LPI 010-160 Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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010-160 LPI Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

What are the differences between hard disk drives and solid state disks? (Choose two.)

A. Hard disks have a motor and moving parts, solid state disks do not.
B. Hard disks can fail due to physical damage, while solid state disks cannot fail.
C. Solid state disks can store many times as much data as hard disk drives.
D. /dev/sda is a hard disk device while /dev/ssda is a solid state disk.
E. Solid state disks provide faster access to stored data than hard disks.

Correct Answer: A, E

Explanation:

The primary differences between hard disk drives (HDDs) and solid state disks (SSDs) revolve around their physical construction, performance, and reliability.

A. Hard disks have a motor and moving parts, solid state disks do not.
This statement is correct. Hard disk drives rely on mechanical components to function. They have platters that spin at high speeds, and a read/write head that moves across the surface to access data. These moving parts make HDDs more prone to physical damage from impacts or vibrations. In contrast, solid state disks (SSDs) have no moving parts because they use flash memory chips to store data. This absence of moving parts leads to increased reliability and durability in SSDs, as they are less susceptible to mechanical failure.
E. Solid state disks provide faster access to stored data than hard disks.
This statement is also correct. SSDs are significantly faster than HDDs because they have no moving parts and can directly access data stored in memory chips. HDDs, on the other hand, require time for the motor to spin the platters and for the read/write head to position itself correctly. As a result, SSDs can provide much quicker data read/write speeds, which leads to faster boot times, application loading, and file transfers. This speed is one of the most compelling reasons for upgrading from an HDD to an SSD in modern computing systems.

Now, let's consider why the other options are incorrect:

B. Hard disks can fail due to physical damage, while solid state disks cannot fail.
This statement is partially true but misleading. While it is true that HDDs are more vulnerable to physical damage due to their moving parts, SSDs can still fail. For example, SSDs can wear out over time due to limited write cycles, and they can also experience electronic failures, such as issues with the controller or the NAND flash memory cells. Therefore, the assertion that SSDs cannot fail is not accurate.
C. Solid state disks can store many times as much data as hard disk drives.
This statement is incorrect. Historically, SSDs were more expensive and offered less storage capacity compared to HDDs. While the capacity of SSDs has grown in recent years, hard disk drives still provide higher storage capacities at lower costs. As of now, HDDs generally offer much larger storage sizes (in the range of several terabytes) than most consumer SSDs.
D. /dev/sda is a hard disk device while /dev/ssda is a solid state disk.
This statement is incorrect. The device naming convention in Linux, such as /dev/sda, is not inherently tied to whether the storage is an HDD or an SSD. Both hard disks and solid state drives can use /dev/sda (or other similar designations) depending on the system configuration. The differentiation between HDDs and SSDs is not based on the device naming convention, so this option is inaccurate.

In summary, the correct answers are A and E, as they accurately describe the key differences between HDDs and SSDs in terms of physical design and performance.

Question No 2:

How is the hostname for the IP address 198.51.100.165 stored on a DNS server when performing reverse DNS lookup?

A. In the A record for 165.100.51.198.ipv4.arpa.
B. In the PTR record for 165.100.51.198.in-addr.arpa.
C. In the RNAME record for 198-51-100-165.rev.arpa.
D. In the ARPA record for 165.100.51.198.rev.
E. In the REV record for arpa.in-addr.198.51.100.165.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In DNS, the process of resolving an IP address to a hostname is known as reverse DNS lookup. This process relies on a specialized DNS record type known as a PTR (Pointer) record, which is used for mapping an IP address to a domain name.

When an IP address is converted into a reverse lookup query, it is reversed in order and appended with the special domain .in-addr.arpa for IPv4 addresses (and .ip6.arpa for IPv6). For example, the IP address 198.51.100.165 would be reversed as 165.100.51.198, and the query would be made to the domain 165.100.51.198.in-addr.arpa.

To break down the options:

A. The A record is used for forward DNS lookups, which resolve domain names to IP addresses, not reverse lookups. Hence, an A record would not store reverse DNS information, making this option incorrect.

B. The PTR record is the correct record type used in reverse DNS lookups to map an IP address to a domain name. In this case, the reverse lookup query for 198.51.100.165 would be directed to 165.100.51.198.in-addr.arpa. This is exactly how the reverse lookup is performed for an IPv4 address, making B the correct answer.

