Isaca CCAK Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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CCAK Isaca Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question 1:

Which factor is most likely to impact the expansion or reduction of the controls needed to manage risks associated with changes in an organization’s SaaS vendor?

A. Risk exceptions policy
B. Contractual requirements
C. Risk appetite
D. Board oversight

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

When an organization relies on a SaaS (Software as a Service) vendor, any changes in the vendor’s services, infrastructure, or security protocols can introduce new risks. In such cases, it’s crucial to review the controls in place to mitigate those risks and determine whether additional controls are required or whether some can be relaxed.

Option A: Risk exceptions policy - A risk exceptions policy outlines conditions under which certain risks can be accepted without full mitigation. However, this policy typically doesn’t directly affect the expansion or reduction of controls in response to a vendor change. Instead, it determines when risks can be ignored or allowed under specific circumstances, rather than dictating the need for new controls.
Option B: Contractual requirements - The most significant factor that would influence changes to controls for managing risk related to a SaaS vendor is the contractual agreement between the organization and the vendor. Contracts often specify the service levels, security obligations, and compliance requirements that must be met. If the SaaS vendor changes anything related to these agreements, such as altering security practices or service delivery, the organization will need to reassess its risk mitigation controls. This could lead to either expanding or reducing controls based on the new vendor terms.
Option C: Risk appetite - Risk appetite refers to the level of risk an organization is willing to accept. While this can influence decisions on risk management strategies, the risk appetite alone is less likely to drive changes in specific controls for managing SaaS vendor risks. It is more of a general guideline for decision-making rather than a reactive factor to vendor changes.
Option D: Board oversight - Board oversight is essential in making strategic decisions about risk management, but it doesn’t directly determine the need for specific controls to address vendor-related risks. The board may influence the approach to risk management, but the specifics of what controls are needed are more closely related to contractual obligations and the operational impact of vendor changes.

The correct answer is B (Contractual requirements). The contract between the organization and its SaaS vendor will define specific security and operational obligations that must be met. Any changes in the vendor’s terms will likely require a reassessment of risk mitigation controls.

Question 2:

A cloud service provider (CSP) contracts for a penetration test to be conducted on its infrastructure. The auditor conducts the test without any prior knowledge of the CSP’s defenses, assets, or channels, and the security operations center of the CSP is not notified of the scope or vectors for the audit.

What mode has the CSP selected for this penetration test?

A. Double gray box
B. Tandem
C. Reversal
D. Double blind

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Penetration testing, often referred to as ethical hacking, is a critical exercise that helps organizations identify vulnerabilities within their systems. The mode of penetration testing chosen determines the level of prior knowledge and communication between the penetration testers and the organization being tested.

Option A: Double gray box - A "gray box" penetration test means that the tester has partial knowledge of the system, typically including some information about the architecture, network layout, or even some system credentials. A "double gray box" would involve two testers, each with partial information. However, this is not the scenario described in the question.
Option B: Tandem - In a tandem penetration test, two separate teams (often an internal team and an external team) may work simultaneously, but this is not related to the prior knowledge of the penetration testers. The question doesn’t suggest a scenario where multiple teams are collaborating simultaneously, so this is not the correct answer.
Option C: Reversal - In a reversal penetration test, the roles are flipped, where the organization is tasked with identifying and exploiting vulnerabilities in the testing team’s systems. This is a less common approach and doesn’t align with the description of the CSP’s test.
Option D: Double blind - A double-blind penetration test is the correct answer. In this mode, both the CSP’s security operations center (SOC) and the penetration testers are unaware of the details of the test in advance. This mode simulates a real-world attack scenario where defenders have no prior knowledge of the attack, ensuring that the testing process is unbiased and the response measures are tested in a more realistic manner.

The correct answer is D (Double blind). In a double-blind penetration test, neither the penetration testers nor the organization’s security operations team is informed about the specifics of the test, allowing for a more realistic and unbiased evaluation of the CSP’s defenses.

Question 3:

Due to resource constraints within the cloud audit team, the initial audit plan cannot be completed as originally approved. If this limitation is communicated in the cloud audit report,

Which course of action should be prioritized as the most appropriate?

A. Focusing on auditing high-risk areas
B. Testing the adequacy of cloud controls design
C. Relying on management testing of cloud controls
D. Testing the operational effectiveness of cloud controls

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

When audit resources are limited, it is essential to adapt the scope and focus on the areas of highest risk to ensure that critical issues are addressed. In this scenario, the audit team must prioritize efforts to ensure that the most significant risks to the cloud environment are evaluated thoroughly.

