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CAS-005 CompTIA Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

An organization is working to improve the security of its development process and ensure that developers cannot deploy artifacts directly into the production environment. Which of the following security practices would be the most effective way to achieve this goal?

A. Implement least privilege access to all systems.
B. Roll out security awareness training for all users.
C. Set up policies and systems with separation of duties.
D. Enforce job rotations for all developers and administrators.
E. Utilize mandatory vacations for all developers.
F. Review all access to production systems on a quarterly basis.

Answer:

The correct answer is C. Set up policies and systems with separation of duties.

Explanation:

When securing the development process and ensuring that developers cannot deploy artifacts directly into the production environment, it’s crucial to implement controls that prevent unauthorized access or actions while maintaining the necessary operational efficiency. Let's break down the options provided:

A. Implement least privilege access to all systems.

Least privilege access ensures that users only have the permissions necessary to perform their jobs and no more. While this is an important practice for overall security, it doesn’t specifically address the separation of duties between development and production environments. Developers may still have sufficient permissions to deploy artifacts to production unless specific policies are in place.

B. Roll out security awareness training for all users.

Security awareness training helps users recognize and prevent potential security threats, such as phishing or malware attacks. While important for fostering a security-conscious culture, it does not directly address the structural controls needed to prevent developers from deploying artifacts into production environments. Training alone won’t stop developers from bypassing security policies if the systems and processes aren’t properly designed.

C. Set up policies and systems with separation of duties (Correct Answer).

The best practice in this scenario is to separate duties between development, testing, and production environments. By setting up clear policies and systems with separation of duties, you can ensure that no single individual has the ability to both develop and deploy to production. For example, developers should not have access to production deployment pipelines, and deployment to production should be handled by a separate team, such as the operations or DevOps team, following a defined approval process. This reduces the risk of unintended or unauthorized changes to the production environment.

D. Enforce job rotations for all developers and administrators.

Job rotation can be useful for detecting fraud or improving security by ensuring that no single individual has unchecked control over a critical system for too long. However, it is not as directly effective as separation of duties when it comes to preventing unauthorized production deployments. Rotation might be more useful for preventing insider threats but doesn’t address the specific access control issue.

E. Utilize mandatory vacations for all developers.

Mandatory vacations are often used as a way to detect fraud or unethical behavior by ensuring that work is reviewed during a developer’s absence. While it can be a useful tactic for security, it does not directly prevent developers from accessing or deploying to production environments.

F. Review all access to production systems on a quarterly basis.

Reviewing access permissions periodically is a good security practice but is reactive rather than preventive. By the time access is reviewed, it might already be too late if a developer has gained unauthorized access or deployed to production. More proactive control measures, such as separation of duties, are more effective.

The most effective way to prevent developers from deploying artifacts directly to production is to establish clear separation of duties through well-defined policies and systems. This ensures that the necessary checks and balances are in place, limiting the chances of unauthorized access and deployments. Therefore, C. Set up policies and systems with separation of duties is the best recommendation.

Question No 2:

A security architect is reviewing the code for a company's website and finds the following line:

selection = "SELECT Item FROM Catalog WHERE ItemID = " & Request("ItemID")

Which of the following security practices should the security architect recommend to prevent potential security vulnerabilities?

A. Client-side processing
B. Query parameterization
C. Data normalization
D. Escape character blocking
E. URL encoding

Answer:

The correct answer is B. Query parameterization.

Explanation:

In this scenario, the code is constructing an SQL query by concatenating a user-supplied input (Request("ItemID")) directly into the query string. This approach is vulnerable to SQL injection attacks, where an attacker could manipulate the ItemID parameter to execute arbitrary SQL commands, potentially compromising the integrity and security of the database.

Let's go through the options to identify the most effective recommendation:

A. Client-side processing

Client-side processing refers to running code (usually JavaScript) on the user's browser rather than on the server. While client-side processing can offload some tasks from the server, it is not an effective way to prevent SQL injection. In fact, relying on client-side processing for security is risky because users can easily bypass or manipulate client-side code. Server-side validation and sanitization are much more critical for preventing SQL injection.

