CompTIA CAS-004 Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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CAS-004 CompTIA Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

An organization is using the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) best practices to create a Business Continuity Plan (BCP). During this process, the organization is reviewing its current internal processes to identify and prioritize mission-essential items.

Which phase in the BCP process focuses on identifying and prioritizing critical systems and functions to ensure that mission-essential operations can continue in the event of a disruption?

A. Review a recent gap analysis
B. Perform a cost-benefit analysis
C. Conduct a business impact analysis
D. Develop an exposure factor matrix

Correct Answer:
C. Conduct a business impact analysis

Explanation:

In the context of Business Continuity Planning (BCP), the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is a crucial phase. It focuses on identifying and prioritizing the critical systems and functions of an organization that must continue or be rapidly restored after an unexpected disruption. The BIA is designed to understand the potential consequences of business interruptions and to ensure that critical operations can be maintained or recovered swiftly in the event of a disaster.

Why Option C is correct:

Conduct a Business Impact Analysis (BIA):
The BIA is the phase of the BCP where the organization identifies mission-critical systems, functions, and resources. It evaluates the impact of disruptions on different areas of the business and helps establish recovery priorities. By focusing on mission-essential functions, the BIA identifies which systems and processes must be restored first to minimize downtime and ensure the organization can continue essential services. It also helps to establish Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs) and Recovery Point Objectives (RPOs), which guide the overall recovery strategy.

The BIA also identifies the financial, operational, and reputation impacts of business interruptions, allowing the organization to allocate resources effectively for business continuity. It is considered the foundation for developing a comprehensive continuity and disaster recovery plan.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Review a recent gap analysis:
While reviewing a gap analysis is important for identifying weaknesses in current processes, it is not the phase specifically designed to prioritize critical systems. A gap analysis focuses on identifying discrepancies between current and desired states and is not a direct part of the process for prioritizing critical operations.
B. Perform a cost-benefit analysis:
A cost-benefit analysis is used to determine the financial viability of different recovery strategies, but it does not prioritize mission-critical systems. It’s often conducted after the BIA to evaluate which recovery methods will be the most cost-effective given the priorities established during the BIA.
D. Develop an exposure factor matrix:
An exposure factor matrix is used to determine the potential loss in value or function of an asset in the event of a disaster. While important for risk assessment, it does not directly relate to identifying and prioritizing critical systems or functions.

In conclusion, Conducting a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is the phase that directly addresses the identification and prioritization of critical systems and functions to ensure the continuity of mission-essential activities, making it the best answer for this question.

Question No 2:

An organization is preparing to migrate its production systems from an on-premises environment to a cloud service. The lead security architect expresses concerns that the organization's traditional methods of addressing risk may not be applicable in the cloud environment.

Which of the following BEST explains why traditional methods for addressing risk may not be applicable in a cloud environment?

A. Migrating operations assumes the acceptance of all risk.
B. Cloud providers are unable to avoid risk.
C. Specific risks cannot be transferred to the cloud provider.
D. Risks to data in the cloud cannot be mitigated.

Correct Answer:
C. Specific risks cannot be transferred to the cloud provider

Explanation):

When an organization migrates its systems to the cloud, traditional on-premises risk management practices may not be directly applicable due to differences in responsibility and control between on-premises infrastructure and cloud environments. This shift requires organizations to adjust their approach to risk management to fit the shared responsibility model of cloud services.

Why Option C is correct:

Specific risks cannot be transferred to the cloud provider:
In a cloud environment, the responsibility for managing certain risks is shared between the cloud service provider (CSP) and the organization. While the cloud provider is responsible for securing the cloud infrastructure, certain risks, such as those related to data security, access controls, and user behavior, still fall under the responsibility of the organization.

