various storage platforms can support the protected configuration without restricting its initiation.

The fourth scenario looks at encryption considerations. While encrypted workloads require additional steps to ensure successful protection, encryption itself is not a requirement. Workloads can be protected regardless of encryption status as long as the hosts support the necessary protection capabilities and key management infrastructure when encryption is involved. The primary criteria remain hardware and platform capability, not encryption status.

For these reasons, verifying host capability is the essential preparatory step. Without adequate support for mirrored execution at the desired scale, the protection feature cannot be enabled. Assessing and meeting these requirements ensures proper operation of high-CPU-count protection.

Question 87: 

A security team requires logging of all administrative actions performed in vCenter, including changes made by API scripts. Which feature satisfies this requirement?

A) Enhanced logging via the vCenter audit log
B) ESXi syslog forwarding
C) VMkernel logging
D) DRS event tracking

Answer: A) Enhanced logging via the vCenter audit log

Explanation: 

The first scenario focuses on a centralized repository for administrative events. Comprehensive logging capabilities capture interactions performed through both user interfaces and automated interfaces. These capabilities maintain detailed entries of configuration changes, authentication activity, and privilege usage. Capturing script-based interactions as well as manual changes is essential for compliance and audit trails. This capability aligns precisely with the requirement for full visibility into administrative activity across the management environment.

The second scenario centers on host-level log forwarding features. These mechanisms are effective in transferring system-level events to remote collectors such as security information platforms. However, the focus of these logs is primarily on host operations rather than administrative actions carried out through centralized management systems. They highlight storage, networking, and system-level warnings but do not capture the breadth of administrative actions performed through management interfaces.

The third scenario focuses on hypervisor-level operational logging. These logs cover low-level functions of the hypervisor kernel, including device drivers, memory scheduling activities, and storage interactions. While valuable for troubleshooting performance or stability, they do not reflect management-layer administrative changes. Such logs lack the visibility needed to track configuration actions occurring through centralized management systems.

The fourth scenario considers cluster-level events related to workload balancing. These events highlight task execution related to workload placement and cluster optimization. While important for operational awareness, they do not track management activities, scripting interactions, or administrative actions made within configuration interfaces. They do not satisfy audit requirements for visibility into administrative control.

Thus, comprehensive management-level logging is essential for meeting organizational oversight requirements. Management-layer logs provide the necessary scope, capturing both manual and automated administrative interactions across the environment.

Question 88: 

A virtual machine requires direct access to a physical PCIe device using DirectPath I/O. Which condition must be met before the configuration can be applied?

A) The device must support hardware-assisted virtualization mapping
B) The virtual machine must be encrypted
C) The device must be attached to a distributed switch
D) The host must have vSAN enabled

Answer: A) The device must support hardware-assisted virtualization mapping

Explanation: 

The first scenario examines a fundamental requirement for exposing physical hardware directly to virtualized workloads. Direct assignment relies on hardware-level features that allow safe sharing or partitioning of devices. These features are implemented through the system firmware and hardware architecture to permit direct communication between the workload and the device without circumventing isolation boundaries. Without such support, the platform cannot safely assign physical components directly to workloads.

The second scenario focuses on encryption considerations. While encryption enhances security, it does not dictate eligibility for direct hardware assignment. Direct hardware access is controlled by compatibility matrices, device capabilities, and host-level settings. Encryption does not restrict assignments, nor does it enable them.

The third scenario emphasizes networking constructs. However, exposing a physical device directly does not rely on virtual networking infrastructure. Instead, it bypasses virtualization-based device emulation altogether. Therefore, it is not reliant on distributed switching or virtual networking configuration. Device assignment occurs at a hardware mapping level rather than a virtual network layer.

The fourth scenario discusses a particular type of distributed storage. While this storage platform integrates closely with virtual infrastructure, it does not influence direct hardware mapping. Workload access to physical devices is independent of the storage platform used by the host and does not require the host to participate in specific distributed storage solutions.

Ensuring hardware capability for safe assignment remains the central requirement. Without proper hardware support, the mechanism cannot operate safely or effectively. Therefore, it is necessary to confirm full support for hardware-assisted mapping features before enabling direct assignment.

