CompTIA CA1-005 Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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CA1-005 CompTIA Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question 1

A company plans to implement a research facility with intellectual property data that should be protected. The following is the security diagram proposed by the security architect. Which of the following security architect models is illustrated by the diagram?

A. Identity and access management model
B. Agent-based security model
C. Perimeter protection security model
D. Zero Trust security model

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

The diagram illustrates a multi-layered security architecture that aligns with the principles of the Zero Trust security model. Let’s walk through the key aspects shown in the diagram and how they relate to Zero Trust:

Key Features in the Diagram Aligned with Zero Trust:

Verification at Every Step:

The diagram shows local authentication using multi-factor authentication (MFA), a key pillar of Zero Trust which states “Never trust, always verify.”
It does not assume that being inside the network perimeter is sufficient. All users and devices must authenticate at every access point.

Conditional Access Based on Compliance:

Devices are checked for agent-based protection, AV updates, and IAM validation before gaining access.
If not compliant, users are directed to install the necessary protections—this aligns with the Zero Trust idea that only compliant, validated devices are allowed to access resources.

Microsegmentation and Role-Based Access Control (RBAC):

Access to systems like network DLP, file servers, and VDI systems is controlled via role-based access control and mandatory access controls.
Microsegmentation and RBAC are critical elements in limiting lateral movement within the network.

No Implicit Trust:

Even inside the enterprise, the diagram requires authentication for every access layer, such as file servers, VDI environments, and intellectual property systems.
This illustrates explicit trust decisions per session or resource request, which is fundamental to Zero Trust.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Identity and access management model: While IAM is a part of Zero Trust, the diagram includes much more than IAM (e.g., compliance checks, endpoint validation, and microsegmentation).
B. Agent-based security model: The agent is used only in one part (compliance checking). The overall architecture includes network, identity, and application-level controls.
C. Perimeter protection security model: Traditional perimeter models rely on a secure outer boundary. Here, trust is not assumed based on location, and access is segmented, which contradicts the perimeter-based model.

The architecture emphasizes continuous validation, least privilege access, and protection of sensitive data at every level, all of which are key tenets of the Zero Trust security model.

Question 2

A financial technology firm works collaboratively with business partners in the industry to share threat intelligence within a central platform. This collaboration gives partner organizations the ability to obtain and share data associated with emerging threats from a variety of adversaries.

Which of the following should the organization most likely leverage to facilitate this activity? (Choose two.)

A. CWPP
B. YARA
C. ATT&CK
D. STIX
E. TAXII
F. JTAG

Correct answers: D, E

Explanation:

The scenario describes a threat intelligence sharing initiative where multiple organizations collaborate to obtain and disseminate structured data on cyber threats. For such activities, two well-known and commonly used frameworks or protocols are STIX and TAXII. These are specifically designed to standardize and automate threat intelligence sharing across organizations.

Why D (STIX) is Correct:

STIX (Structured Threat Information Expression) is a standardized language developed by MITRE and maintained by OASIS for representing threat intelligence in a consistent, machine-readable format. It allows organizations to describe cyber threat information including:

Indicators of compromise (IOCs)
Threat actors
TTPs (tactics, techniques, and procedures)
Campaigns and observed data

Using STIX allows multiple parties to share threat data in a common format and correlate it with other datasets for defense purposes.

Why E (TAXII) is Correct:

TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Intelligence Information) is a transport protocol designed to securely share threat intelligence over HTTPS. It is often used in tandem with STIX and defines how threat information is exchanged:

Pulling/pushing intelligence feeds
Publishing indicators
Subscribing to threat streams

TAXII enables the automation of threat intelligence exchange, which is essential for a scalable, collaborative intelligence-sharing platform.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. CWPP (Cloud Workload Protection Platform):
CWPPs protect workloads in cloud environments, not a tool for threat intelligence sharing.
B. YARA:
YARA is used to identify and classify malware based on defined rules and patterns. While useful for malware analysis, it’s not built for data sharing across organizations.
C. ATT&CK:
MITRE ATT&CK is a knowledge base for adversary tactics and techniques, useful for understanding threats but not a data sharing mechanism.
F. JTAG (Joint Test Action Group):
JTAG is a hardware debugging interface and has nothing to do with threat intelligence or cybersecurity collaboration.

