ServiceNow CAD Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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CAD ServiceNow Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps.

Question No 1:

Which of the following statements accurately describe the actions that can be performed using the Form Designer?

a) To add a field to the form layout, drag the field from the Fields tab to the desired location on the form.
b) To create a new field in a form’s table, drag the appropriate data type from the Field Types tab to the form, and then configure the new field.
c) To remove a field from the form layout, hover over the field to display the action buttons, and then select the Delete (X) button.
d) To add a section to the form layout, drag it from the Field Types tab to the desired location on the form.

Which of the following options is correct?

A. a, b, c, and d
B. b, c, and d
C. a, b, and d
D. a, b, and c

Answer:

The correct answer is A. a, b, c, and d.

Explanation:

The Form Designer is a tool used in many platforms (such as ServiceNow, Salesforce, and others) for creating, customizing, and managing forms. These forms can be used for collecting and displaying data within the system. The Form Designer provides an interface for adding fields, sections, and other elements to the form layout. Let's break down each of the statements provided to determine which ones are true.

a) To add a field to the form layout, drag the field from the Fields tab to the desired location on the form.

True. This is a standard operation in many form-building tools. The Fields tab typically contains all the available fields that can be added to the form. By dragging and dropping the desired field into the form layout, users can position it in the appropriate place on the form.

b) To create a new field in a form’s table, drag the appropriate data type from the Field Types tab to the form, and then configure the new field.

True. In the Form Designer, the Field Types tab typically includes various data types (such as text, number, date, etc.) that can be added to the form. By dragging and configuring a new field from this tab, users can create new fields that will be part of the form’s table. This allows for customization of the data collection process.

c) To remove a field from the form layout, hover over the field to display the action buttons, and then select the Delete (X) button.

True. Most Form Designer interfaces include an option to remove or delete fields from the form layout. This is typically done by hovering over the field, which displays an action menu (such as a trash can icon or Delete (X) button). Clicking this button will remove the field from the form.

d) To add a section to the form layout, drag it from the Field Types tab to the desired location on the form.

True. Sections are often used in forms to group related fields together for organizational purposes. In the Field Types tab, users can typically find an option to add sections to the form. By dragging and dropping the section, users can organize the form into different areas or categories.

All of the statements are accurate and represent common actions that can be performed within a Form Designer interface. By allowing users to drag and drop fields, sections, and data types, the Form Designer provides an intuitive and efficient way to customize forms. As a result, the correct answer is A. a, b, c, and d.

Question No 2:

Which of the following are key configurations made when setting up an Email Notification?

a) Who will receive the notification.
b) What content will be included in the notification.
c) When the notification should be sent.
d) How the notification will be sent.

Which of the following options correctly identifies the key configurations?

A. a, b, and c
B. a, b, and d
C. b, c, and d
D. a, c, and d

Answer:

The correct answer is A. a, b, and c.

Explanation:

An Email Notification is a feature that allows automatic emails to be sent in response to specific events or triggers within a system or application. These notifications are widely used in systems like service management platforms, CRM systems, and various other business tools. The process of configuring an Email Notification generally involves specifying key details about the notification’s recipients, its content, and the conditions under which it will be sent. Let's break down each of the components listed in the question:

a) Who will receive the notification:

True. One of the fundamental elements of an Email Notification is determining the recipient(s). You need to configure who will receive the email when the notification is triggered. This could be an individual user, a group of users, or any other set of recipients based on roles, conditions, or criteria. For example, in an incident management system, the notification could be sent to a specific team when a critical issue is raised.

b) What content will be included in the notification:

True. The content of the email is crucial because it provides the necessary information to the recipient. In this step, you define the message or the template that will be included in the notification. This could involve dynamic content such as ticket details, user information, or other relevant data. For instance, in a service desk system, the content might include information about a new support ticket, including its description, priority, and status.

c) When the notification should be sent:

True. When the notification is sent is another important aspect of configuration. This defines the conditions or triggers for sending the email. It could be time-based (e.g., send daily summaries) or event-based (e.g., send an email when a specific task or workflow reaches a particular stage). For example, an email notification might be set up to trigger when a server goes down, or when an urgent ticket is created in a system.

d) How the notification will be sent:

Incorrect. How the notification is sent (e.g., SMTP server settings, the email protocol used, etc.) is typically part of the underlying system or email configuration but is not a configuration that the user directly modifies within the Email Notification setup process. The actual sending method is usually set up through system settings or administrative configurations, rather than being part of the notification's content setup.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option B: a, b, and d:

Incorrect. While determining the recipient(s) (a) and content (b) of the notification is key, d) How the notification will be sent is typically not something that is configured directly in the email notification setup, as it's handled by the email system infrastructure.