Question 89: 

An administrator wants to migrate a powered-on virtual machine between two clusters that do not share the same distributed switch. Which technology allows a successful migration?

A) Cross-vCenter vMotion with network mapping
B) Cold migration
C) Storage vMotion only
D) Replication-based migration

Answer: A) Cross-vCenter vMotion with network mapping

Explanation: 

The first scenario introduces a migration capability that allows workloads to move between environments with differing or mismatched network constructs. By defining mappings between network segments during migration, connectivity can be preserved even when environments differ. This technology allows seamless transitions across operational boundaries, enabling full mobility for powered-on workloads in heterogeneous network configurations. The mapping process ensures that workload connectivity remains intact without requiring identical switch structures.

The second scenario focuses on powered-off movement. Although functional for workloads not currently running, it does not address the need to move a running system actively delivering service. It requires downtime and thus contradicts requirements for mobility without interruption. Therefore, it does not provide a viable mechanism for this scenario.

The third scenario pertains to storage-based movement. While storage components can move independently of compute placement, storage movement alone does not relocate the running execution environment. It cannot facilitate compute relocation when networks differ fundamentally. This method is insufficient for maintaining continuity of a running workload across clusters.

The fourth scenario addresses asynchronous movement facilitated by replication tools. While replication offers a means to synchronize state between environments, transitioning between replicas typically requires a cutover and restart. This process introduces downtime and does not preserve continuous operation for a running workload. As such, it is not aligned with the objective of seamless live migration.

Thus, using a mechanism that incorporates network mapping enables workload relocation between differing network environments while preserving service continuity. It allows the administrator to remap connectivity appropriately and maintain operational availability throughout the movement process.

Question 90: 

A vSphere administrator is configuring a cluster that hosts workloads requiring guaranteed memory performance. Which feature ensures that virtual machines always receive their allocated memory even during contention?

A) Memory reservation
B) Shares set to high
C) Ballooning disabled
D) Transparent page sharing enabled

Answer: A) Memory reservation

Explanation: 

The first scenario ensures predictable resource availability by guaranteeing access to a defined amount of memory regardless of system load. This approach prevents resource reclamation mechanisms from reducing allocated memory beneath the guaranteed threshold. It is particularly beneficial for workloads that cannot tolerate fluctuations in memory access times or capacity. By securing the required amount of physical memory, these workloads maintain stability even under contention.

The second scenario focuses on prioritizing workloads when contention occurs. Priority mechanisms determine which workloads receive preferential access to resources when shortages arise. Although high priority increases the likelihood of receiving resources during contention, it does not guarantee allocation. Competing high-priority workloads or extreme contention may still undermine the ability to satisfy requirements consistently.

The third scenario examines disabling a reclamation mechanism that selectively removes memory from idle workloads to distribute resources efficiently. Although disabling this mechanism can reduce overhead and potentially improve predictability, it does not enforce guaranteed access. Contention may still occur through other reclamation methods, and the absence of this mechanism does not ensure stable memory capacity.

The fourth scenario considers a memory optimization method that consolidates duplicate memory pages between workloads. While this technique reduces consumption, it does not guarantee resource levels. It may offer efficiency advantages but does not shield workloads from contention. Availability still depends on overall demand and physical capacity.

Guaranteeing consistent access to memory requires a mechanism that secures physical memory for workloads, ensuring stability even when contention arises. This approach provides the necessary predictability for sensitive workloads that require consistent performance.

Question 91: 

A vSphere administrator wants to ensure that a cluster running critical workloads always restarts powered-off virtual machines in a predictable order after a host outage. Which feature should be configured to meet this requirement?

