156-536 Checkpoint Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question 1:

What communication protocol does Harmony Endpoint management use to communicate with the management server?

A. SIC
B. CPCOM
C. TCP
D. UDP

Answer:  B

Explanation:

Harmony Endpoint, developed by Check Point, is a comprehensive endpoint protection solution that secures devices against malware, ransomware, phishing, and other threats. A key aspect of its architecture involves communication between the endpoint client and the management server to ensure policies, updates, and event data are properly exchanged.

The protocol used for this communication is CPCOM (Check Point Communication protocol).

What is CPCOM?

CPCOM is a proprietary communication protocol developed by Check Point, specifically designed for internal communications between various components of its security infrastructure. It facilitates secure and efficient data exchange between endpoints and management servers, ensuring:

  • Reliable delivery of policy updates

  • Reporting of events (such as detections, scan results, and user actions)

  • Configuration synchronization between the server and the endpoint agents

CPCOM operates as a fundamental protocol within Check Point’s product ecosystem, and it is used in scenarios such as:

  • Harmony Endpoint agent to management server communication

  • Internal module-to-module communications within Check Point software blades

This protocol is designed for performance and security, and it can operate over TCP/IP, but it is distinct from standard TCP or UDP traffic as seen in generic networking.

Why the other options are incorrect:

  • A (SIC – Secure Internal Communication): While SIC is a critical component in Check Point environments, it is primarily used to secure communication between gateways and management servers, not between Harmony Endpoint agents and the management server. SIC provides encryption, authentication, and integrity, but is not the primary protocol used by Harmony Endpoint for its routine communication.

  • C (TCP): TCP is a transport-layer protocol and may be used underneath CPCOM, but it is not the protocol itself that Harmony Endpoint uses for management communication. It would be too broad and lacks the specificity required for endpoint management communications.

  • D (UDP): UDP is a connectionless transport protocol and is generally unsuitable for the type of reliable, stateful communication required between endpoint agents and their management infrastructure. It is not used for Harmony Endpoint management communications.

In the context of Harmony Endpoint, communication with the management server is facilitated through CPCOM, a purpose-built protocol optimized for secure and efficient data exchange within Check Point's architecture. This ensures that policy delivery, incident reporting, and configuration management happen reliably.

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Question 2:

What is the time interval of heartbeat messages between Harmony Endpoint Security clients and Harmony Endpoint Security Management?

A. 60 milli-seconds
B. 60 minutes
C. 60 seconds
D. 30 seconds

Answer: C

Explanation:

In the Harmony Endpoint Security architecture, a heartbeat is a recurring communication message sent from the endpoint client to the Harmony Endpoint Security Management Server. This mechanism is used to maintain an active connection between the two, allowing for timely updates, status reporting, and policy synchronization.

The default heartbeat interval for Harmony Endpoint Security clients is 60 seconds.

Purpose of the Heartbeat

The heartbeat serves several key functions in endpoint protection:

  • Confirms that the client is active and operational

  • Allows the management server to monitor the endpoint's health

  • Facilitates the timely delivery of policy updates and configuration changes

  • Sends logs, alerts, and detection data from the client to the server

  • Ensures synchronization of threat intelligence and scan results

This regular interval ensures real-time or near-real-time monitoring and control over all endpoints, which is critical for maintaining the security posture of an organization.

Why 60 Seconds is the Ideal Interval

A 60-second interval strikes a balance between timely updates and minimizing network and processing overhead. If the heartbeat were more frequent (e.g., every few milliseconds), it could cause unnecessary network traffic and resource consumption on both the client and server. If it were less frequent (e.g., every 30 or 60 minutes), the management server might not detect a compromised or disconnected endpoint quickly enough, potentially delaying threat response.

This interval can typically be configured by the administrator within the Harmony Endpoint policies, but 60 seconds is the standard default setting provided out of the box.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

  • A (60 milliseconds): This is far too frequent for a management heartbeat. Such an interval would overwhelm both network and system resources and is not used in any practical enterprise environment.

  • B (60 minutes): This is too infrequent for effective endpoint monitoring. A heartbeat only once per hour could leave long periods where endpoints are disconnected or out of sync, posing a significant security risk.

  • D (30 seconds): While technically feasible and potentially configurable, this is not the default value used by Harmony Endpoint. Unless manually configured, the system does not use this interval by default.