C. The RNAME record is a part of a SOA (Start of Authority) record used in DNS to specify the email address of the domain administrator. It does not relate to reverse DNS lookups, and it would not store reverse DNS information.

D. The ARPA record is not a type of record used in DNS. This is simply a suffix used in reverse DNS lookups, such as in-addr.arpa for IPv4 or ip6.arpa for IPv6. The ARPA suffix does not by itself indicate a valid DNS record type, making this option incorrect.

E. There is no REV record used in DNS. The REV mentioned here is not a recognized record type. Reverse DNS uses PTR records under the in-addr.arpa domain for IPv4.

Therefore, B is the correct answer as it accurately describes the record type and domain format used for reverse DNS lookups.

Question No 3:

Which of the following types of bus can connect hard disk drives with the motherboard?

A. The RAM bus
B. The NUMA bus
C. The CPU bus
D. The SATA bus
E. The Auto bus

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The bus type responsible for connecting hard disk drives (HDDs) to the motherboard is the SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment) bus. SATA is a high-speed interface standard that enables communication between storage devices, such as hard disk drives and solid-state drives, and the motherboard. It is the most common bus type used for connecting these storage devices in modern computers.

The SATA bus was introduced to replace the older PATA (Parallel ATA) standard, providing several advantages, including faster data transfer rates, a smaller connector size, and simpler cabling. SATA allows for high-speed communication between the motherboard and storage devices, making it an essential part of the modern computer architecture for connecting hard drives, SSDs, and optical drives.

Now, let's evaluate why the other options are incorrect:

A. The RAM bus: This bus type is used for communication between the computer's RAM and the motherboard. It allows the CPU to access data stored in the system's memory, but it is not used for connecting storage devices like hard disk drives. The RAM bus is primarily focused on memory operations and does not play a role in connecting storage devices.
B. The NUMA bus: NUMA (Non-Uniform Memory Access) is a memory architecture designed to improve performance in multiprocessor systems. While NUMA helps manage memory access in systems with multiple processors, it does not connect hard drives or other storage devices. Therefore, it is unrelated to the task of connecting storage devices to the motherboard.
C. The CPU bus: The CPU bus connects the CPU to other components of the computer, such as memory and peripherals, but it does not connect storage devices like hard drives. It is primarily focused on transferring data between the CPU and the rest of the system, rather than handling data between storage devices and the motherboard.
E. The Auto bus: This option is not a recognized or standardized bus type in computer architecture. There is no such bus called the "Auto bus" that is used to connect hard disk drives to the motherboard. This term may be a misunderstanding or error in terminology.

In conclusion, the SATA bus (option D) is the correct choice because it is specifically designed to connect storage devices like hard disk drives (HDDs) and solid-state drives (SSDs) to the motherboard, providing fast and reliable data transfer for these devices.

Question No 4:

A team of experienced Red Hat Enterprise Linux users wants to set up a Linux server for a small hobby project without paying for a subscription.

Which of the following Linux distributions allows them to apply as much of their Red Hat Enterprise Linux knowledge as possible?

A. Ubuntu Linux LTS
B. Raspbian
C. Debian GNU/Linux
D. CentOS
E. openSUSE

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

For a team familiar with Red Hat Enterprise Linux (RHEL), the goal would be to choose a Linux distribution that shares similar characteristics, management tools, and package formats. Among the provided options, CentOS is the most appropriate choice as it is closely related to RHEL, providing a similar environment and functionality without the subscription costs.

CentOS is a community-driven distribution that is binary-compatible with RHEL, which means it uses the same package management tools (such as YUM and DNF), software packages, and overall system management features as RHEL. The underlying differences are mostly related to support and updates, but for a small, non-commercial hobby project, CentOS allows the team to leverage their existing knowledge of RHEL's system administration, package management, and overall structure.

Ubuntu Linux LTS (A): While Ubuntu is a popular Linux distribution, it differs significantly from RHEL and CentOS in terms of package management. Ubuntu uses APT and DEB packages, while RHEL and CentOS use YUM/DPKG and RPM packages, respectively. This difference in package management tools, along with other distinctions in system configuration, would require the team to learn new tools and methods, making Ubuntu a less ideal choice for applying Red Hat knowledge.
Raspbian (B): Raspbian is a Debian-based distribution designed for the Raspberry Pi hardware platform. While it shares some similarities with Debian and Ubuntu, its primary focus is on Raspberry Pi hardware, and it is not ideal for setting up a traditional server environment. The package management and system configurations are also quite different from RHEL and CentOS.
Debian GNU/Linux (C): Debian is a solid, well-established distribution, and while it shares some similarities with Red Hat in terms of Linux fundamentals, it uses APT package management, which is different from RHEL's YUM/DPKG and RPM. The team would need to adjust to these differences, which could lead to a steeper learning curve than with CentOS.
openSUSE (E): openSUSE uses Zypper as its package management tool and has its own set of configuration practices, which are distinct from RHEL's. While openSUSE is a powerful and feature-rich distribution, it is less similar to RHEL in terms of administration and package management, making it a less suitable choice for someone familiar with RHEL.