A) vSphere HA Restart Priority
B) vSphere DRS VM/Host Rules
C) vSphere Storage I/O Control
D) vSphere Proactive HA

Answer: A) vSphere HA Restart Priority

Explanation: 

vSphere HA Restart Priority is designed specifically for controlling the order in which virtual machines are brought back online after a failure in a cluster. By assigning different priority levels to different workloads, it becomes possible to ensure that essential systems power on before those that are less critical. This provides predictability and structured recovery in environments that require strict sequencing. It is commonly used for multi-tier applications, database systems, or infrastructures dependent on support services that must be restored before dependent applications can come online. Because the behavior directly controls power-on order, it aligns closely with the stated requirement.

vSphere DRS VM/Host Rules are primarily used to influence placement and load balancing behavior across hosts in a DRS-enabled cluster. These rules may ensure that related workloads stay together or separate, or that specific virtual machines run on designated hosts. They do not control startup sequencing after host failure recovery. Their purpose focuses on resource scheduling, ensuring efficient cluster balance and workload affinity rather than establishing a structured order of powering on machines after outage recovery. Therefore, they do not meet the specific requirement.

vSphere Storage I/O Control is a datastore-level mechanism used to keep storage performance fair by throttling lower-priority workloads during periods of contention. It is entirely unrelated to power-on sequence, recovery order, or host restart behavior. It cannot enforce structured boot ordering or influence how virtual machines behave following cluster disruptions. Its purpose centers on I/O prioritization, ensuring storage performance equity across virtual machines rather than coordinating recovery activity.

vSphere Proactive HA works by responding to hardware degradation signals before host failure occurs. It may place a host into quarantine or maintenance mode to avoid disruption to running workloads. While it improves cluster resilience, it does not orchestrate virtual machine startup order following failures. Its primary goal involves avoiding downtime through preventive actions, whereas the requirement focuses specifically on structured recovery sequencing. Because it cannot assign relative boot importance between workloads, it does not satisfy the stated objective.

The correct choice, therefore, is the feature that directly controls the required behavior: vSphere HA Restart Priority.

Question 92: 

A vSphere administrator needs to reduce storage consumption for virtual machines running on VMFS datastores without migrating them. Which feature should be enabled?

A) Space reclamation
B) vSphere Replication
C) Storage vMotion
D) Datastore clusters

Answer: A) Space reclamation

Explanation: 

Space reclamation allows VMFS datastores to recover unused blocks from thin-provisioned virtual disks and return this space to the storage array. When virtual machines delete files or free up blocks internally, the datastore may still consider that space allocated. The reclamation mechanism identifies these unused regions and informs the underlying storage system that the blocks can be cleared. This reduces the overall consumption of physical storage space without requiring virtual machine migration or the use of other storage-related operations. Its value lies in improving efficiency and maintaining optimal utilization levels across thin-provisioned environments.

vSphere Replication serves a completely different function. It continuously or periodically copies virtual machine data to another location for disaster recovery. While useful in preparing for failover scenarios, it does not reduce storage use; in fact, it increases storage requirements by creating a replicated copy at a secondary location. Because it does not reclaim unused space nor optimize thin-provisioned disks, it does not meet the stated need.

Storage vMotion provides a method to migrate virtual machine files between different datastores without downtime. Although it can place a virtual machine onto more efficient storage systems or convert disk formats as part of the migration process, it does not actually reclaim unused blocks on the existing datastore. The requirement explicitly states avoiding migration, and this technique would not resolve the consumption problem without relocating files, making it unsuitable for the scenario.

Datastore clusters aggregate multiple datastores and enable automated placement and balancing decisions based on usage patterns. They help distribute workloads across storage resources but do not inherently reclaim unused space within a datastore. They optimize allocation but do not clean up internal fragmentation or restore thin-provisioned block capacity. Because reducing storage consumption is the primary objective, this cannot provide the required functionality.

The method that directly restores free capacity to the underlying array is the use of space reclamation, making it the appropriate solution.

Question 93: 

A vSphere administrator must ensure that virtual machines automatically receive additional vCPU resources during periods of high demand but return to their initial allocation when no longer needed. Which feature meets this requirement?