For example, while the cloud provider may ensure the physical and network security of their data centers, the organization is still responsible for properly configuring cloud services, securing data, and managing access controls to prevent data breaches. This division of responsibilities means that not all risks can be transferred to the cloud provider, and the organization must continue managing certain aspects of risk.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Migrating operations assumes the acceptance of all risk:
This statement is incorrect because risk management involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks, not merely accepting all risks. Cloud migrations should involve a strategic approach to risk management, where risks are addressed proactively.
B. Cloud providers are unable to avoid risk:
While it's true that cloud providers can't eliminate all risks, they can help mitigate many risks, such as physical security and network vulnerabilities, through robust infrastructure and security measures. This option oversimplifies the relationship between cloud providers and customers, ignoring the shared responsibility model.
D. Risks to data in the cloud cannot be mitigated:
This is also incorrect. Many security measures, including encryption, identity management, and access controls, can significantly mitigate risks to data in the cloud. Cloud providers offer a variety of tools and best practices for securing data, and organizations must also implement additional security controls to protect their data.

In conclusion, the shared responsibility model of cloud environments is key to understanding why traditional risk management methods may not apply in the cloud. Certain risks remain the responsibility of the organization, and understanding this division is crucial for properly securing cloud-based systems and data. Option C best describes why traditional risk methods may not directly translate to cloud environments.

Question No 3:

A company developed an external application for its customers. A security researcher recently discovered a serious LDAP injection vulnerability in the application that could allow an attacker to bypass both authentication and authorization mechanisms.

Which of the following actions would be the MOST effective in addressing this LDAP injection vulnerability? (Choose two.)

A. Conduct input sanitization.
B. Deploy a SIEM.
C. Use containers.
D. Patch the OS.
E. Deploy a WAF.
F. Deploy a reverse proxy.
G. Deploy an IDS.

Correct Answer: A. Conduct input sanitization, E. Deploy a WAF

Explanation:

LDAP Injection occurs when untrusted data is included in an LDAP query without proper validation or sanitization, potentially allowing attackers to manipulate the query and bypass security controls such as authentication and authorization. To resolve this vulnerability, it is essential to implement security measures that prevent unauthorized manipulation of LDAP queries.

Let’s analyze the proposed solutions:

Option A: Conduct input sanitization
Input sanitization is one of the most effective methods to mitigate LDAP injection vulnerabilities. By sanitizing input, the application ensures that user inputs are validated and filtered to prevent harmful characters or scripts from being included in the LDAP query. Proper sanitization would stop attackers from injecting malicious code into the LDAP query, thus preventing unauthorized access to sensitive resources. This is the best solution for directly addressing the root cause of LDAP injection vulnerabilities.
Option B: Deploy a SIEM
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems are useful for detecting and monitoring security incidents by aggregating logs from various sources. However, while a SIEM can detect suspicious activities and help in incident response, it does not directly address or prevent LDAP injection vulnerabilities. Therefore, this is not the most effective solution for the specific issue at hand.
Option C: Use containers
Containers help isolate applications and their environments, providing better security and resource management. However, containers do not directly prevent or mitigate LDAP injection attacks. The vulnerability is within the application code, not the container environment, so containers do not address the root cause of the issue.
Option D: Patch the OS
Patching the operating system is essential for maintaining security, but it does not directly mitigate an LDAP injection vulnerability within the application itself. The vulnerability stems from poor input validation, which is unrelated to the operating system's security patches.
Option E: Deploy a WAF (Web Application Firewall)
A WAF can be an effective solution for mitigating application-level vulnerabilities, including LDAP injection attacks. WAFs can filter and block malicious traffic by inspecting incoming requests and identifying patterns indicative of injection attacks. This can act as an additional layer of defense, especially if input sanitization alone is not sufficient.
Option F: Deploy a reverse proxy
While a reverse proxy helps with traffic management, load balancing, and security, it does not specifically protect against LDAP injection vulnerabilities in the application code. It may provide some benefits for traffic inspection, but it doesn't directly address input validation or query sanitization.
Option G: Deploy an IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
An IDS can detect suspicious behavior or potential attacks, but like a SIEM, it is a reactive solution rather than a preventive one. It does not prevent the LDAP injection vulnerability itself; it simply detects it after an attack has occurred.