To support collaborative, structured threat intelligence sharing across organizations, STIX provides the format for describing threat data, and TAXII provides the transport mechanism to exchange it securely and automatically.

Question 3

During a gap assessment, an organization notes that BYOD usage is a significant risk. The organization implemented administrative policies prohibiting BYOD usage. However, the organization has not implemented technical controls to prevent the unauthorized use of BYOD assets when accessing the organization's resources.

Which of the following solutions should the organization implement to best reduce the risk of BYOD devices? (Choose two.)

A. Cloud IAM, to enforce the use of token-based MFA
B. Conditional access, to enforce user-to-device binding
C. NAC, to enforce device configuration requirements
D. PAM, to enforce local password policies
E. SD-WAN, to enforce web content filtering through external proxies
F. DLP, to enforce data protection capabilities

Correct answers: B, C

Explanation:

The scenario describes a gap between policy and technical enforcement: although BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) is administratively prohibited, users may still be able to access organizational resources from personal (unauthorized) devices due to lack of technical restrictions.

The question asks for technical controls that will best reduce the risk of BYOD devices accessing sensitive resources. Two highly relevant controls in this context are Conditional Access and Network Access Control (NAC).

Why B (Conditional Access) is Correct:

Conditional Access policies are commonly implemented via cloud identity providers (e.g., Azure AD, Okta) and allow organizations to define rules such as:

Only managed (corporate) devices can access cloud resources
Access is allowed only if the device is compliant with a security baseline
Access can be restricted based on geolocation, device risk, or type

By enforcing user-to-device binding, conditional access ensures that only approved, compliant, and enrolled devices are permitted to access enterprise resources — a highly effective way to block BYOD devices.

Why C (NAC) is Correct:

Network Access Control (NAC) is a network-level enforcement solution that ensures devices meet security posture and configuration standards before being granted access to the corporate network.

With NAC, you can:

Identify and classify devices (e.g., corporate-managed vs. personal BYOD)
Enforce posture checks (e.g., up-to-date AV, OS version)
Deny access to unregistered or non-compliant devices

NAC works as a gatekeeper for network connectivity, and is ideal for preventing unauthorized BYOD devices from joining the internal network.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Cloud IAM (MFA enforcement):
Token-based MFA enhances user authentication security but does not restrict access based on device type. A BYOD device could still be used to log in with valid credentials.
D. PAM (Privileged Access Management):
PAM focuses on privileged user access and password vaulting — not relevant to BYOD enforcement.
E. SD-WAN (web filtering):
SD-WAN manages routing and performance between branch offices/cloud. Filtering traffic does not stop BYOD access.
F. DLP (Data Loss Prevention):
DLP protects sensitive data from exfiltration but does not control device access to the network or resources.

To technically enforce BYOD restrictions and reduce the associated risks, the organization should implement:

Conditional Access (B) to limit access only from authorized, enrolled devices
NAC (C) to block or restrict network access for unauthorized devices

These two controls address the gap between policy and technical enforcement.

Question 4

A security administrator is performing a gap assessment against a specific OS benchmark. The benchmark requires the following configurations be applied to endpoints:
• Full disk encryption
• Host-based firewall
• Time synchronization
• Password policies
• Application allow listing
• Zero Trust application access

Which of the following solutions best addresses the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. MDM
B. CASB
C. SBoM
D. SCAP
E. SASE
F. HIDS

Correct answers: A, D

Explanation:

The question outlines several technical requirements tied to endpoint configuration and compliance auditing, specifically:

Full disk encryption
Host-based firewall
Time synchronization
Password policies
Application allow listing
Zero Trust application access

The objective is to identify two solutions that best address these benchmark-aligned configurations. The correct choices are Mobile Device Management (MDM) and Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP).