The heartbeat interval between Harmony Endpoint Security clients and the management server is set to 60 seconds by default, allowing for a well-balanced cadence of communication that supports robust endpoint monitoring without overloading network resources.

Therefore, the correct answer is C.



Question 3:

Which information can we find on the Operational Overview dashboard?

A. Active Attacks, Deployment status, Pre-boot status, Anti-Malware update, Harmony Endpoint Version and Operating system
B. Active Endpoints, Active Alerts, Deployment status, Pre-boot status, Encryption Status
C. Hosts under Attack, Active Attacks, Blocked Attacks
D. Desktops, Servers, Active Alerts, Anti-Malware update, Harmony Endpoint Version

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Operational Overview dashboard in Harmony Endpoint provides a consolidated, real-time snapshot of the organization’s endpoint security posture. It is designed to help administrators quickly assess the current state of endpoint deployments, identify issues that may require immediate action, and monitor the overall health and compliance of their endpoint fleet.

The dashboard’s content is deliberately comprehensive yet high-level, offering essential data points for operational awareness and decision-making.

Key Information Displayed on the Operational Overview Dashboard

Option B correctly outlines the primary components shown in the Operational Overview:

  1. Active Endpoints: This reflects the number of endpoints currently connected and communicating with the management server. It provides insight into how many machines are actively being monitored and protected.

  2. Active Alerts: This shows alerts that require administrative attention. These can range from malware detections to misconfigurations or policy violations. It helps prioritize remediation efforts.

  3. Deployment Status: Displays whether the Harmony Endpoint agent has been successfully deployed across all targeted devices. It can highlight devices where deployment has failed or is pending.

  4. Pre-boot Status: Indicates whether pre-boot authentication (a feature often tied to full disk encryption) is active and functioning correctly. This is critical for ensuring physical device security.

  5. Encryption Status: Shows whether devices have full disk encryption enabled, ensuring that data at rest is protected against unauthorized access.

This suite of information is focused on operational security and coverage metrics, not threat intelligence or detailed attack telemetry, which are found on other dashboards or reports.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

  • A includes some relevant items like Deployment status and Anti-Malware update, but also includes Active Attacks and Operating system, which are not the focus of the Operational Overview dashboard. Instead, threat-specific details like Active Attacks are typically shown in Threat Dashboards or Attack Views.

  • C is centered on attack-related data: Hosts under Attack, Active Attacks, and Blocked Attacks. This is more aligned with a Threat Analysis or Security Events dashboard, not the Operational Overview.

  • D includes elements such as Desktops and Servers, which may appear in some device inventory views, but not specifically on the Operational Overview dashboard. It also mixes in patch/update information but misses deployment and encryption status.

The Operational Overview dashboard in Harmony Endpoint provides visibility into the health, deployment, and readiness of endpoint security, not detailed threat analytics. It includes metrics such as Active Endpoints, Active Alerts, Deployment Status, Pre-boot Status, and Encryption Status—all operational in nature. Therefore, Option B best represents the content shown in the dashboard.

The correct answer is B.



Question 4:

What is the default Agent Uninstall Password, which protects the client from unauthorized removal?

A. Secret
B. Chkp!234
C. secret
D. RemoveMe

Answer:  C

Explanation:

In Harmony Endpoint by Check Point, one of the built-in security measures is the Agent Uninstall Password. This password prevents unauthorized users from uninstalling the endpoint protection agent from a device, ensuring continuous security coverage and minimizing tampering or accidental removal.

By default, when Harmony Endpoint is first installed, it comes preconfigured with a default uninstall password to restrict the ability to remove the agent. This default is case-sensitive, meaning that capitalization matters.

The correct default uninstall password is "secret" — in all lowercase letters.

Why This Password Is Important

The uninstall password plays a critical role in endpoint tamper protection:

  • Prevents end users (especially on unmanaged or BYOD systems) from removing the protection agent.

  • Helps maintain compliance with organizational security policies.

  • Ensures the agent continues to report to the management server and enforces all security controls.

Administrators typically have the option to change the default uninstall password in the Harmony Endpoint management console. This is strongly recommended during deployment to align with internal password policies and reduce the risk of unauthorized uninstalls due to public knowledge of the default.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

  • A (Secret): This option uses a capital “S”. Since the password is case-sensitive, “Secret” is not the same as “secret.” Therefore, this is incorrect.