Option C: b, c, and d:

Incorrect. This option misses the critical component of configuring who will receive the notification (a). Identifying the recipients is essential in any email notification setup.

Option D: a, c, and d:

Incorrect. This option misses what content will be included in the notification (b), which is a core element of email notification configuration.

When configuring an Email Notification, the key factors that must be configured include who will receive the notification (a), what content will be included (b), and when the notification should be sent (c). The method of sending the email (d) is typically handled at the system or service level, not within the notification setup itself. Therefore, the correct answer is A. a, b, and c.

Question No 3:

To review the scripts, reports, and other application artifacts that will be included in a published application, which of the following steps should be taken?

A. Enter the name of the Application in the Global search field.
B. Open the list of Update Sets for the instance.
C. Examine the Application Files Related List in the application to be published.
D. Open the artifact records individually to verify the value in the Application field.

Answer:

The correct answer is C. Examine the Application Files Related List in the application to be published.

Explanation:

In the context of ServiceNow or similar platforms that manage application artifacts, it is essential to verify what components or items will be included when an application is published. These artifacts can include scripts, reports, tables, forms, and various other resources that are part of the application. Let’s go through each of the provided options to understand why C is the best answer.

A. Enter the name of the Application in the Global search field.

Incorrect. Searching for the application by name in the Global search field will help you locate the application, but it will not give you a detailed overview of the scripts, reports, or other artifacts that are part of the application. The search results may show you the application record itself, but not a comprehensive list of its related items.

B. Open the list of Update Sets for the instance.

Incorrect. While Update Sets are used to package and transfer customizations from one instance to another, they do not directly provide a list of the specific artifacts or components (such as scripts and reports) that are associated with a particular application. An Update Set might contain artifacts, but this is not the best place to check for all the resources in the application.

C. Examine the Application Files Related List in the application to be published.

Correct. The Application Files Related List is the most accurate and reliable way to check the various artifacts associated with an application. This list will show all the scripts, reports, and other components that are included in the application. This provides a comprehensive view of everything that will be published, allowing developers and administrators to confirm which artifacts are part of the application before finalizing the publication.

D. Open the artifact records individually to verify the value in the Application field.

Incorrect. While it is possible to examine individual records to see which application they are associated with by checking the Application field, this is not an efficient or comprehensive method to see all the artifacts. This method would require manually checking each record, which is time-consuming and error-prone compared to simply using the Application Files Related List.

Why C is the Best Option:

The Application Files Related List provides an organized and consolidated way to view all artifacts associated with a specific application. This list includes not only scripts and reports but also other components like tables, UI policies, business rules, and more. By reviewing this list, administrators and developers can ensure that all the relevant artifacts are included before publishing or promoting the application. It offers a centralized location for managing and reviewing all components of the application, making it the best approach for this task.

To efficiently see what scripts, reports, and other application artifacts are in a published application, C. Examine the Application Files Related List in the application to be published is the most effective and reliable method. This approach allows you to view all associated components in a centralized and easily accessible manner, ensuring accuracy when preparing an application for publication.

Question No 4:

Which of the following is NOT a debugging strategy for client-side scripts in ServiceNow?

A. g_form.addInfoMessage()
B. Field Watcher
C. jslog()
D. gs.log()

Answer:

The correct answer is D. gs.log().

Explanation:

Debugging is a crucial step in identifying and fixing issues in code, especially for client-side scripts in platforms like ServiceNow. Client-side scripts are executed in the user's browser, which adds another layer of complexity in debugging. Various tools and methods are available for debugging client-side scripts, each tailored to provide insights into script execution, behavior, and errors. Let's break down each option:

A. g_form.addInfoMessage():

Correct for Client-Side Debugging. The method g_form.addInfoMessage() is commonly used in client-side scripts (such as Client Scripts in ServiceNow) to display informational messages to the user directly on the form. This message is displayed at the top of the form and can be used for debugging or providing user feedback during script execution. It’s a valid debugging strategy for client-side scripts.