Why A (MDM) is Correct:

Mobile Device Management (MDM) solutions provide centralized control over endpoint configurations and security settings. They are widely used in enterprise environments to enforce:

Full disk encryption (e.g., BitLocker or FileVault enforcement)
Host-based firewalls (configure rules on devices)
Time synchronization settings
Password complexity and rotation policies
Application allow listing
Zero Trust access enforcement through device posture checks and compliance rules

MDM tools like Microsoft Intune, VMware Workspace ONE, or Jamf can be used to apply and enforce all six of the benchmark requirements listed in the question.

Why D (SCAP) is Correct:

Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) is a suite of standards used to automate compliance checking against configuration baselines, such as OS hardening guides (e.g., DISA STIGs, CIS benchmarks). SCAP enables:

Automated scanning and validation of system configurations
Detection of compliance gaps based on benchmark policies
Assessment reporting and remediation guidance

SCAP does not enforce policies directly like MDM does, but it is crucial for benchmarking compliance during gap assessments. It provides the auditing and validation framework needed to ensure that settings like encryption, firewalls, password policies, and application controls are in place.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker):
CASBs control cloud application usage, not local device settings like disk encryption or password policy.
C. SBoM (Software Bill of Materials):
SBoMs list software components to improve supply chain transparency, but do not configure or validate device security settings.
E. SASE (Secure Access Service Edge):
SASE combines SD-WAN and security controls for network edge protection, but it does not enforce local OS-level configurations.
F. HIDS (Host Intrusion Detection System):
HIDS monitors for malicious activity on hosts, but does not enforce configuration baselines or compliance settings.

To both enforce security settings and validate compliance with an OS benchmark, the best combination is:

A. MDM, to push and enforce required configurations
D. SCAP, to assess and report compliance status

These two solutions complement each other and fully address the benchmark requirements.

Question 5

A global organization is reviewing potential vendors to outsource a critical payroll function. Each vendor's plan includes using local resources in multiple regions to ensure compliance with all regulations. The organization's Chief Information Security Officer is conducting a risk assessment on the potential outsourcing vendors' subprocessors.

Which of the following best explains the need for this risk assessment?

A. Risk mitigations must be more comprehensive than the existing payroll provider.
B. Due care must be exercised during all procurement activities.
C. The responsibility of protecting PII remains with the organization.
D. Specific regulatory requirements must be met in each jurisdiction.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

The question describes a scenario in which a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is conducting a risk assessment on subprocessors used by third-party vendors involved in payroll outsourcing. The central theme is data protection responsibility, especially for personally identifiable information (PII), which is highly sensitive in payroll systems.

Even if the processing of payroll data is outsourced to a third-party vendor and their subprocessors across different regions, the organization that owns the data remains ultimately accountable for its protection. This principle is rooted in nearly all data privacy frameworks, including:

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the EU
California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the U.S.
Other global data privacy regulations

In these frameworks, the data controller (in this case, the global organization) is responsible for ensuring that any data processor or subprocessor adheres to appropriate security and privacy controls.

Why C is Correct:

“The responsibility of protecting PII remains with the organization.”

This statement directly aligns with the principle of data stewardship. Regardless of whether the organization uses external vendors or subprocessors, the accountability for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and lawful processing of PII lies with the original organization. The CISO’s risk assessment ensures that subprocessors meet the same standards as required by regulations and internal policies.

This responsibility includes:

Verifying the security posture of subprocessors
Ensuring contractual agreements and data processing addendums (DPAs) are in place
Validating compliance with relevant regulations
Performing ongoing vendor risk management and audits

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Risk mitigations must be more comprehensive than the existing payroll provider:
While comprehensive risk mitigation is important, this option focuses on comparing mitigations rather than on the core obligation of data protection accountability. It also implies a comparative standard, not a fundamental requirement.
B. Due care must be exercised during all procurement activities:
This is a general best practice but does not specifically explain why a risk assessment is needed in relation to PII and subprocessors.
D. Specific regulatory requirements must be met in each jurisdiction:
This is true, especially for global organizations, but it does not fully explain why the CISO is conducting the risk assessment on subprocessors. It’s a supporting reason, but not the primary one.