B. Query parameterization (Correct Answer)

Query parameterization (or prepared statements) is a technique that ensures user input is treated as data rather than executable code. When using parameterized queries, the input is bound to parameters in the query, preventing the possibility of the user input modifying the structure of the SQL query. For example, instead of constructing the query as a string, the code would pass the ItemID as a parameter to the database query. This way, the database understands that the input is data, not part of the query logic. This is the most effective defense against SQL injection.

Example of parameterized query in code:

SELECT Item FROM Catalog WHERE ItemID = ?

C. Data normalization

Data normalization refers to the process of structuring a database to reduce redundancy and improve data integrity. While normalization is important for database design, it does not directly prevent SQL injection. SQL injection is a security vulnerability, not a data structure issue, so normalization does not mitigate this risk.

D. Escape character blocking

Escape character blocking involves identifying and blocking characters that may be used for SQL injection, such as single quotes (') or semicolons (;). While this can help in some cases, it is not as effective as query parameterization because attackers can still bypass this mechanism using other techniques or different encoding methods.

E. URL encoding

URL encoding is the process of encoding special characters in a URL (e.g., turning a space into %20). While URL encoding is useful for transmitting user data in URLs, it does not address the core issue of SQL injection, which arises from how user input is handled in SQL queries. URL encoding alone would not prevent malicious input from being executed in an SQL query.

The most effective and secure method to prevent SQL injection is to use query parameterization, as it ensures that user inputs are treated as data rather than executable code. This method directly addresses the vulnerability in the code snippet and ensures a secure, robust system. Therefore, B. Query parameterization is the correct recommendation.

Question No 3:

A CRM company uses a Cloud Service Provider’s (CSP) Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) offering to host and deliver its Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) product. A large customer of the CRM company has requested that all infrastructure components meet stringent regulatory requirements, including configuration management, patch management, and life-cycle management. Which of the following organizations is responsible for ensuring that these regulatory requirements are met?

A. The CRM company
B. The CRM company's customer
C. The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)
D. The regulatory body

Answer:

The correct answer is A. The CRM company.

Explanation:

In this scenario, the CRM company is using a Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) offering from a Cloud Service Provider (CSP) to host and publish its Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) product. The customer has requested that the CRM company ensures its infrastructure complies with stringent regulatory requirements, including areas like configuration management, patch management, and lifecycle management. To understand which organization is responsible for meeting these requirements, let’s explore the roles of each party involved:

A. The CRM company (Correct Answer)

The CRM company is ultimately responsible for ensuring that their SaaS product complies with the regulatory requirements requested by the customer. Although the CSP provides the infrastructure (the PaaS), the CRM company must ensure that its own SaaS application and its underlying infrastructure configuration (as managed through the PaaS) align with the customer’s regulatory needs. This includes ensuring that the service is securely configured, regularly patched, and effectively managed throughout its lifecycle. While the CRM company can rely on the CSP to offer compliant infrastructure services, the responsibility for compliance typically lies with the organization delivering the service—in this case, the CRM company.

B. The CRM company’s customer

The customer may require compliance, but they do not bear the responsibility for managing the CRM company’s infrastructure or services. They can request or mandate specific regulatory requirements, but they rely on the CRM company to meet those demands.

C. The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

The CSP is responsible for ensuring that the underlying infrastructure they provide (including the hardware, networking, and base-level platform services) meets regulatory and compliance standards. However, since the customer’s request relates to application-level components and service management practices (such as patching, configuration, and lifecycle management), the responsibility for compliance at that level still falls to the CRM company.

D. The regulatory body

A regulatory body sets the rules and standards that need to be followed, but they do not directly manage or implement compliance. Their role is to establish guidelines, monitor compliance, and enforce penalties if necessary, but they do not ensure that any specific organization or entity is meeting the requirements.