The most effective actions to prevent LDAP injection attacks are input sanitization (to prevent malicious input from affecting the LDAP queries) and deploying a WAF (to block malicious traffic). These solutions directly mitigate the risks associated with LDAP injection vulnerabilities.

Question No 4:

In preparation for the holiday season, a company redesigned its system that manages retail sales and migrated it to a cloud service provider. However, the new infrastructure failed to meet the company's availability requirements. After a post-mortem analysis, the following issues were identified:

International users reported latency when images on the web page were initially loading.
During report processing, users reported issues with inventory when attempting to place orders.
Despite adding ten new API servers, the load across servers was still heavy during peak times.

Which of the following infrastructure design changes would BEST address these issues and avoid them in the future?

A. Serve static content via distributed CDNs, create a read replica of the central database and pull reports from there, and auto-scale API servers based on performance.
B. Increase the bandwidth for the server that delivers images, use a CDN, change the database to a non-relational database, and split the ten API servers across two load balancers.
C. Serve images from an object storage bucket with infrequent read times, replicate the database across different regions, and dynamically create API servers based on load.
D. Serve static-content object storage across different regions, increase the instance size on the managed relational database, and distribute the ten API servers across multiple regions.

Correct Answer: A. Serve static content via distributed CDNs, create a read replica of the central database and pull reports from there, and auto-scale API servers based on performance.

Explanation:

The company’s issues stem from both performance bottlenecks and scalability problems as the system struggled to handle high traffic during peak times. Let's analyze the proposed solutions to address these concerns:

Option A: Serve static content via distributed CDNs, create a read replica of the central database and pull reports from there, and auto-scale API servers based on performance.
Content Delivery Networks (CDNs) help reduce latency by caching static content such as images at multiple locations worldwide, ensuring faster access for international users. This addresses the latency issue described in the first bullet.
Read replicas of the central database allow read-heavy operations (such as pulling reports) to be offloaded to a separate instance, reducing the load on the main database and improving overall performance.
Auto-scaling API servers based on performance ensures that during peak traffic, the system can scale up the number of API servers automatically, preventing overload and improving response times.
This solution addresses all three of the identified issues and improves scalability, making it the best option.
Option B: Increase the bandwidth for the server that delivers images, use a CDN, change the database to a non-relational database, and split the ten API servers across two load balancers.
Increasing the bandwidth for image delivery helps address latency but may not solve the root cause of heavy load during peak times.
Changing the database to a non-relational database might not be ideal since relational databases are more suitable for retail inventory management.
Splitting the API servers across load balancers can help distribute traffic, but this does not scale effectively if the root cause is a performance bottleneck.
Option C: Serve images from an object storage bucket with infrequent read times, replicate the database across different regions, and dynamically create API servers based on load.
While object storage is a good solution for static content, the use of infrequent read times might cause delay when users access images.
Database replication across regions can improve availability but adds complexity and may not solve the immediate inventory and API server load issues.
Dynamic creation of API servers is useful but needs to be complemented with auto-scaling.
Option D: Serve static-content object storage across different regions, increase the instance size on the managed relational database, and distribute the ten API servers across multiple regions.
Object storage across regions helps with serving static content, but increasing the instance size of the database may only provide short-term relief.
Distributing the API servers across regions may improve availability, but it does not directly address load balancing or auto-scaling during peak times.

Option A provides the most comprehensive solution, addressing latency, load, and database performance issues by leveraging CDNs, read replicas, and auto-scaling, making it the best choice for improving availability and system performance.

Question No 5:

A company moved its computer equipment to a secure storage room with cameras positioned on both sides of the door. The door is secured with a card reader issued by the security team, and only security staff and department managers have access to the room. The company wants to identify unauthorized individuals who enter the room by following an authorized employee.

Which of the following processes would BEST meet this security requirement?

A. Monitor camera footage corresponding to a valid access request.
B. Require both security and management to open the door.
C. Require department managers to review denied-access requests.
D. Issue new entry badges on a weekly basis.