Given the team's familiarity with RHEL, CentOS (D) is the best option because it allows them to apply their existing knowledge of RPM, YUM, and RHEL-style system management tools, while offering a similar environment without requiring a subscription.

Question No 5:

What information can be displayed by top?

A. Existing files, ordered by their size.
B. Running processes, ordered by CPU or RAM consumption.
C. User accounts, ordered by the number of logins.
D. User groups, ordered by the number of members.
E. User accounts, ordered by the number of files.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The top command in Unix-based systems is a powerful utility used to monitor and display the performance of a system in real time. It provides a dynamic, real-time view of various system resources, such as CPU usage, memory consumption, and process activity. The primary function of the top command is to display running processes and their resource usage statistics.

Option B is correct because the top command shows running processes, and it can be ordered (or sorted) by CPU or memory (RAM) consumption, allowing users to see which processes are consuming the most resources at any given moment. This is valuable for system administrators or users who want to identify resource hogs and potentially stop or optimize them.

Option A is incorrect because top does not display files ordered by size. This is a task that would typically be handled by commands like ls -l or using tools like du (disk usage).

Option C is incorrect because the top command does not deal with user accounts or logins. User account information can be viewed with commands such as who, w, or last, but not with top.

Option D is also incorrect because top does not display user groups or sort them by the number of members. Information about user groups can be accessed with the groups command or by examining the /etc/group file.

Option E is incorrect because top does not display user accounts sorted by the number of files. File management or information about file counts for users would involve commands like find, ls, or du, not top.

Therefore, the correct answer is B because top is specifically designed to show running processes and their associated resource usage, ordered by metrics such as CPU and memory usage.

Question No 6:

Which command can be used to resolve a DNS name to an IP address?

A. dnsname
B. dns
C. query
D. host
E. iplookup

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

To resolve a DNS name (such as a domain name like example.com) to an IP address, the host command is typically used in many Unix-like systems, including Linux and macOS. This command queries DNS servers to obtain the IP address associated with a domain name.

Let's break down the other options:

A. dnsname: This is not a valid command for resolving DNS names. It could potentially be a misspelling or confusion with other DNS-related tools, but it does not exist as a standard command.
B. dns: Similarly, dns is not a standard command in most operating systems for DNS resolution. It might refer to a service or protocol, but it is not a standalone command for querying DNS records.
C. query: The query command is not commonly used for DNS resolution. Some systems may have a query command in other contexts, but it is not typically used for DNS lookups.
E. iplookup: While this sounds relevant to resolving IP addresses, iplookup is not a standard command for DNS resolution. Some systems might have a tool with a similar name for IP-related lookups, but it is not used specifically for DNS queries.

The correct and widely recognized command for resolving a DNS name to an IP address is host. This command is simple and effective for querying DNS servers and obtaining information about domain names and their associated IP addresses. It can be used for both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses and is often available by default in Unix-based operating systems.

Question No 7:

What is true about the dmesg command? (Choose two.)

A. It traces the execution of a command and shows each step the program carries out.
B. It sends messages to the command lines of all current user sessions.
C. It displays the content of the Linux kernel’s ring buffer.
D. It immediately outputs all new messages written to the system journal.
E. It might not display older information because it was overwritten by newer information.

Correct Answer: C, E

Explanation:

The dmesg command in Linux is primarily used for displaying kernel-related messages that are recorded in the system's ring buffer. It provides insight into what the kernel has been doing, including any hardware-related messages, driver information, and system boot logs.