Option A: Focusing on auditing high-risk areas - Given the resource constraints, focusing on high-risk areas ensures that the most critical aspects of the cloud environment are adequately tested, even if the entire audit plan cannot be executed. By prioritizing high-risk areas, the organization can mitigate the most severe potential threats or vulnerabilities. This approach is a practical and effective response to limited resources, ensuring that the audit provides value in addressing the most significant risks.
Option B: Testing the adequacy of cloud controls design - Testing the adequacy of the design of cloud controls is important but typically requires a detailed analysis of the control framework. While this could be part of the overall audit, with limited resources, the focus should be on areas where weaknesses are most likely to have the highest impact, rather than on just testing control design.
Option C: Relying on management testing of cloud controls - Relying solely on management to test cloud controls can be risky, as management may have inherent biases or may not possess the same level of scrutiny that an independent audit would provide. While management’s input is valuable, it should not replace independent audit testing, especially when dealing with limited resources.
Option D: Testing the operational effectiveness of cloud controls - While testing operational effectiveness is critical, focusing on high-risk areas first allows the audit to address the most impactful threats or weaknesses. Testing operational effectiveness across all areas may be too broad given the constraints.

The most appropriate course of action is A (Focusing on auditing high-risk areas). This ensures that the audit focuses on the most significant vulnerabilities or risks in the cloud environment, thereby maximizing the value of the audit within the resource limitations.

Question 4:

In an organization, which of the following scenarios is the most common cause of policy violations?

A. By accident
B. Deliberately by the ISP
C. Deliberately
D. Deliberately by the cloud provider

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Policy violations in organizations typically arise from unintentional actions rather than deliberate misconduct. Human error, lack of awareness, or misunderstandings of policies are common causes of such violations.

Option A: By accident - The most common cause of policy violations is accidental non-compliance. Employees may violate policies unintentionally due to a lack of understanding, oversight, or simple mistakes. This could happen if they are unaware of certain rules, fail to follow standard procedures, or overlook specific guidelines due to workload pressures or insufficient training.
Option B: Deliberately by the ISP - While policy violations by Internet Service Providers (ISPs) may occur, they are relatively rare. ISPs are typically bound by legal contracts and industry regulations to ensure compliance with privacy, security, and usage policies. Violations by the ISP are more likely to involve breaches of service agreements, rather than typical policy violations within the organization.
Option C: Deliberately - Deliberate violations can occur, but they are typically less common than accidental violations. Deliberate violations are often motivated by personal gain, negligence, or an intentional disregard of the policy. While serious, these violations usually result from a lack of proper controls, oversight, or internal discipline.
Option D: Deliberately by the cloud provider - Similar to ISPs, cloud providers are generally bound by service level agreements (SLAs) and strict compliance measures. Deliberate violations by cloud providers are rare, as they have robust compliance practices in place due to regulatory scrutiny and reputational risks.

The most likely cause of policy violations is A (By accident). Many policy violations are unintentional, stemming from human error, lack of awareness, or inadequate training, rather than deliberate actions.

Question 5:

Which of the following is considered the most effective tool for conducting audits of cloud security controls?

A. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
B. ISO 27001
C. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2
D. CSA Cloud Control Matrix (CCM)

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

To effectively audit cloud security controls, the tool or framework used must provide a comprehensive, structured approach to assessing the various aspects of cloud security. Here's a breakdown of each option:

Option A: General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) - GDPR is a regulation focused primarily on data protection and privacy for individuals within the European Union. While it is an important legal requirement for data security, it is not specifically designed for auditing the broader spectrum of cloud security controls. Its focus is more on compliance regarding personal data rather than on providing a structured framework for cloud security audits.
Option B: ISO 27001 - ISO 27001 is an international standard for information security management systems (ISMS). It provides a framework for managing sensitive company information, but it is more about managing information security at a broader organizational level rather than being tailored specifically for cloud security audits. Although it is a widely recognized and valuable framework, it does not provide a granular level of cloud-specific security controls like the CSA Cloud Control Matrix.
Option C: Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2 - FIPS 140-2 is a standard for cryptographic modules and focuses on evaluating the security of cryptographic systems. While it is critical for assessing cryptography and data protection mechanisms, it is not a comprehensive tool for auditing cloud security as a whole.
Option D: CSA Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) - The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) is the most comprehensive tool for auditing cloud security controls. It provides a detailed framework that focuses specifically on the security, risk, and compliance aspects of cloud computing. It covers areas such as data security, identity and access management, governance, and incident response, making it the best choice for performing cloud security control audits.