B. Field Watcher:

Correct for Client-Side Debugging. The Field Watcher is a feature in ServiceNow that allows you to track changes to form fields in real-time. It can help in debugging client-side scripts by providing insight into the changes made to fields during script execution. This is a useful tool for understanding how a user interacts with the form, how client-side scripts affect the form, and when specific changes occur.

C. jslog():

Correct for Client-Side Debugging. The jslog() function is used in client-side scripts to log messages to the browser’s JavaScript console. It’s particularly useful for debugging, as developers can use it to track script execution, print variable values, and observe errors directly in the browser's developer tools. This function works well for client-side scripts and is a common debugging method.

D. gs.log():

Incorrect for Client-Side Debugging. The function gs.log() is used in server-side scripts in ServiceNow (such as Business Rules or Script Includes) to log messages to the system logs. It is a server-side logging function, not a client-side debugging tool. Since client-side scripts are executed in the user's browser, gs.log() would not work in that context. It’s designed to log messages on the server side, not the client side.

Why D is the Correct Answer:

While gs.log() is helpful for debugging server-side scripts (executed on the ServiceNow platform's back end), it is not applicable to client-side scripts, which run in the user’s browser. For client-side debugging, tools like g_form.addInfoMessage(), Field Watcher, and jslog() are far more effective and appropriate, as they provide real-time feedback on the user interface and script execution directly within the browser’s environment.

For client-side script debugging in ServiceNow, tools like g_form.addInfoMessage(), Field Watcher, and jslog() are effective options. However, gs.log() is not suitable for client-side debugging, as it is intended for server-side logging. Therefore, the correct answer to this question is D. gs.log().

Question No 5:

In the context of Application Access configuration in ServiceNow, which field(s) become unavailable if the Can read option is NOT selected?

A. All access to this table via web services
B. Can create, Can update, and Can delete
C. Can read does not affect the availability of other Application Access fields
D. Allow configuration

Answer:

The correct answer is B. Can create, Can update, and Can delete.

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, Application Access controls the visibility and level of interaction users can have with a given table or data. Application Access configurations are essential in defining who can read, write, update, or delete records within a specific application or table.

Let's break down the question and the answer options:

A. All access to this table via web services:

Incorrect. The Can read configuration does not directly impact access via web services. Web services access is typically controlled by other security measures, such as roles and web service permissions, rather than the Can read field. Even if Can read is not selected, access to the table via web services can still be controlled independently.

B. Can create, Can update, and Can delete:

Correct. If the Can read field is NOT selected, it prevents any access to create, update, or delete operations on records in the table for the selected user or role. In ServiceNow, these permissions are interdependent. Read permission is typically a prerequisite for allowing any kind of data modification. Without the ability to read the records, users cannot modify or create records, as they wouldn't be able to see or interact with the data. Therefore, Can create, Can update, and Can delete fields become unavailable if Can read is not selected.

C. Can read does not affect the availability of other Application Access fields:

Incorrect. This option is incorrect because the Can read field does indeed affect other fields, particularly those related to data modification (like Can create, Can update, and Can delete). If a user or role cannot read data, they will also be unable to perform create, update, or delete actions. Therefore, Can read does affect the availability of other fields like Can create, Can update, and Can delete.

D. Allow configuration:

Incorrect. The Allow configuration field refers to whether configuration changes are permitted for the table, not whether the table's data can be read or modified. This field is typically available for administrative configurations and does not depend directly on the Can read field. Even if Can read is not selected, it does not affect the availability of the Allow configuration field.

Why B is the Correct Answer:

The Can read field governs the user’s ability to access data for viewing. If the Can read permission is disabled, it logically follows that other permissions related to data manipulation, such as creating, updating, or deleting records, would also be unavailable. Without the ability to read, there is no reason for the user to interact with the data (i.e., create, update, or delete it). This is why Can create, Can update, and Can delete permissions are unavailable if the Can read permission is not selected.

In ServiceNow's Application Access configuration, the Can read permission is crucial as it allows users to view records. When it is not selected, the ability to create, update, or delete records is also restricted. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Can create, Can update, and Can delete. These permissions depend on having Can read access, and without it, users cannot interact with the records in any way.

Question No 6:

Which of the following is NOT a valid trigger type in Flow Designer?

A. Outbound Email
B. Application
C. Record
D. Schedule

Answer:

The correct answer is A. Outbound Email.

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, Flow Designer is a tool used to automate processes and tasks without writing code. It allows you to define workflows by creating Flows that consist of triggers, actions, and conditions. Triggers initiate the flow, and actions define what happens during the flow's execution.