  • B (Chkp!234): This is not the default uninstall password. It may resemble a strong password format, but it is not used by default in Harmony Endpoint’s uninstall protection settings.

  • D (RemoveMe): This might seem plausible as an uninstall-related phrase, but it is not used by Check Point in any default configuration.

Best Practices

  • Always change the default password after deployment to prevent attackers or even internal users from exploiting default settings.

  • Document and store the new password securely in a privileged access manager or another secure location.

  • Use complex passwords that meet security policy standards for administrative-level access control.

The default uninstall password for the Harmony Endpoint agent is "secret", written entirely in lowercase. This default setting ensures basic protection against unauthorized removal of the security agent from client devices. However, it is recommended that organizations update this default during deployment for enhanced security.

The correct answer is C.



Question 5:

Heartbeat refers to what?

A. A periodic client connection to the server
B. A client connection that happens every 60 seconds
C. A server connection that happens every 5 minutes
D. A random server connection

Answer:  A

Explanation:

In the context of Harmony Endpoint and similar endpoint security platforms, a heartbeat is a scheduled, periodic communication initiated by the endpoint client to the management server. This concept is foundational in ensuring the system remains synchronized, responsive, and aware of the health status of connected devices.

The best definition among the choices is "a periodic client connection to the server", which makes A the most accurate and technically correct answer.

Understanding the Heartbeat

A heartbeat is a lightweight data packet or communication event that performs several critical functions:

  • Confirms endpoint connectivity to the management server

  • Delivers logs and alerts from the client to the server

  • Receives policy updates or configuration changes from the server

  • Reports health status, such as whether real-time protection is active, if anti-malware signatures are up to date, or if threats have been detected

  • Allows administrators to monitor client presence, ensuring devices remain protected and online

The process is initiated by the client (the protected endpoint) and is typically scheduled at regular intervals, making it predictable and manageable in terms of network usage.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

  • B (A client connection that happens every 60 seconds): While the default interval for Harmony Endpoint’s heartbeat is indeed 60 seconds, this choice is too narrow. The term "heartbeat" refers to the concept, not to a fixed interval. Furthermore, administrators can change this interval, so it’s not always 60 seconds. Therefore, defining it strictly by this timeframe is incorrect.

  • C (A server connection that happens every 5 minutes): This option mischaracterizes both the direction (it’s from client to server, not server to client) and the interval (which is not 5 minutes by default). This is factually inaccurate on multiple levels.

  • D (A random server connection): The entire purpose of a heartbeat is that it is predictable and periodic, not random. Random communication intervals would compromise reliability and system health visibility.

Technical Insight

The frequency of the heartbeat can usually be configured based on organizational needs. Shorter intervals (like 30 or 60 seconds) offer more real-time monitoring but increase network and system resource usage. Longer intervals reduce system load but might delay incident visibility and response.

In security environments, 60 seconds is a common compromise between performance and visibility, but the heartbeat remains a periodic client-initiated connection regardless of timing.

The heartbeat is a key mechanism in endpoint security architectures, referring to a periodic client-initiated communication to the management server to maintain connectivity, synchronize policies, and report status. This essential feature ensures continuous oversight and protection.

The correct answer is A.



Question 6:

What GUI options do you have to access the Endpoint Security Management Server in a cloud environment?

A. Infinity Portal and Web Management Console
B. SmartConsole and Gaia WebUI
C. Nothing, there is no Cloud Support for Endpoint Management Server.
D. SmartEndpoint Distributor

Answer: A

Explanation:

When using Check Point Harmony Endpoint in a cloud environment, administrators need convenient and secure ways to manage endpoint security policies, view alerts, and monitor system health. The graphical user interfaces (GUIs) provided for this purpose are tailored for both centralized visibility and user-friendliness.

In the cloud deployment of Harmony Endpoint Security, the two primary GUI options available are:

  1. Infinity Portal

  2. Web Management Console

This makes A the correct answer.

1. Infinity Portal

The Infinity Portal is Check Point's unified cloud-based security platform. It provides a centralized interface for managing multiple security products, including Harmony Endpoint, Harmony Email & Collaboration, ThreatCloud, and others.