A) vSphere Dynamic Resource Scaling
B) vSphere Distributed Resource Scheduler
C) vSphere CPU Hot-Add
D) VM Autostart Manager

Answer: B) vSphere Distributed Resource Scheduler

Explanation: 

vSphere Distributed Resource Scheduler provides automated balancing of CPU and memory resources across hosts in a cluster. It reacts to resource contention by intelligently placing or migrating virtual machines using workload placement logic. Rather than adding or removing vCPUs, it shifts workloads to hosts that have available resources, effectively increasing the compute capacity available to each machine during peak periods. Once contention subsides, the cluster naturally rebalances. This fulfills the requirement of delivering additional compute access automatically while returning to normal allocation afterward, all without manual adjustments.

vSphere Dynamic Resource Scaling refers to a concept that is not an established feature within vSphere. It may sound related to resource elasticity, but it does not represent a control within the product that provides real-time CPU allocation changes. Therefore, it cannot satisfy the requirement of automatically expanding and reducing compute allocation based on workload behavior.

vSphere CPU Hot-Add allows administrators to add additional vCPUs to a virtual machine while it is running. Although helpful for scaling, it requires manual configuration and does not automatically revert changes when demand decreases. It also requires guest operating system support and must be enabled before use. Because the demand is for automated behavior that adds and removes compute access dynamically, this mechanism is not a suitable match.

VM Autostart Manager focuses on defining startup and shutdown order for virtual machines on standalone hosts. It does not provide dynamic compute scaling nor react to resource contention. It ensures that workloads come online in a specific sequence after a host reboot, unrelated to compute allocation or responsiveness to utilization changes. Therefore, it cannot meet the need for automated resource responsiveness.

Because the requirement is specifically about providing additional compute during peak demand and releasing it afterward in an automated fashion, the suitable feature is vSphere Distributed Resource Scheduler.

Question 94: 

A vSphere administrator wants to minimize the impact of maintenance operations on critical production workloads by relocating them to healthier hosts before hardware servicing begins. Which feature facilitates this?

A) Proactive HA
B) Fault Tolerance
C) Storage I/O Control
D) vSphere Replication

Answer: A) Proactive HA

Explanation: 

Proactive HA is designed to detect hardware degradation signals before a host actually fails. When triggered, it can place the affected host in a quarantine or maintenance-like state, encouraging vSphere Distributed Resource Scheduler to migrate virtual machines to healthier hosts. This behavior minimizes disruption to workloads by proactively moving them away from components that may soon require servicing. It ensures greater uptime and resilience by acting before the problem becomes severe. Because the aim is to mitigate maintenance impact through early migration, this functionality directly supports the requirement.

Fault Tolerance provides continuous availability by creating a secondary instance of a virtual machine on another host. While this enables zero-downtime failover in case of host failure, it does not proactively move workloads ahead of planned servicing. Instead, it focuses on providing instantaneous failover without interruptions. Because it is designed for operational continuity, not preemptive mobility, it does not align with the requirement to relocate machines before maintenance.

Storage I/O Control regulates storage throughput on shared datastores to prevent domination by aggressive workloads. It manages fairness of I/O resources during congestion but does not affect host health state or workload migration in anticipation of service needs. Functionally, it is unrelated to maintenance coordination and cannot help move workloads before servicing operations.

vSphere Replication creates a copy of virtual machines at a remote location for disaster recovery. Its purpose is to protect against site-level events, not optimize maintenance behavior or host placement. It does not automatically migrate workloads before maintenance and therefore does not meet the operational requirement.

The capability that responds to early warning indicators and preemptively relocates workloads is Proactive HA, making it the correct answer.

Question 95: 

A vSphere administrator must quickly revert a virtual machine to a known working state after testing software updates. Which feature should be used?

A) Snapshots
B) Content Library
C) vSphere Replication
D) Storage vMotion

Answer: A) Snapshots

Explanation: 

Snapshots are intended for preserving the state of a virtual machine at a specific point in time, including memory, disk, and power status. They allow administrators to roll back changes quickly when testing software patches, upgrades, or configurations. Because reverting to a known state is the core purpose of this mechanism, it directly fulfills the requirement. It is commonly used in operational scenarios where short-term restoration capability is necessary, especially in test or development contexts.

Content Library facilitates sharing templates, OVFs, ISO images, and other deployment artifacts across environments. While valuable for standardized provisioning, it does not save runtime states of existing virtual machines. It cannot return a machine to a prior condition after updates. Instead, it focuses on distribution of deployment objects.

vSphere Replication enables protection by copying virtual machine data to another location. It allows restoring a machine in the event of a failure, but the recovery points are controlled by replication scheduling and are not intended for frequent, rapid rollback. Additionally, restoring from replication points is far more disruptive and time-consuming than reverting through internal mechanisms such as snapshots. Therefore, it does not provide the simplicity or immediacy needed for this scenario.