Correct Answer: A. Monitor camera footage corresponding to a valid access request.

Explanation:

In this scenario, the company’s goal is to identify any unauthorized individuals who may follow authorized personnel into the secure storage room. Let’s evaluate each option:

Option A: Monitor camera footage corresponding to a valid access request.
Monitoring camera footage when an authorized employee accesses the room is an effective way to identify unauthorized individuals. By correlating the footage with access logs from the card reader, security personnel can track whether an unauthorized person follows an authorized individual into the room. This method helps ensure that access to the room is controlled and monitored, providing an ongoing security check on who enters the room.
Option B: Require both security and management to open the door.
While requiring both security and management to open the door may enhance physical security, it does not directly address the issue of unauthorized individuals following authorized employees into the room. This approach may cause delays and inconvenience but does not guarantee identification of unauthorized access.
Option C: Require department managers to review denied-access requests.
Requiring department managers to review denied-access requests is useful for auditing and monitoring, but it does not specifically solve the issue of unauthorized individuals entering the room. Denied-access logs would not help track unauthorized individuals who gain access through piggybacking.
Option D: Issue new entry badges on a weekly basis.
Issuing new entry badges on a weekly basis does not solve the problem of unauthorized access through piggybacking. While this may improve overall security by ensuring that badges are up-to-date, it does not address the immediate issue of tracking unauthorized access.

The best option for ensuring security is to monitor camera footage corresponding to access requests, as this allows for immediate detection and identification of unauthorized individuals following authorized personnel into the room.

Question No 6:

A company is preparing to deploy a global service and must ensure compliance with the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR).

Which of the following actions must the company take to comply with GDPR? (Choose two.)

A. Inform users regarding what data is stored.
B. Provide opt-in/out for marketing messages.
C. Provide data deletion capabilities.
D. Provide optional data encryption.
E. Grant data access to third parties.
F. Provide alternative authentication techniques.

Correct Answer:

A. Inform users regarding what data is stored.
C. Provide data deletion capabilities.

Explanation:

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation enacted by the European Union (EU) that governs how organizations must handle personal data. GDPR compliance is mandatory for any company that processes the personal data of EU citizens, regardless of where the company is located. Two of the key principles of GDPR are transparency and data subject rights. To ensure compliance with GDPR, organizations must adopt specific practices regarding data transparency, user consent, data access, and data deletion.

Why Option A is correct:

Inform users regarding what data is stored:
GDPR requires that companies be transparent about the types of personal data they collect and store. Under the transparency principle of GDPR, organizations must clearly inform users about the nature of the data being collected, its purpose, and how long it will be retained. This can be done through privacy policies, terms of service, or consent forms. Users must be made aware of what personal data is being stored and how it will be used, in line with the right to be informed under GDPR. By providing this transparency, the company ensures that users can make informed decisions about sharing their personal data.

Why Option C is correct:

Provide data deletion capabilities:
The right to erasure, also known as the right to be forgotten, is a fundamental part of GDPR. This right allows individuals to request the deletion of their personal data when it is no longer necessary for the purposes for which it was collected, or if they withdraw their consent. Organizations must be able to delete or anonymize personal data upon request, especially if a user withdraws consent or objects to processing. Failure to provide users with a way to delete their data can lead to significant legal penalties under GDPR.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Provide opt-in/out for marketing messages:
While GDPR requires user consent for marketing messages, the option to opt-in or opt-out for marketing messages is not mandatory for GDPR compliance. However, it is an important consent management practice. Organizations must gain explicit consent before sending marketing materials, but the opt-in/out functionality is not explicitly listed as one of the essential GDPR requirements.
D. Provide optional data encryption:
Encryption is a good security measure and can help with compliance in terms of data security under GDPR, but it is not an explicit requirement for GDPR compliance. The regulation focuses on protecting personal data and allowing users to control their data, but encryption is an optional safeguard rather than a mandatory compliance measure.
E. Grant data access to third parties:
GDPR imposes strict conditions on how data can be shared with third parties. Data access to third parties must be well-controlled and only done with user consent or legal justification. Sharing data with third parties without proper compliance measures can violate GDPR principles, so this is not a necessary step to ensure compliance.
F. Provide alternative authentication techniques:
Providing alternative authentication techniques is not specifically required for GDPR compliance. While securing data with strong authentication methods is important, GDPR focuses more on ensuring users' rights to privacy and data protection rather than the methods used for authentication.