For Harmony Endpoint specifically, the Infinity Portal allows you to:

  • Monitor endpoint health and threat status

  • Configure policies and policy profiles

  • Manage users and endpoint groups

  • Access dashboards and reports

  • Trigger actions such as isolate, scan, or uninstall agents

Being cloud-native, the Infinity Portal is the preferred GUI for managing cloud-deployed Endpoint Security environments. It provides role-based access control, supports multi-tenancy, and integrates with other Check Point products through a single pane of glass.

2. Web Management Console

In addition to the Infinity Portal, administrators can also use the Web Management Console specifically for the Endpoint Security Management Server, which may be hosted in the cloud. This web interface provides access to specific configuration settings and allows for certain administrative tasks such as license management, backup, user roles, and more.

Although less commonly used than the Infinity Portal for day-to-day endpoint operations, it complements cloud-based management setups by offering additional system-level configurations.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

  • B (SmartConsole and Gaia WebUI): These tools are typically used in on-premises deployments of Check Point security products, especially for managing network security appliances like firewalls (e.g., Quantum Security Gateways). They are not used for managing Harmony Endpoint in the cloud.

  • C (Nothing, there is no Cloud Support for Endpoint Management Server.): This is outright incorrect. Check Point provides cloud-native management of endpoint security, and Harmony Endpoint is fully supported and managed via the Infinity Portal and Web Management Console.

  • D (SmartEndpoint Distributor): This is not a GUI tool. It refers to a utility involved in agent deployment, not in managing the security platform through a graphical interface.

In a cloud environment, administrators manage Check Point Harmony Endpoint primarily through the Infinity Portal, which offers full visibility, control, and integration across products. Additionally, the Web Management Console can be used for more granular management of the Endpoint Security Management Server.

The correct answer is A.



Question 7:

Which of the following is TRUE about the functions of Harmony Endpoint components?

A. SmartEndpoint connects to the Check Point Security Management Server (SMS)
B. SmartEndpoint Console connects to and manages the Endpoint Management Server (EMS)
C. SmartConsole connects to and manages the Endpoint Management Server (EMS)
D. Web Management Console for Endpoint connects to the Check Point Security Management Server (SMS)

Answer: B

Explanation:

In the Harmony Endpoint architecture from Check Point, different components serve specific roles in the management and protection of endpoint devices. Understanding these roles is critical for correctly configuring and administering the environment. This question tests familiarity with the management interfaces and their correct associations.

SmartEndpoint Console and Endpoint Management Server (EMS)

The SmartEndpoint Console is a dedicated GUI-based application used to connect to and manage the Endpoint Management Server (EMS). This is the correct answer and what makes option B accurate.

With the SmartEndpoint Console, administrators can:

  • Define and enforce endpoint security policies (e.g., anti-malware, firewall, media encryption)

  • Monitor endpoint status and health

  • Manage endpoint groups, policies, and logs

  • Investigate incidents and threat data

  • Control software deployment to endpoints

The Endpoint Management Server (EMS) is the backend that stores all endpoint configurations, logs, and policies. SmartEndpoint Console is the main administrative tool specifically designed to manage this server in on-premises environments. For cloud-based environments, as covered in a previous question, the Infinity Portal is typically used instead.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

  • A (SmartEndpoint connects to the Check Point Security Management Server (SMS)): This is incorrect. SmartEndpoint is a management console, not an endpoint client. Furthermore, the Check Point Security Management Server (SMS) is designed to manage network security components like firewalls and policies—not endpoint devices. Therefore, SmartEndpoint does not connect to SMS.

  • C (SmartConsole connects to and manages the Endpoint Management Server (EMS)): This is also incorrect. SmartConsole is used to manage Check Point's Security Management Server (SMS) and related network security infrastructure (e.g., gateways, access control, threat prevention). It is not used to manage the Endpoint Management Server (EMS), which is a separate system managed via the SmartEndpoint Console.

  • D (Web Management Console for Endpoint connects to the Check Point Security Management Server (SMS)): This is wrong because the Web Management Console is associated with the Endpoint Management Server (EMS), not the Security Management Server (SMS). The two servers serve different purposes, and their management interfaces are not interchangeable.