Outsourcing payroll functions to vendors and their subprocessors does not remove the organization's legal and ethical obligation to protect PII. The CISO’s risk assessment ensures subprocessors are handling data in a secure, compliant manner—because the ultimate responsibility lies with the organization.

Question 6

A manufacturing plant is updating its IT services. During discussions, the senior management team created the following list of considerations:
• Staff turnover is high and seasonal.
• Extreme conditions often damage endpoints.
• Losses from downtime must be minimized.
• Regulatory data retention requirements exist.

Which of the following best addresses the considerations?

A. Establishing further environmental controls to limit equipment damage
B. Using a non-persistent virtual desktop interface with thin clients
C. Deploying redundant file servers and configuring database journaling
D. Maintaining an inventory of spare endpoints for rapid deployment

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

The scenario outlines several operational challenges and risk factors commonly encountered in a manufacturing plant, including:

High and seasonal staff turnover: This implies the IT environment must support quick onboarding and deprovisioning.
Extreme physical conditions damaging endpoints: Indicates a need to limit reliance on fragile local computing devices.
Minimizing losses from downtime: High availability is critical for operations.
Regulatory data retention requirements: Data must be centrally managed and preserved, regardless of endpoint conditions.

Let’s evaluate how each option maps to these concerns.

Why B is Correct:

“Using a non-persistent virtual desktop interface with thin clients”

This approach addresses all four considerations efficiently:

High Staff Turnover: Non-persistent virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) allows user sessions to be quickly created and destroyed. This makes it easy to onboard and remove users without managing local profiles or storing data on endpoints.
Extreme Environmental Conditions: Thin clients are less complex and often more rugged than full-featured workstations. Even if a thin client is damaged, no critical data is lost, and a replacement device can reconnect to the same virtual environment.
Minimized Downtime: Centralized VDI can be hosted in redundant, fault-tolerant data centers. If one thin client fails, the user can quickly resume work from another client without data loss.
Data Retention Requirements: Centralizing user data and sessions in the virtual infrastructure ensures that data retention policies and backups can be consistently enforced, as nothing is stored locally.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Establishing further environmental controls to limit equipment damage:
While this may reduce endpoint damage, it doesn’t address staff turnover, downtime, or data retention. It’s a partial solution at best.
C. Deploying redundant file servers and configuring database journaling:
This focuses on data availability and integrity, but it doesn’t help with high staff turnover or endpoint fragility. It also fails to provide an end-to-end solution for access and usability in a volatile environment.
D. Maintaining an inventory of spare endpoints for rapid deployment:
This may reduce downtime caused by hardware failures, but it doesn’t address data retention, user access control, or simplify onboarding/offboarding. Managing a large inventory can also be costly and inefficient.

A non-persistent virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) with thin clients offers centralized management, resiliency, rapid user provisioning, and protection against endpoint damage. It directly addresses the plant’s operational and regulatory needs in a scalable and secure way.

Question 7

A company runs a DAST scan on a web application. The tool outputs the following recommendations:
• Use Cookie prefixes.
• Content Security Policy - SameSite=strict is not set.

Which of the following vulnerabilities has the tool identified?

A. RCE
B. XSS
C. CSRF
D. TOCTOU

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

The dynamic application security testing (DAST) tool has flagged two specific issues related to how cookies are handled and the absence of cookie isolation policies:

Use Cookie prefixes – this is a best practice for enhancing cookie security by using prefixes like __Secure- and __Host-. These enforce constraints like requiring the cookie to be sent only over HTTPS and with specific path rules.
Content Security Policy - SameSite=strict is not set – the SameSite attribute on cookies controls whether a cookie is sent with cross-site requests. Setting SameSite=Strict ensures cookies are not sent along with cross-origin requests, which is a strong defense against Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF).

What is CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery)?

CSRF exploits the trust a web application has in a user’s browser. If a user is authenticated and a malicious site tricks the browser into submitting a request to the vulnerable application (e.g., making a funds transfer), the action can be performed without the user's knowledge. CSRF relies on the browser automatically sending authentication cookies.