In conclusion, to achieve GDPR compliance, the company must ensure transparency about the data stored and provide users with the ability to request data deletion. These actions align with key GDPR principles and are critical to ensuring that users' rights are respected and protected.

Question No 7:

A SOC analyst is investigating malicious activity on an externally exposed web server. During the investigation, the analyst finds that specific traffic is not being logged, and there is no visibility from the Web Application Firewall (WAF) for the web application.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The user agent client is not compatible with the WAF.
B. A certificate on the WAF is expired.
C. HTTP traffic is not forwarding to HTTPS to decrypt.
D. Old, vulnerable cipher suites are still being used.

Correct Answer:
C. HTTP traffic is not forwarding to HTTPS to decrypt.

Explanation:

Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) are essential components in the security infrastructure for web applications, primarily designed to detect and block malicious traffic, including attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and botnet traffic. However, WAFs can face challenges if they are not configured correctly or if traffic is not properly routed to be inspected. In this scenario, the SOC analyst is investigating why specific traffic is not being logged by the WAF, and no visibility is being provided.

Why Option C is correct:

HTTP traffic is not forwarding to HTTPS to decrypt:
One of the most common issues with WAF visibility is related to traffic encryption. WAFs typically work by inspecting traffic that is decrypted and forwarded to the application. If an application is not configured to forward traffic from HTTP (unencrypted) to HTTPS (encrypted), or if there is no proper redirection from HTTP to HTTPS, the WAF cannot decrypt and inspect the traffic. This would result in the lack of visibility for HTTP traffic and explain why it is not being logged by the WAF. Without proper TLS/SSL termination at the WAF or web server, any HTTP traffic bypassing the WAF would not be inspected, leading to blind spots in traffic logging and detection.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. The user agent client is not compatible with the WAF:
While incompatibilities between the WAF and client-side software may cause issues with some requests, it is unlikely to prevent the WAF from logging or inspecting traffic entirely. WAFs generally handle a broad range of clients and user agents, and any issues would typically result in failure to block specific attacks, not a total lack of visibility.

B. A certificate on the WAF is expired:
While an expired certificate on the WAF could cause secure connections (HTTPS) to fail, it would not cause a lack of visibility into HTTP traffic. HTTP traffic, which is unencrypted, would not rely on the expiration of an SSL/TLS certificate for visibility or logging.

D. Old, vulnerable cipher suites are still being used:
While using outdated cipher suites could pose security risks, it would not result in the complete lack of visibility of traffic to the WAF. The main issue would likely be the degradation of secure communication, not the complete inability of the WAF to log or inspect traffic.

In conclusion, the most likely cause of the issue is that HTTP traffic is not being forwarded to HTTPS for decryption. WAFs are typically designed to inspect encrypted HTTPS traffic after it has been decrypted. If traffic isn't forwarded or decrypted correctly, the WAF will not be able to log or analyze it, leading to visibility gaps. Proper configuration of SSL/TLS termination is necessary to ensure that all traffic is inspected by the WAF.

Question No 8:

Which of the following terms refers to the process of delivering encryption keys to a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) or a third-party entity for secure management?