In conclusion, among the listed options, only SmartEndpoint Console connects directly to and is used to manage the Endpoint Management Server (EMS). This is a core architectural relationship in Check Point’s Harmony Endpoint on-premises setup, ensuring policy creation, enforcement, and endpoint monitoring are centralized and secure.

The correct answer is B.



Question 8:

Which Harmony Endpoint environment is better choice for companies looking for more control when deploying the product?

A. On-premises environment, because offers more options for client deployments and features, same control over the operations as in Cloud environment but is more costly to support.
B. Both On-premises and Cloud environment is the right choice. Both offers same control over the operations, when deploying the product only difference is in support cost.
C. Cloud environment, because offers easier deployment of servers, offers same control over operations as in On-premises environments, but is not as costly to support.
D. On-premises environment, because offers more options for deployment, greater control over operations, but is also more costly to support.

Answer: D

Explanation:

When evaluating which Harmony Endpoint environment is the best fit for a company's needs—cloud vs. on-premises—the key differentiator is the level of control over deployment, customization, and operations.

On-Premises Environment: Greater Control

For organizations that prioritize granular control over every aspect of their endpoint security deployment—such as policy customization, client rollout mechanisms, data privacy, infrastructure integration, and local data storage—the on-premises environment is the preferred choice. Option D correctly reflects this.

With on-premises deployment, organizations host the Endpoint Management Server (EMS) and supporting infrastructure within their own data centers. This enables:

  • Complete control over the deployment process

  • Greater flexibility in policy enforcement and configuration

  • Tighter integration with existing IT systems and network topologies

  • Full control over data storage and security posture

However, this level of control comes at a cost:

  • Higher total cost of ownership (TCO) due to hardware, maintenance, and staffing needs

  • Need for in-house expertise to handle upgrades, patching, and backup

Despite the added operational burden, many organizations in regulated industries or with specific security or compliance requirements still prefer this model due to its flexibility and control.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

  • A is partially true but incorrect because it falsely claims that the on-premises and cloud environments offer the same control over operations. In fact, on-premises allows more control, not the same.

  • B is incorrect because it generalizes that both environments offer the same level of control, which is misleading. Cloud solutions provide ease of use and rapid deployment, but typically lack the deep customization and local control available in on-prem environments.

  • C emphasizes cost-effectiveness and ease of deployment in the cloud, which is accurate, but incorrectly claims the same control as on-premises. In reality, cloud environments are generally more streamlined and may abstract or restrict some administrative capabilities for the sake of simplicity and automation.

Cloud Environment: Simpler, Cost-Effective, but Less Control

Cloud environments are often preferred by small to mid-sized businesses or companies looking for:

  • Fast deployment

  • Minimal infrastructure requirements

  • Lower up-front investment

  • Simplified administration

However, cloud deployments typically sacrifice some level of control in exchange for convenience and reduced support overhead. Custom scripting, backend access, or integration with non-standard systems might be limited in cloud models.

Ultimately, the on-premises environment gives companies the most control during deployment and operation of Harmony Endpoint. This is especially beneficial for enterprises with complex environments or strict compliance requirements, even though it involves greater cost and management overhead.

The correct answer is D.



Question 9:

The Push Operation Wizard allows users to select which three topics for Push Operations?

A. Anti-Malware, Forensics and Remediation, Agent Settings
B. Anti-Virus, Remediation, Agent Settings
C. Anti-Malware, Analysis, Agent Deployment
D. Anti-Ransomware, Analysis, Agent Deployment

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Push Operation Wizard in Harmony Endpoint is a key feature that simplifies centralized configuration management and updates across multiple endpoints. It allows administrators to apply various security modules, settings, and updates in a controlled and efficient manner.

This question specifically asks about the three topics or modules that can be selected when performing push operations using this wizard. Understanding what each module does and how it fits into endpoint management is essential to selecting the correct answer.

Push Operation Wizard – Overview

The Push Operation Wizard allows administrators to:

  • Remotely configure endpoint agents

  • Deploy or update protection modules

  • Adjust client settings

  • Initiate remediation and forensic tools

This is all done centrally from the Endpoint Security Management Console, saving time and ensuring consistency across the environment.

Breakdown of Correct Answer (A)

  • Anti-Malware: This is a core module responsible for detecting and blocking viruses, spyware, Trojans, and other forms of malware. It is commonly updated and configured using push operations to ensure endpoints always have the latest definitions and settings.