The CRM company is responsible for ensuring that their service meets regulatory requirements because they control the configuration, deployment, and management of the SaaS product that is being provided to the customer. They are the organization responsible for adhering to compliance standards that govern their application and service management practices. Therefore, the correct answer is A. The CRM company.

Question No 4:

Company A is merging with Company B. Company A is a smaller, local business, while Company B has a large global presence. The two companies have a lot of duplication in their IT systems, processes, and procedures. On the new Chief Information Officer’s (CIO) first day, a fire breaks out at Company B’s main data center. Which of the following actions should the CIO take first?

A. Determine whether the incident response plan has been tested at both companies, and use it to respond.
B. Review the incident response plans, and engage the disaster recovery plan while relying on the IT leaders from both companies.
C. Ensure hot, warm, and mobile disaster recovery sites are available, and give an update to the companies’ leadership teams.
D. Initiate Company A’s IT systems processes and procedures, assess the damage, and perform a Business Impact Analysis (BIA).

Answer:

The correct answer is B. Review the incident response plans, and engage the disaster recovery plan while relying on the IT leaders from both companies.

Explanation:

When a significant incident like a fire at a data center occurs, the new Chief Information Officer (CIO) must act swiftly and decisively to mitigate potential damage and ensure business continuity. In this case, there is an immediate need for a coordinated response, as the fire affects Company B’s main data center, which may house critical infrastructure and services. Here’s an analysis of the best course of action:

A. Determine whether the incident response plan has been tested at both companies, and use it to respond.

While it is important to ensure that the incident response plan has been tested, this action is not the immediate priority. Waiting to assess whether the plan has been tested could cause delays in responding to the fire. The CIO must act quickly to manage the crisis, so the first step is not testing the plan but engaging it, assuming it has already been developed and reviewed.

B. Review the incident response plans, and engage the disaster recovery plan while relying on the IT leaders from both companies (Correct Answer).

The first and most crucial action is to review the existing incident response plans for both Company A and Company B. In this case, the fire at Company B’s data center requires an immediate response, and the disaster recovery plan should be activated without delay. The CIO should rely on IT leaders from both companies to coordinate resources, evaluate the damage, and implement the necessary recovery actions. This response will provide a structured approach, ensuring that all critical systems are restored, and data loss is minimized.

C. Ensure hot, warm, and mobile disaster recovery sites are available, and give an update to the companies’ leadership teams.

While ensuring the availability of hot, warm, and mobile disaster recovery sites is essential, it is not the first priority. The CIO’s immediate concern should be engaging the incident response plan and disaster recovery efforts, which include ensuring that backup sites are available. Providing an update to leadership teams can be done once the recovery process is underway.

D. Initiate Company A’s IT systems processes and procedures, assess the damage, and perform a Business Impact Analysis (BIA).

While assessing the damage and performing a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is critical for understanding the full extent of the impact, this is not the immediate action needed. A BIA is more appropriate after the immediate recovery efforts are underway. At this stage, the CIO should focus on executing the disaster recovery plan, leveraging the incident response framework to manage the situation effectively.

The CIO’s first priority should be to engage the incident response plan and activate the disaster recovery plan, ensuring that both companies’ IT leaders are involved in the recovery process. This action is the most effective way to ensure a swift and coordinated response to the disaster. Therefore, B. Review the incident response plans, and engage the disaster recovery plan while relying on the IT leaders from both companies is the correct answer.

Question No 5:

A security analyst is investigating a potential insider threat incident involving the use of an unauthorized USB device connected to a shared account to exfiltrate data. The event did not trigger an alert, but the analyst has confirmed that the USB device’s hardware ID is not on the company’s device allow list. However, the analyst has not yet determined who owns the USB device. Which of the following actions should the analyst take next?

A. Classify the incident as a false positive.
B. Classify the incident as a false negative.
C. Classify the incident as a true positive.
D. Classify the incident as a true negative.

Answer:

The correct answer is B. Classify the incident as a false negative.