Let’s go through each of the options to understand why A. Outbound Email is the correct answer:

A. Outbound Email:

Incorrect. There is no trigger type called Outbound Email in Flow Designer. The Flow Designer is focused on workflows for automated actions and processes within the ServiceNow platform. Although email notifications (both inbound and outbound) can be used in actions as part of a flow, they are not considered trigger types in Flow Designer. Instead, email actions are part of the flow itself where you can send emails based on conditions or events that occur.

B. Application:

Correct. Application is a valid trigger type in Flow Designer. This type of trigger is used when you want the flow to start based on changes or events occurring in an application. It allows the flow to be initiated by specific changes related to the application in ServiceNow, such as new records or changes in the application scope.

C. Record:

Correct. Record is another valid trigger type in Flow Designer. This trigger starts a flow when a record is created, updated, or deleted. For example, you could create a flow that triggers when an incident record is created, updated, or closed. It is one of the most commonly used trigger types in ServiceNow flows because of its flexibility and relevance to incident, change, or task-based workflows.

D. Schedule:

Correct. Schedule is also a valid trigger type in Flow Designer. This trigger allows a flow to start at a specific time or on a recurring schedule. For example, you can configure a flow to run every Monday morning at 8 AM, or after a specific period has elapsed. Scheduled triggers are ideal for automation tasks that need to happen periodically, such as cleaning up data or sending reminders.

Why A is the Correct Answer:

While email actions can be part of a flow in Flow Designer, outbound email is not a trigger type. Flow triggers are based on events that happen within ServiceNow or on specific conditions that occur (such as record changes or scheduled times). Outbound emails are typically used within the flow’s actions, not as the starting point or trigger for a flow.

In ServiceNow's Flow Designer, outbound email is not a valid trigger type. Instead, triggers such as Application, Record, and Schedule are commonly used to start flows based on changes in records, applications, or time-based conditions. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is A. Outbound Email.

Question No 7:

When creating new application files in a scoped application, cross-scope access is enabled by default for which of the following types?

A. REST messages
B. Table
C. Script Include
D. Workflow

Answer:

The correct answer is A. REST messages.

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, scoped applications are used to encapsulate customizations and configurations, ensuring that the customizations remain separate from the global scope. Scoped applications provide a level of security by preventing unintended access to the resources (such as tables, scripts, and other records) from outside the scope.

Cross-scope access allows a scoped application to access and interact with resources in other scopes (either globally or other scoped applications). By default, cross-scope access is disabled for most types of resources in a scoped application, as this helps maintain security and separation of concerns. However, there are exceptions to this rule. Let’s review the options:

A. REST messages:

Correct. When creating REST messages in a scoped application, cross-scope access is enabled by default. REST messages are used for making external HTTP requests (RESTful web services) and are typically used to communicate with external systems or other ServiceNow instances. Since the functionality often requires interaction with resources across different scopes, cross-scope access is enabled by default for REST messages, allowing them to communicate beyond the scope boundaries.

B. Table:

Incorrect. Tables in scoped applications do not have cross-scope access enabled by default. For security reasons, tables in a scoped application are isolated from other scopes unless explicitly configured to allow access. If cross-scope access to a table is needed, it must be explicitly enabled by the administrator. This prevents unintended exposure of sensitive data and ensures proper access control between different scopes.

C. Script Include:

Incorrect. Similar to tables, Script Includes in a scoped application do not have cross-scope access enabled by default. Script Includes are used to write reusable server-side scripts and functions. To make a Script Include accessible from another scope, the Script Include must be configured to explicitly allow cross-scope access. By default, cross-scope access is disabled for Script Includes to maintain security and ensure that only authorized scopes can access the functions.

D. Workflow:

Incorrect. Workflows in scoped applications do not have cross-scope access enabled by default. Workflows are used to automate processes within ServiceNow, but they are restricted to the scope in which they are created. If a workflow needs to interact with resources in another scope, such as triggering actions in another scoped application, cross-scope access must be explicitly configured.

Why A is the Correct Answer:

REST messages often require interactions with external systems or other ServiceNow instances. As part of this functionality, cross-scope access is enabled by default for REST messages to ensure that the necessary communication between scopes or external systems can take place. This default setting simplifies the configuration and integration of web services, enabling seamless communication between systems that may reside in different scopes.