  • Forensics and Remediation: This module is essential for post-infection investigation and cleanup. Forensics provides deep analysis of attack chains, while remediation ensures any malicious changes are reversed or quarantined. Admins can push this module to collect forensic data or execute automatic clean-up tasks.

  • Agent Settings: These include global configuration options like UI preferences, scanning schedules, exclusions, and communication intervals (e.g., heartbeat timing). Pushing agent settings ensures uniform policy enforcement across devices.

These three areas reflect the key operational topics commonly adjusted or deployed via the wizard, which is why option A is correct.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

  • B (Anti-Virus, Remediation, Agent Settings): The term "Anti-Virus" is less commonly used in Check Point Harmony Endpoint, which refers to the broader term Anti-Malware. This makes B imprecise, even though it partially overlaps with the correct answer.

  • C (Anti-Malware, Analysis, Agent Deployment): While Anti-Malware is correct, "Analysis" is not a selectable topic in the Push Operation Wizard, and "Agent Deployment" typically occurs outside of the wizard through separate deployment tools or scripts.

  • D (Anti-Ransomware, Analysis, Agent Deployment): Although Anti-Ransomware is an important module in the product, it is not one of the selectable standalone push operation topics. Like "Analysis", it may be part of forensic tools but isn't its own category in the wizard.

The Push Operation Wizard in Harmony Endpoint focuses on deploying and configuring endpoint protection tools. The three core selectable topics it offers are:

  1. Anti-Malware

  2. Forensics and Remediation

  3. Agent Settings

This makes option A the only correct answer.

The correct answer is A.



Question 10:

Where are quarantined files stored?

A. On client computer, under C:\ProgramData\CheckPoint\Endpoint Security\Remediation\quarantine
B. On client computer, under C:\ProgramData\CheckPoint\Harmony Endpoint Security\quarantine
C. On Management server, under $FWDIR\sba\Remediation\quarantine
D. On client computer, under C:\Program Files\CheckPoint\Endpoint Security\Remediation\quarantine

Answer: A

Explanation:

Quarantined files in Check Point Harmony Endpoint are files that the security agent identifies as malicious or suspicious and isolates to prevent further damage or interaction with the system. The quarantine mechanism is essential to ensuring that threats are neutralized without being immediately deleted, allowing security analysts to analyze them or restore them if falsely detected.

Purpose of Quarantine

When a file is flagged by modules such as Anti-Malware, Anti-Ransomware, or Threat Emulation, the endpoint client moves the file to a protected storage location. This serves several purposes:

  • Prevents execution or further spread of the file

  • Maintains a copy for further investigation

  • Enables restoration if later determined to be a false positive

These quarantined files are encrypted and inaccessible to users, ensuring that even if someone has local access to the system, they cannot tamper with or reintroduce the file into the environment.

Location of Quarantined Files

The correct path for quarantined files is:

C:\ProgramData\CheckPoint\Endpoint Security\Remediation\quarantine

This location:

  • Exists on the client computer, not the management server.

  • Is a hidden system folder, requiring administrator rights or specific configuration to access.

  • Is consistent across versions unless customized during installation.

This matches Option A, which correctly identifies both the platform (client computer) and the full path.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect

  • B (C:\ProgramData\CheckPoint\Harmony Endpoint Security\quarantine): This is an incorrect path. Although it points to ProgramData and mentions Harmony Endpoint, this specific directory structure does not match the actual quarantine path used by the client agent.

  • C ($FWDIR\sba\Remediation\quarantine): This is a directory that exists on the management server, but quarantined files are not stored there. Management servers only store metadata or logs; the actual quarantined files remain local to the client.

  • D (C:\Program Files\CheckPoint\Endpoint Security\Remediation\quarantine): This path points to the Program Files directory, which is used for installed executables, not for dynamic or temporary data like quarantined files. The ProgramData directory is the correct one for such usage.

The quarantine process is entirely handled on the endpoint client where the threat was detected. The quarantined files are stored in a secure, encrypted folder within the ProgramData directory of the Windows operating system, which ensures operational security while maintaining accessibility for forensic or administrative purposes.

The correct location for quarantined files in Harmony Endpoint is:

C:\ProgramData\CheckPoint\Endpoint Security\Remediation\quarantine

Therefore, the correct answer is A.


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