To mitigate CSRF, security mechanisms include:

Setting the SameSite attribute on cookies to Strict or Lax.
Using CSRF tokens in forms.
Applying cookie prefixes like __Secure- to ensure cookies are sent securely and under controlled conditions.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. RCE (Remote Code Execution):
RCE vulnerabilities usually involve injection flaws where an attacker can execute system-level commands or scripts. Cookie settings and SameSite attributes are not related to RCE protection.
B. XSS (Cross-Site Scripting):
XSS involves injecting malicious scripts into a page viewed by other users. While Content Security Policy (CSP) helps mitigate XSS, SameSite and cookie prefixes do not directly address XSS.
D. TOCTOU (Time-of-Check to Time-of-Use):
This is a race condition that occurs when the state of a resource changes between a check and its use. Cookie settings are unrelated to this type of vulnerability.

The recommendations to use cookie prefixes and enforce SameSite=strict are targeted specifically at preventing cookies from being sent during cross-site requests, which is a core defense mechanism against CSRF attacks.

Question 8

A company hired an email service provider called my-email.com to deliver company emails. The company started having several issues during the migration. A security engineer is troubleshooting and observes the following configuration snippet. Which of the following should the security engineer modify to fix the issue? (Choose two.)

A. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.11
B. The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include:my-email.com ~all"
C. The srv01 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the email server
D. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10
E. The TXT record must be changed to "v=dkim ip4:192.168.1.11 include :my-email.com ~all"
F. The TXT record must be changed to "v=spf ip4:192.168.1.10 include :my-email.com ~all"
G. The srv01 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the web01 server

Correct answers: D and F

Explanation:

This question involves troubleshooting DNS records in relation to a company’s email infrastructure migration to a third-party provider, my-email.com. The configuration includes MX, CNAME, A, and TXT records. The engineer must identify which entries are misconfigured and prevent proper mail flow or authentication.

Let’s analyze key details:

1. Issue with the CNAME Record for email

Current record:
email IN CNAME srv01.company.com

This points email.company.com to srv01.company.com, which is defined as:
srv01 IN A 192.168.1.10

Problem: If email.company.com is meant to point directly to the email server, having a CNAME to an internal A record (private IP) is problematic, especially for external delivery. Also, many services recommend not using a CNAME for a mail domain (email subdomain), particularly if it's involved in SPF, DKIM, or DMARC verification.

Fix: Change it to a direct A record if srv01 is indeed the mail server:

D. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10

2. Missing SPF Record in TXT

Current TXT record:

@ IN TXT "v=dmarc include:company.com ~all"

This is an incorrect DMARC record — it lacks the correct DMARC version tag (v=DMARC1) and structure.
Issue: There is no SPF (Sender Policy Framework) record, which is vital to authenticate which mail servers are authorized to send mail for the domain. SPF failures can result in emails being rejected or flagged as spam.

Fix: Add a proper SPF record. For example:
F. The TXT record must be changed to "v=spf ip4:192.168.1.10 include:my-email.com ~all"

This authorizes the internal IP (if still in use) and the third-party provider to send mail on behalf of the domain.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Would point to web01, which appears unrelated to email.
B. Is an invalid DMARC format (uses v=dmarc instead of v=DMARC1).
C. Changing srv01 to a CNAME may break resolution and is not needed.
E. Misuses the v=dkim syntax and IP usage (DKIM involves public/private keys, not IPs).
G. Pointing srv01 to web01 is irrelevant to mail flow.

To fix the email delivery and authentication issues:

Convert the CNAME for email to an A record pointing to the correct IP.
Implement a proper SPF record for outgoing email validation.

Question 9

A security analyst is reviewing the following log. Which of the following possible events should the security analyst investigate further?

A. A macro that was prevented from running
B. A text file containing passwords that were leaked
C. A malicious file that was run in this environment
D. A PDF that exposed sensitive information improperly

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

This question presents a log showing various file activities and their antivirus (AV) status on a system. The analyst is asked to determine which activity merits further investigation. The log includes the following columns: time, file type, size, antivirus status, and file location.