A. It traces the execution of a command and shows each step the program carries out: This statement is incorrect because the dmesg command is not used to trace program execution. Instead, it is a tool for viewing kernel messages, not for tracking specific steps of a command's execution.
B. It sends messages to the command lines of all current user sessions: This statement is also incorrect. dmesg does not send messages to the command lines of all user sessions. It only displays messages in the terminal where it is executed, showing kernel logs, not messages to user sessions.
C. It displays the content of the Linux kernel’s ring buffer: This statement is correct. dmesg reads and displays the contents of the kernel's ring buffer, which contains system messages related to the kernel’s activity. This includes boot logs, hardware initialization messages, and other kernel-level information. The ring buffer is a memory buffer where the kernel stores these messages.
D. It immediately outputs all new messages written to the system journal: This statement is incorrect. dmesg is not used for system journal logs, which are typically managed by journalctl in systems using systemd. While both tools provide system logs, dmesg specifically deals with kernel messages, not journal logs.
E. It might not display older information because it was overwritten by newer information: This statement is correct. The kernel’s ring buffer has a limited size, and once it fills up, older messages are overwritten by newer ones. Therefore, if there is a lot of kernel activity, older messages may no longer be accessible via dmesg.

Thus, the correct answers are C and E because they accurately reflect the function and limitations of the dmesg command in Linux.

Question No 8:

Which of the following outputs could stem from the command last?

A. 1 ls 2 cat text.txt 3 logout
B. Password for user last changed at Sat Mar 31 16:38:57 EST 2018
C. Last login: Fri Mar 23 10:56:39 2018 from server.example.com
D. EXT4-fs (dm-7): mounted filesystem with ordered data mode. Opts: (null)
E. root tty2 Wed May 17 21:11 - 21:11 (00:00)

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:

The command last is used in Unix-like operating systems to display a list of the most recent logins to the system, as well as information about user sessions, including login times, durations, and the terminal from which the user logged in. It reads information from the wtmp file, which logs user login history. Understanding the nature of this command helps identify the correct output among the options provided.

Option E is the correct answer because it aligns with the typical output format produced by the last command. It shows the following information:

root: the username of the user who logged in.
tty2: the terminal from which the user logged in.
Wed May 17 21:11 - 21:11 (00:00): the login time (May 17 at 21:11), the logout time (the same, 21:11), and the duration of the session (00:00, indicating no time spent in the session). This reflects a typical output showing user login session information.

Now, let’s break down the other options:

A. "1 ls 2 cat text.txt 3 logout" is not valid output from the last command. This looks more like a shell history output, showing commands that were executed, not login information. The last command does not show the history of commands.

B. "Password for user last changed at Sat Mar 31 16:38:57 EST 2018" is also incorrect. This type of output is related to password change information and is more likely to come from a command like chage or from password management utilities, not from the last command.

C. "Last login: Fri Mar 23 10:56:39 2018 from server.example.com" is close but not entirely accurate for the last command output. The last command shows the last logins, but the format is typically different. This output seems to resemble a login prompt message when you first log in to a system, but it's not from the last command.

D. "EXT4-fs (dm-7): mounted filesystem with ordered data mode. Opts: (null)" refers to system mount information, typically generated by the dmesg command or system logs when a filesystem is mounted, not from the last command.

Therefore, option E is the correct output from the last command, which shows user login and session data, consistent with the format produced by this utility.

Question No 9:

What is the UID of the user root?

A. 1
B. -1
C. 255
D. 65536
E. 0

Correct answer: E

Explanation:

In Unix-like operating systems, the UID (User Identifier) is a unique number assigned to each user for identification purposes. The root user, who is the superuser with full administrative privileges, always has a UID of 0. This is a fundamental standard in these systems and ensures that the root user is easily identifiable by its special UID across various administrative and security functions.

The choice E. 0 is the correct answer because, by convention, the root user has this UID to distinguish it from all other users, who are assigned sequential UIDs starting from 1. This special UID of 0 is critical because it enables system utilities and services to recognize the root user and grant it the necessary permissions to perform any administrative tasks, such as modifying system files, installing or removing software, and managing user accounts.

The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:

A. 1 is often associated with the first regular user created on the system, not the root user.
B. -1 is typically not used as a valid UID in most Unix-like systems. While some systems may treat negative values as special cases, 0 is universally reserved for the root user.
C. 255 is another number that might be used for certain special user accounts, but it is not the UID for the root user.
D. 65536 is a high number, but UIDs in most systems do not reach such high values for regular user accounts. It does not represent the root user.

Therefore, the root user, identified by UID 0, holds a special position in the system. This ensures that the root user has unfettered access to all parts of the system, which is essential for system administration tasks.