A. Key sharing
B. Key distribution
C. Key recovery
D. Key escrow

Correct Answer: D. Key escrow

Explanation:

In the context of encryption and cloud security, the delivery of encryption keys to an external entity, such as a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) or another third-party provider, is critical for managing data security. Let's break down the terms in the question to understand their significance:

Key Sharing (Option A):
Key sharing refers to the process where encryption keys are made available to multiple parties for access. While this term could be loosely associated with key delivery, it specifically implies that multiple parties have access to the keys, which isn't the central concept when it comes to delivering keys to a CASB or third-party entity. It's not an accurate term in the context of secure key management practices.
Key Distribution (Option B):
Key distribution is the process of transmitting encryption keys from one entity to another, typically between clients and servers or other entities requiring encrypted communications. However, key distribution alone doesn’t imply that the keys are being handed over to a third party for future use or management. This term generally refers to the initial setup or exchange of keys but doesn't specifically focus on secure management by a third party like a CASB.
Key Recovery (Option C):
Key recovery refers to the process of retrieving lost, forgotten, or otherwise inaccessible encryption keys, often through a pre-established mechanism such as a recovery key or system. While key recovery plays a role in ensuring access to encrypted data, it doesn't relate to delivering encryption keys to third parties for management. Instead, it's about retrieving keys that were previously inaccessible.
Key Escrow (Option D):
Key escrow is the correct term in this context. It refers to the practice of storing encryption keys with a trusted third party—such as a CASB or a dedicated key management service (KMS)—so that those keys can be retrieved if needed. This concept is particularly relevant in cloud security, where encryption keys may be held by a service provider, and the escrow arrangement allows for controlled access to those keys by authorized parties. This ensures that the encryption keys are managed securely, with the option for recovery or decryption if necessary, all while maintaining security controls.

The most accurate term for delivering encryption keys to a third-party entity, such as a CASB, for secure management is key escrow. It enables the controlled storage and access of encryption keys, balancing security with accessibility when needed.

Question No 9:

An organization is implementing a new identity and access management (IAM) architecture to meet the following objectives:

Supporting multi-factor authentication (MFA) for on-premises infrastructure
Improving the user experience by integrating with SaaS applications
Applying risk-based policies based on user location
Performing just-in-time provisioning for user accounts

Which of the following authentication protocols should the organization implement to meet these requirements?

A. Kerberos and TACACS
B. SAML and RADIUS
C. OAuth and OpenID
D. OTP and 802.1X

Correct Answer: C. OAuth and OpenID

Explanation:

When designing an identity and access management (IAM) architecture that must support multiple critical features such as multi-factor authentication (MFA), SaaS application integration, risk-based policies, and just-in-time provisioning, it is essential to choose the right authentication protocols. Let’s break down each option in the context of the organization’s objectives.

Kerberos is an authentication protocol commonly used in traditional on-premises environments for single sign-on (SSO), primarily in Microsoft Active Directory-based networks. While it is excellent for on-premises authentication, it does not offer the flexibility required for SaaS integration, MFA, or risk-based policies.
TACACS (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System) is typically used in network device authentication (such as routers and switches) and is less relevant for managing cloud-based applications or implementing risk-based policies. These protocols do not meet the broad requirements of modern cloud environments, so they are not the best choice for this scenario.

SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is a widely used protocol for enabling SSO and integrating with cloud-based applications, and it can support MFA in certain cases. However, RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is generally used for network access control and does not integrate directly with modern cloud-native applications or support just-in-time provisioning as effectively as other protocols.
While this combination might meet some requirements for on-premises and network device authentication, it lacks seamless integration with cloud-based applications and risk-based policies.

OTP (One-Time Password) is an MFA method that enhances security, but it is typically used as a secondary factor for authentication rather than as the primary protocol.
802.1X is a network access control protocol used to secure network access, usually for devices connecting to a local area network (LAN) or Wi-Fi. While it enhances security for network devices, it is not suitable for integrating with cloud applications or implementing SaaS-based SSO or risk-based policies.

The best solution to meet the organization’s IAM objectives is OAuth and OpenID. These protocols are specifically designed to enable modern authentication mechanisms such as MFA, SaaS integration, risk-based policies, and just-in-time provisioning. They offer the flexibility, scalability, and security required in today's cloud-based environments.