The CSA Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) (Option D) is the most effective tool for cloud security audits. It is specifically designed to address the unique aspects of cloud computing and provides a comprehensive framework for evaluating cloud security controls.

Question 6:

Which of the following controls is the most appropriate for ensuring that network environments and virtual instances are configured to restrict and monitor traffic between trusted and untrusted connections, with a documented justification for the use of all allowed services, protocols, ports, and compensating controls?

A. Network Security
B. Change Detection
C. Virtual Instance and OS Hardening
D. Network Vulnerability Management

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The control described in the question is focused on managing network traffic between trusted and untrusted connections, reviewing configurations regularly, and ensuring a justification for allowed services and ports. Let’s analyze each option:

Option A: Network Security - Network security encompasses the strategies, policies, and tools that ensure the security of a network infrastructure. This includes measures such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems (IDS), and network access controls, which directly align with the control requirements of restricting and monitoring network traffic. Network security controls help prevent unauthorized access to or from a private network, which fits the description in the question perfectly.
Option B: Change Detection - Change detection involves monitoring changes in the network or system environment to detect unauthorized alterations. While important, change detection is a reactive measure that identifies changes rather than proactively configuring and controlling the flow of traffic between trusted and untrusted networks. It doesn’t directly address the need for restricting and monitoring network traffic.
Option C: Virtual Instance and OS Hardening - Hardening virtual instances and operating systems refers to applying security measures to minimize vulnerabilities in the system, such as disabling unnecessary services, applying patches, and securing configurations. While important for securing individual virtual instances and systems, it does not directly focus on the management and monitoring of network traffic between trusted and untrusted zones.
Option D: Network Vulnerability Management - Network vulnerability management involves identifying, evaluating, and remediating vulnerabilities in the network. This is an important aspect of network security, but it focuses more on identifying weaknesses rather than proactively managing traffic flow and configuring access controls between trusted and untrusted networks.

The best fit for the control described in the question is Network Security (Option A). This control directly addresses the need for managing, restricting, and monitoring traffic between trusted and untrusted networks, and ensuring proper justification for allowed services and protocols.

Question 7:

After discovering a vulnerability in an organization’s internet-facing server, a cybersecurity attacker gains access to an encrypted file system and successfully overwrites part of several files with random data. Based on the Top Threats Analysis methodology, how would the technical impact of this incident be classified?

A. As an integrity breach
B. As a control breach
C. As an availability breach
D. As a confidentiality breach

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In this scenario, an attacker has gained unauthorized access to an encrypted file system and overwrote part of several files with random data. To assess the impact, we need to understand the nature of the breach:

Option A: As an integrity breach – Correct Answer. Integrity refers to the accuracy and reliability of data. When the attacker overwrites parts of files with random data, the files’ integrity is compromised because the original data is no longer intact or valid. The attacker has tampered with the data, making it unreliable or corrupt. This directly falls under an integrity breach, as the attacker has altered the data.
Option B: As a control breach – A control breach typically refers to a violation of security controls or mechanisms that are in place to protect data and systems. In this case, the issue is not about a breach of controls but the tampering of data, so this option does not align with the incident described.
Option C: As an availability breach – Availability breaches refer to situations where data or services are unavailable or inaccessible when needed. While the overwriting of data might cause some disruption to the availability of the files, the description focuses more on the tampering of the data itself, not on its unavailability. Therefore, this is not the correct categorization.
Option D: As a confidentiality breach – Confidentiality breaches involve unauthorized access to data, where the privacy of data is compromised. In this case, the attacker accessed the data but did not necessarily expose it to unauthorized parties. The incident is more about the alteration of data, not the disclosure of sensitive information, so this is not the right classification.

The most accurate classification of the technical impact of this incident is an integrity breach (Option A), as the attacker tampered with the data, which directly affects its accuracy and reliability.

Question 8:

Why do organizations maintain mappings between the different control frameworks they implement?