Storage vMotion moves virtual machine disk files between datastores. While powerful for balancing storage resources or migrating workloads without downtime, it does not capture execution state and cannot restore previous configurations. It purely relocates storage objects and does not function as a versioning tool for VM states.

The mechanism specifically designed for temporary rollback and testing workflows is snapshots, making it the appropriate answer.

Question 96: 

A vSphere administrator must configure a cluster to ensure that virtual machines from different departments do not run on the same hosts while still allowing load balancing within each group. Which feature should be used?

A) DRS Anti-Affinity Rules
B) HA Admission Control
C) Proactive HA
D) EVC Mode

Answer: A) DRS Anti-Affinity Rules

Explanation: 

DRS Anti-Affinity Rules define placement policies ensuring certain virtual machines are separated across hosts. When applied to departmental workloads, these rules guarantee that workloads belonging to different groups do not reside on the same hosts. At the same time, DRS involvement ensures that balancing still occurs within the permitted boundaries. These rules provide clear separation for compliance, security, or administrative purposes. Because the requirement involves mutual exclusion across hosts while retaining mobility within each group, this mechanism aligns directly with the stated need.

HA Admission Control focuses on ensuring that a cluster retains sufficient resources to restart workloads after a failure. It governs how much capacity must remain reserved but does not influence host placement rules for virtual machines during normal operation. It cannot enforce departmental separation nor influence load balancing behavior, making it unsuitable for this scenario.

Proactive HA responds to hardware degradation signals and preemptively migrates workloads. It does not implement separation policies or enforce structured placement rules. Its function is health-based, not organizational or compliance-based. As a result, it does not meet the requirement for defining departmental separation.

EVC Mode ensures CPU compatibility across hosts in a cluster by masking processor features. Although essential for vMotion compatibility, it does not affect virtual machine placement rules or prevent workloads from sharing hosts. It ensures mobility but not separation, therefore cannot achieve the required behavior.

Because the requirement explicitly involves separation of workloads across hosts with continued balancing within designated groups, DRS Anti-Affinity Rules are the appropriate choice.

Question 97: 

A vSphere administrator wants to allow a virtual machine to access a physical device directly for performance-critical operations. Which feature enables this?

A) DirectPath I/O
B) Paravirtual SCSI Controller
C) vSphere NVMe Controller
D) vSphere Memory Hot-Add

Answer: A) DirectPath I/O

Explanation: 

DirectPath I/O enables virtual machines to access hardware devices directly by bypassing the hypervisor. This is used when extremely low-latency or high-throughput performance is required. The hypervisor assigns a physical PCI device to a virtual machine, allowing near bare-metal operation. This approach is common for high-performance network adapters, specialized hardware, or devices requiring direct access. Because the requirement specifies that a physical device must be accessed directly, this mechanism provides the correct capability.

Paravirtual SCSI Controller is optimized for disk performance and enhances virtualized storage throughput. It improves efficiency within the virtual storage stack but does not provide direct access to physical devices. It remains entirely within the virtual hardware environment and therefore does not satisfy the stated need.

vSphere NVMe Controller allows virtual machines to emulate NVMe storage controllers for enhanced virtual disk performance. Although helpful in improving storage I/O, it does not link directly to physical devices. It remains part of virtual hardware abstraction and is not intended for device passthrough.

vSphere Memory Hot-Add allows adding memory to virtual machines while powered on. This improves flexibility in scaling workloads but has no relationship to accessing physical devices or performance-critical hardware passthrough. Its functionality centers on resource flexibility, not device access.

The only feature that permits direct access to a physical device is DirectPath I/O.

Question 98: 

A vSphere administrator needs to ensure that a stretched cluster maintains data consistency and availability across two sites even when one site becomes isolated. Which capability should be implemented?