In ServiceNow, when creating new application files in a scoped application, cross-scope access is enabled by default for REST messages. This is necessary for the functionality of web services, which often need to communicate across different scopes or external systems. However, for other resources such as tables, Script Includes, and Workflows, cross-scope access must be explicitly configured. Therefore, the correct answer to this question is A. REST messages.

Question No 8:

In Email Notifications within ServiceNow, which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the Weight field?

A. Only notifications with the highest weight for the same record and recipients are sent.
B. A weight value of zero means that no email should be sent.
C. The weight value defaults to zero.
D. A weight value of zero means the notification is always sent when the "When to send" criteria are met.

Answer:

The correct answer is B. A weight value of zero means that no email should be sent.

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, Email Notifications are used to automatically send emails when specific events occur, based on defined conditions and triggers. The Weight field in an Email Notification plays an important role in controlling the order of notifications sent out for the same event, especially when multiple notifications are set to trigger under similar conditions.

Let’s break down each option to understand why B is the correct answer:

A. Only notifications with the highest weight for the same record and recipients are sent.

Correct. The Weight field in an Email Notification is used to determine which notification should take priority when multiple notifications could be triggered for the same record and the same recipients. When multiple notifications meet the "When to send" criteria, the notification with the highest weight (numerically higher) will be sent. This ensures that in case of overlapping conditions, only the most important notification (based on its weight) is sent.

B. A weight value of zero means that no email should be sent.

Incorrect. This statement is NOT true. A weight value of zero does not mean that no email will be sent. Instead, a weight of zero simply represents a neutral priority. It indicates that the email notification does not have a higher priority than others but will still be sent if the "When to send" conditions are met. If an email notification has a weight of zero, it can still be triggered, depending on the conditions, as long as the "When to send" criteria are satisfied.

C. The weight value defaults to zero.

Correct. When you create an email notification, the Weight field is set to zero by default. This default value indicates that the notification has a neutral priority unless you explicitly change the weight to a higher or lower value to prioritize it over others.

D. A weight value of zero means the notification is always sent when the "When to send" criteria are met.

Correct. This is true. A Weight value of zero does not prevent the notification from being sent. As long as the "When to send" conditions are met, a notification with a weight of zero will be sent, just like any other notification. The weight simply determines the priority of sending if there are multiple notifications with the same criteria.

Why B is the Correct Answer:

The key misconception in option B is that a Weight value of zero means no email will be sent. However, the weight value of zero just signifies that the notification has no special priority but is still subject to being triggered by the conditions. The weight does not disable or prevent the email from being sent; it only helps in determining the order of notifications when multiple notifications are triggered for the same event.

In ServiceNow, the Weight field for Email Notifications helps prioritize notifications when multiple emails are triggered for the same event and recipient. A Weight of zero does not prevent the email from being sent, nor does it mean that no email will be sent. Instead, it indicates a neutral priority. Therefore, the correct answer is B. A weight value of zero means that no email should be sent.

Question No 9:

Which of the following objects is NOT accessible in a Display Business Rule?

A. previous
B. GlideSystem
C. g_scratchpad
D. current

Answer:

The correct answer is A. previous.

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, Business Rules are used to execute server-side logic based on certain conditions or triggers, such as when a record is inserted, updated, deleted, or queried. These rules are typically used to automate processes and enforce business logic. Business Rules come in different types, including Display Business Rules, Insert Business Rules, Update Business Rules, and Delete Business Rules, each of which has specific access to objects and performs actions at different stages of record processing.

A Display Business Rule is a specific type of business rule that runs when a record is about to be displayed to the user, which typically happens during a UI rendering event. It is executed when a record is retrieved from the database but before it is presented on the user interface (UI). The primary purpose of a Display Business Rule is to prepare the record’s data or to add additional information to be displayed on the form.

Let’s explore each of the objects mentioned in the options and how they relate to Display Business Rules:

A. previous

Correct. The previous object is NOT accessible in a Display Business Rule. The previous object is used to reference the state of a record before it was updated, and it is typically available in Insert, Update, and Delete Business Rules. Since Display Business Rules run before a record is displayed (not during the modification process), there is no need for the previous object in this context. The previous object is more relevant for tracking changes to a record and comparing old values with new ones during updates.