A. To help identify controls with common assessment status
B. To avoid duplication of work when assessing compliance
C. To help identify controls with different assessment status
D. To start a compliance assessment using the latest assessment

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Organizations adopt multiple control frameworks to ensure comprehensive security, compliance, and risk management practices. These frameworks provide guidelines and requirements for different security and operational controls. Mapping these frameworks allows organizations to streamline their processes. Let’s break down the options:

Option A: To help identify controls with common assessment status – While mapping frameworks can help organizations identify the status of controls, this option is somewhat too narrow and does not capture the broader benefit of mapping. The main value in mapping is to help organizations avoid redundant assessments, not just to identify controls with a common status.
Option B: To avoid duplication of work when assessing compliance – Correct Answer. One of the main reasons for mapping different control frameworks is to avoid duplicating effort. Different frameworks may overlap in their requirements, and by mapping them, organizations can assess compliance once and check off multiple frameworks at the same time. This reduces the redundancy of re-assessing the same controls under multiple frameworks, saving time and resources.
Option C: To help identify controls with different assessment status – This option is too focused on a specific aspect (assessment status) rather than the broader objective of reducing redundancy and optimizing compliance efforts. While identifying different assessment statuses is part of the mapping process, it is not the primary reason for maintaining these mappings.
Option D: To start a compliance assessment using the latest assessment – While mapping frameworks can help streamline compliance assessments, this option implies that the mapping directly starts a compliance assessment. In reality, the mappings help in the organization’s overall assessment process but do not directly kick off an assessment themselves.

The primary reason organizations maintain mappings between control frameworks is to avoid duplication of work when assessing compliance (Option B). By mapping frameworks, organizations can assess multiple frameworks with a single effort, thereby improving efficiency and reducing redundancy.

Question 9:

Which of the following best describes the process of Static Application Security Testing (SAST)?

A. Scanning the application’s source code.
B. Scanning the application interface.
C. Scanning all infrastructure components.
D. Performing manual actions to gain control of the application.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Static Application Security Testing (SAST) is a type of security testing that focuses on analyzing an application's source code, bytecode, or binary code without actually executing the application. Here’s a breakdown of each option:

Option A: Scanning the application’s source code – Correct Answer. SAST involves scanning the application’s source code or code base to identify potential vulnerabilities. This type of testing does not require running the application; instead, it checks for issues like coding flaws, potential security weaknesses, and vulnerabilities at the code level.
Option B: Scanning the application interface – This option is incorrect because scanning the application interface pertains more to methods like Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST), which tests the application while it's running. SAST is focused on analyzing the code before execution.
Option C: Scanning all infrastructure components – This option is incorrect because SAST specifically focuses on the application’s source code, not infrastructure components. Infrastructure scanning is typically handled by other security practices like vulnerability scanning or configuration management.
Option D: Performing manual actions to gain control of the application – This describes more of a penetration testing or ethical hacking approach rather than SAST. Penetration testing focuses on exploiting vulnerabilities in a running application, while SAST is a more proactive, code-level review process that doesn’t involve exploiting the application in real-time.

The correct approach for Static Application Security Testing (SAST) is scanning the application’s source code (Option A), as it identifies vulnerabilities directly within the code without needing to run the application.

Question 10:

When a client’s business processes change, what should be the next step regarding the Cloud Service Provider’s (CSP) Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A. The SLA should be reviewed, but it cannot be updated.
B. The SLA should not be reviewed, but the cloud contract should be cancelled immediately.
C. The SLA should not be reviewed because the SLA cannot be updated.
D. The SLA should be reviewed and updated if necessary.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are formal agreements between clients and Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) that define the level of service expected from the provider. When a client’s business processes change, these changes may impact the performance or capabilities needed from the CSP, which could require modifications to the SLA. Here’s an analysis of each option:

Option A: The SLA should be reviewed, but it cannot be updated – This option is incorrect because, in most cases, an SLA should not only be reviewed but also updated if the changes to the client's business processes require new service levels or adjustments in the terms of the agreement. Saying that it cannot be updated contradicts the flexible nature of SLAs.
Option B: The SLA should not be reviewed, but the cloud contract should be cancelled immediately – This is an extreme measure and generally not necessary when a client’s business processes change. Canceling the contract is unnecessary unless the client’s needs and the CSP's capabilities are fundamentally misaligned. It is more efficient to review and potentially update the SLA.
Option C: The SLA should not be reviewed because the SLA cannot be updated – This option is incorrect because SLAs can and should be updated to reflect changes in business processes. The flexibility of SLAs is a key part of maintaining an effective business relationship between the client and CSP.
Option D: The SLA should be reviewed and updated if necessary – Correct Answer. This is the best option because it reflects the dynamic nature of business and service requirements. As clients’ business processes evolve, their needs from the CSP may change. Reviewing and updating the SLA ensures that the services provided align with the new business objectives and that the expectations of both parties are clear.

When a client’s business processes change, the SLA should be reviewed and updated if necessary (Option D). This ensures that the cloud services continue to meet the client’s evolving requirements and that the agreement accurately reflects the expected service levels.