A) vSAN Witness
B) Storage vMotion
C) Fault Tolerance
D) vSphere Replication

Answer: A) vSAN Witness

Explanation: 

A vSAN Witness is essential for maintaining quorum in stretched cluster environments. It acts as a tiebreaker when connectivity between the two data sites is lost. By participating in voting, it ensures that only one site continues operating to avoid data divergence. Maintaining consistency and preventing split-brain scenarios is crucial when a site becomes isolated. The Witness object ensures deterministic behavior and continuous service availability. Because the requirement is explicitly about maintaining consistency in a stretched configuration, this mechanism is the correct match.

Storage vMotion enables live migration of virtual disks between datastores but does not provide protection against site isolation or data consistency risks. It cannot address quorum or maintain correctness in a dual-site architecture. Its value lies in mobility, not cluster integrity.

Fault Tolerance creates duplicate running copies of virtual machines across hosts. While it offers zero-downtime failover, it is not designed to maintain site-level consistency for stretched architectures and does not provide voting or quorum mechanisms. It does not protect against split-brain conditions and therefore cannot fulfill the stated requirement.

vSphere Replication creates copies of virtual machines at another site but is asynchronous and not suited for maintaining synchronous consistency across sites. It does not participate in quorum decisions nor prevent both sites from acting independently when isolated. It allows recovery but not real-time consistency across stretched clusters.

Because the need is specific to quorum and data consistency in stretched setups, the appropriate capability is vSAN Witness.

Question 99: 

A vSphere administrator wants to estimate the impact of applying a host patch before deploying it to production and ensure compatibility with existing hardware and drivers. Which tool should be used?

A) vSphere Update Manager Compatibility Report
B) vSphere Replication
C) Host Profiles
D) Auto Deploy

Answer: A) vSphere Update Manager Compatibility Report

Explanation: 

The vSphere Update Manager Compatibility Report evaluates host patches, updates, and extensions for compatibility with hardware, drivers, and existing configurations. It provides insight into potential conflicts, missing dependencies, or incompatible components. By reviewing this before patching, administrators can prevent outages caused by unsupported configurations. Because the requirement emphasizes estimating impact and evaluating compatibility before applying updates, this tool matches the need precisely.

vSphere Replication does not evaluate host compatibility. It provides virtual machine protection and disaster recovery replication. It plays no role in patch analysis or hardware validation.

Host Profiles ensure consistent host configuration by capturing and applying standardized settings across multiple hosts. They maintain configuration conformity but do not analyze patch compatibility or evaluate impact of upgrades on hardware.

Auto Deploy provisions hosts using network-based deployment rules. It helps streamline host lifecycle management but does not provide compatibility assessments concerning patches. Its focus is imaging and provisioning, not pre-update compatibility evaluation.

The only tool that directly performs compatibility checks for patches is the vSphere Update Manager Compatibility Report.

Question 100: 

A vSphere administrator must ensure that workloads remain online during a storage device failure by mirroring data across capacity devices within the same vSAN disk group. Which vSAN storage policy rule enables this?

A) Failures to Tolerate (RAID-1)
B) Striping
C) Compression
D) Deduplication

Answer: A) Failures to Tolerate (RAID-1)

Explanation: 

Failures to Tolerate (RAID-1) creates mirrored copies of virtual machine data across multiple devices. This ensures that when one device fails, another copy remains accessible. Within a single disk group, mirroring maintains availability and prevents disruption to workloads. It aligns exactly with the requirement to stay online during a device-level failure and is used frequently in environments that prioritize availability over capacity efficiency. RAID-1 configurations provide redundancy by keeping full duplicates of data, guaranteeing resilience to component failures.

Striping distributes data across multiple devices to improve performance. Although it increases throughput, it does not create redundant copies. When a single device fails under a striped configuration, data becomes unavailable because each segment contributes partial blocks. Therefore, striping does not meet the requirement for remaining online during a device failure.

Compression reduces the amount of space consumed by stored data. While beneficial for capacity savings, it does not address redundancy and cannot protect against device failure. Data availability remains unchanged regardless of compression settings.

Deduplication eliminates redundant data patterns across devices to improve efficiency. Although helpful for reducing storage consumption, it does not provide additional resilience. If a device storing deduplicated blocks fails without mirroring or other redundancy mechanisms, data is lost. Therefore, it cannot meet the requirement for high availability.

The only mechanism that provides protection through mirroring across devices is Failures to Tolerate using RAID-1.