Let’s review the key entries in the log:

Time	File Type	Size	AV Status	Location
11:25	txt	25mb	block	c:\
11:27	dll	10mb	allow	c:\temp
11:29	doc	37mb	block	c:\users\user1\Desktop
11:32	pdf	4mb	allow	c:\users\user2\Downloads
11:35	txt	49mb	allow	c:\users\user3\Documents

Step-by-step analysis of each answer choice:

A. A macro that was prevented from running

The blocked .doc file (11:29) could indicate a macro was disabled. However, that means the potential threat was stopped, making it less urgent for further investigation than files that were allowed through.

B. A text file containing passwords that were leaked

The .txt file at 11:25 was blocked, which suggests antivirus detected something and prevented it. No evidence suggests this was a password leak — and if blocked, it likely didn’t pose further risk.

C. A malicious file that was run in this environment

At 11:27, a .dll file (10mb) located in c:\temp was allowed.
DLLs are executable and commonly used by malware for code injection or persistence.
The fact that antivirus allowed this executable in a suspicious folder (c:\temp) should raise red flags. Many attacks use temporary folders to drop payloads.

This is the most suspicious event because:

It's executable content.
It wasn’t blocked.
It's in a known staging area for malicious behavior.

This strongly indicates the potential for a malicious file that was run, making it the best candidate for investigation.

D. A PDF that exposed sensitive information improperly

At 11:32, a PDF was allowed from Downloads. There's no direct indication it contained sensitive information.
While PDFs can be abused, there's no AV flag or size anomaly to raise concern compared to the DLL.

Among all entries, the allowed DLL file in a temporary directory stands out as a potentially serious issue. Unlike blocked entries (which AV stopped), this one was allowed to execute — potentially enabling malicious behavior.

Question 10

After a company discovered a zero-day vulnerability in its VPN solution, the company plans to deploy cloud-hosted resources to replace its current on-premises systems. An engineer must find an appropriate solution to facilitate trusted connectivity. Which of the following capabilities is the most relevant?

A. Container orchestration
B. Microsegmentation
C. Conditional access
D. Secure access service edge

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

The scenario presents a company that is responding to a critical zero-day vulnerability in its VPN solution. As a result, the company is moving away from its traditional on-premises architecture and shifting to cloud-hosted resources. To ensure trusted and secure connectivity in this new model, the engineer must find a solution that addresses modern access needs without relying on legacy VPNs.

Let’s break down the options to determine which capability is most relevant:

A. Container orchestration

This refers to managing and automating the deployment, scaling, and operation of containers (e.g., with Kubernetes).
While important for application infrastructure, it does not address secure user or system connectivity to cloud resources.
Not relevant to the problem of replacing VPNs with secure access.

B. Microsegmentation

Microsegmentation divides networks into isolated segments to reduce attack surfaces.
It enhances internal network security but does not provide end-to-end connectivity or serve as a replacement for VPNs.
This would be a complementary control, but not a direct answer.

C. Conditional access

Conditional access policies are usually part of identity platforms (like Azure AD) and grant/deny access based on conditions (e.g., user, device, location).
It helps enforce who can connect, but it is not a full connectivity solution.
Like microsegmentation, it is part of a broader security model but doesn’t replace VPNs on its own.

D. Secure Access Service Edge (SASE)

SASE (pronounced “sassy”) is the most relevant option.
It’s a cloud-native architecture that combines network and security services, such as:

SD-WAN
Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)
Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA)
Secure Web Gateway (SWG)
Firewall as a Service (FWaaS)

SASE is designed to replace traditional VPNs and enable secure access to cloud-based and on-prem resources from any location.

It is especially relevant in the context of remote work, cloud migrations, and replacing VPNs after a zero-day exploit. SASE provides the secure, scalable, and policy-driven access needed for cloud environments, making it the most complete and appropriate solution in this case.

The scenario specifically calls for trusted connectivity in a cloud migration effort following the failure of a traditional VPN. The only option that fully aligns with replacing VPNs, supporting secure access to cloud environments, and enabling zero-trust principles is Secure Access Service Edge.