Explanation:

In this scenario, the security analyst is investigating an incident that involves an unauthorized USB device being used to exfiltrate data. The event did not trigger an alert, even though the USB device is not on the device allow list, which suggests that the alerting mechanisms might not have functioned as expected. To understand why B. Classify the incident as a false negative is the correct next step, let's break down each option:

A. Classify the incident as a false positive.

A false positive occurs when an alert is triggered for an event that is not actually malicious or significant. In this case, since the USB device is unauthorized and used in a suspicious context (data exfiltration), it does not meet the definition of a false positive. This event should not be dismissed as benign, as there is still potential evidence of an insider threat.

B. Classify the incident as a false negative (Correct Answer).

A false negative occurs when a malicious event or potential security breach does not trigger an alert, even though it should have. In this scenario, the USB device connected to a shared account (which could be an insider threat) is unauthorized, and there is no alert generated, even though there should be one based on security policies and device monitoring. This failure to detect the event constitutes a false negative. The analyst should focus on identifying the cause of the missed alert and work on improving detection systems to prevent similar incidents in the future.

C. Classify the incident as a true positive.

A true positive refers to an event that triggers an alert and is verified as an actual security threat. In this case, although the USB device is unauthorized and used for potentially malicious purposes, the lack of an alert means that this incident was not identified by the monitoring system, so it cannot yet be classified as a true positive.

D. Classify the incident as a true negative.

A true negative occurs when no alert is triggered, and the event is deemed to be benign. Given the potential security implications of the unauthorized USB device, this option is not correct. The incident should be classified as suspicious, not benign.

The analyst should classify the event as a false negative because the unauthorized USB device should have triggered an alert based on the company’s security monitoring systems. The next step is to investigate why the alert was missed and take corrective action to improve detection capabilities. Therefore, B. Classify the incident as a false negative is the correct response.

Question No 6:

Which of the following security features are provided by email signatures?

A. Non-repudiation
B. Body encryption
C. Code signing
D. Sender authentication
E. Chain of custody

Answer:

The correct answer is A. Non-repudiation and D. Sender authentication.

Explanation:

Email signatures, especially those that are digitally signed, offer several security features to ensure the authenticity and integrity of email communication. Let's examine each option to understand the role email signatures play in securing emails:

A. Non-repudiation (Correct Answer)

Non-repudiation refers to the ability to ensure that a sender cannot deny having sent a particular message. Digital signatures, commonly used in email signatures, provide non-repudiation by linking the sender’s identity with the content of the email in such a way that only the sender (or someone with access to their private key) could have signed it. This is crucial for legal and compliance purposes, as it prevents the sender from denying authorship of the message later. In case of disputes, the digital signature serves as proof of origin and authenticity.

B. Body encryption

Email signatures do not provide body encryption. While digital signatures ensure the integrity and authenticity of the message, they do not encrypt the body of the email itself. Body encryption is typically achieved through email encryption techniques such as S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) or PGP (Pretty Good Privacy), which encrypt the content to ensure confidentiality. The signature only verifies that the content has not been tampered with, but it doesn’t make the content unreadable to others.

C. Code signing

Code signing is a process used to verify the integrity and authenticity of software code, ensuring that the software has not been tampered with. It is not related to email signatures. Email signatures are used for verifying the identity of the sender and ensuring the email content hasn't been altered, not for signing software or executable files.

D. Sender authentication (Correct Answer)

Sender authentication is a feature of email signatures. By using cryptographic methods (such as public and private key pairs), email signatures authenticate the identity of the sender. This ensures that the email truly came from the sender it claims to have come from, and not from an imposter. This helps prevent spoofing and phishing attacks, where attackers try to impersonate legitimate senders.

E. Chain of custody

The concept of chain of custody typically refers to the documentation and tracking of the movement of evidence, such as in legal or forensic contexts. While email signatures may provide some assurance of the integrity of the message, they do not directly ensure a "chain of custody" in the traditional sense. They primarily provide integrity and authenticity verification.

Email signatures primarily provide non-repudiation and sender authentication, ensuring that the sender’s identity is verified and the message content has not been altered. Therefore, the correct answers are A. Non-repudiation and D. Sender authentication.