B. GlideSystem (gs)

Correct. The GlideSystem (gs) object is available in all types of business rules, including Display Business Rules. It provides a collection of utility methods for interacting with the ServiceNow platform, such as logging information (gs.info()), sending notifications, and managing the system state. gs is commonly used in business rules for various system-related tasks, regardless of the rule type.

C. g_scratchpad

Correct. The g_scratchpad object is also accessible in Display Business Rules. The g_scratchpad is used to store data that needs to be passed between the Server-side and Client-side scripts (like client scripts or UI policies). It is used to store variables that can be accessed later in the client-side scripts after the display rule is executed. This is particularly useful in Display Business Rules, where additional data can be added to the form to be processed by client-side logic.

D. current

Correct. The current object is accessible in a Display Business Rule. It represents the current record that is being processed and is used to interact with and manipulate the data of the record. In Display Business Rules, the current object refers to the record that is being retrieved to be displayed on the UI. Any changes made to current within the rule will be reflected when the record is displayed to the user.

Why is A the Correct Answer?

The previous object is used to reference the values of a record before it was modified, which is relevant when you need to track changes in data during an update. In Display Business Rules, there is no comparison between previous and current record states because these rules are designed to manipulate data before displaying it to the user, not to compare it with past values. Thus, previous is not available in a Display Business Rule, making option A the correct answer.

In ServiceNow, a Display Business Rule has access to certain objects, but previous is not one of them. previous is only available in rules that involve the manipulation or comparison of record data during insert, update, or delete actions. On the other hand, objects like gs (GlideSystem), g_scratchpad, and current are accessible in Display Business Rules because they help manage system-level tasks, pass data to the client side, and interact with the current record being displayed. Therefore, the correct answer is A. previous.

Question No 10:

Which of the following features are available for Global Applications in ServiceNow? (Choose two.)

A. Automated Test Framework
B. Source Control
C. Delegated Development
D. Flow Designer

Answer:

The correct answers are B. Source Control and D. Flow Designer.

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, Global Applications are applications that are developed within the global scope. Global applications are not restricted to a specific scope and can interact with other applications, as well as the global resources in the system. These applications have certain capabilities that allow them to access system-wide features, which is not the case for Scoped Applications (applications that operate within their own isolated context).

Let’s review the options to understand why B and D are the correct answers:

A. Automated Test Framework (ATF):

Incorrect. The Automated Test Framework (ATF) is available to Scoped Applications, but not Global Applications. The ATF is a ServiceNow feature that allows users to automate the testing of applications and features in the platform. While Scoped Applications can utilize the ATF to validate their functionality, Global Applications do not have direct access to the Automated Test Framework. This limitation helps maintain separation and security between the scoped environments and the global platform.

B. Source Control:

Correct. Source Control is available for Global Applications. Source control integration allows ServiceNow developers to track changes, manage versions of application files, and collaborate with other developers effectively. With Global Applications, you can integrate with external version control systems like Git or Subversion (SVN). This feature is crucial for managing the lifecycle of applications and ensuring consistency across different environments (development, testing, and production).

C. Delegated Development:

Incorrect. Delegated Development is not available for Global Applications. It is specifically a feature available for Scoped Applications, allowing different developers to manage and work on various parts of the application within a scope while preserving control and oversight. Delegated Development helps organizations assign development tasks to specific roles and ensure that the development process is segmented and controlled within the scoped environment. Global Applications do not support this feature because it would undermine the separation of concerns and could allow excessive access to platform-wide features.

D. Flow Designer:

Correct. Flow Designer is available for Global Applications. Flow Designer is a powerful feature within ServiceNow that allows users to automate business processes and workflows without writing complex code. It provides a low-code interface to create and manage flows (automated processes) using triggers, actions, and conditions. Global applications can use Flow Designer to automate tasks and processes across various platform features. It integrates well with both scoped and global resources, and is available for use in Global Applications to streamline workflows.

Why B and D are Correct:

Source Control (B) allows developers to track and manage changes in applications and is available to Global Applications for versioning and collaboration with external source control systems.
Flow Designer (D) is available to both Global and Scoped Applications and provides an intuitive interface to automate tasks and processes. It is a powerful tool for managing workflows in any application type, including global applications.

Global Applications in ServiceNow are designed to interact with the system-wide resources and can access certain platform features. Among the listed features, Source Control and Flow Designer are both available to Global Applications. On the other hand, Automated Test Framework and Delegated Development are either unavailable or restricted to Scoped Applications. Therefore, the correct answers are B. Source Control and D. Flow Designer.