Salesforce Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect Salesforce Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question 1

Northern Trail Outfitters (NTO) recently acquired Eastern Trail Outfitters (ETO). NTO’s sales leadership team had hands-on experience with the ETO’s Sales Optimization app and have given the feedback that the app would benefit NTO’s sales team.

Which option should the architect recommend for having ETO’s Sales Optimization app in NTO’s Salesforce org in the shortest possible time?

A. Create users in ETO’s org and provide access to NTO’s sales team.
B. Create a core team and build the Sales Optimization app in NTO’s org.
C. Create a managed package of the app and deploy in NTO’s org.
D. Create an unmanaged package of the app and deploy in NTO’s org.

Correct Answer D

Explanation:

The goal in this scenario is to quickly replicate the Sales Optimization app that exists in ETO’s Salesforce org into NTO’s Salesforce org, enabling NTO’s sales team to start using it as soon as possible. The correct and fastest method to accomplish this is to create an unmanaged package and deploy it into NTO’s org.

Why Unmanaged Package?

An unmanaged package is typically used for distribution of open-source or internal applications, particularly when the intention is to install the app and allow full customization in the destination org. In this case, since NTO is taking ownership of the app post-acquisition, they would likely want the flexibility to modify and tailor the application to their business processes, which unmanaged packages allow.

Unmanaged packages are also quicker to produce than managed packages, as they do not require namespace registration, version control, or security reviews—factors that add significant time if you were building a managed package.

Option Analysis:

A (Create users in ETO’s org and provide access):
This is not ideal. It does not move the app to NTO’s environment, and it violates best practices around organizational data separation, security, and user management.
B (Build the app in NTO’s org):
Rebuilding the app from scratch is time-consuming and prone to inconsistencies. It would only be viable if code or metadata sharing were not possible. This is not the quickest option.
C (Create a managed package and deploy):
Managed packages are generally used for commercial app distribution. They require more effort to set up and limit customization in the target org, which may not be desirable in this case. Furthermore, managed packages can't be fully unpacked or modified, which would restrict NTO's ability to make changes.
D (Create an unmanaged package and deploy):
This allows ETO to bundle the app components (custom objects, Apex code, Visualforce pages, Lightning components, etc.) into a single distributable format. NTO can then install it in their org quickly, and they retain full access to modify or expand it as needed. This is both efficient and flexible.

For rapid deployment and customizability, unmanaged packages are the most practical method of transferring metadata between Salesforce orgs, especially after a merger or acquisition. It provides the shortest turnaround with the freedom for the receiving org (NTO) to tailor the app post-deployment. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Question 2

Which are two recommended methods of creating test data in Salesforce? (Choose two.)

A. Host a mock endpoint to produce sample information from an endpoint.
B. Reference data from middleware directly within your test class.
C. Utilize Heroku Connect to provide test class data.
D. Load a CSV as a static resource and reference it in a test class.

Correct Answers: A and D

Explanation:

Creating reliable and repeatable test data is critical for ensuring that Salesforce Apex unit tests are effective and robust. Apex tests must run in isolation and not depend on actual data in the organization. Therefore, Salesforce provides best practices for generating mock data and using static resources to simulate external inputs.

A. Host a mock endpoint to produce sample information from an endpoint – Correct

Salesforce allows developers to use HTTP callout mocks when writing test methods that simulate HTTP callouts. This is done by creating a class that implements the HttpCalloutMock interface and returning simulated responses. This technique allows developers to test callout logic without hitting a real endpoint, which is required because actual callouts are not allowed in test methods.

This approach provides complete control over the response and helps in simulating various scenarios like failures, timeouts, and successful responses.

B. Reference data from middleware directly within your test class – Incorrect

Referencing live or production data, whether from middleware or external systems, violates Apex testing principles. Salesforce test methods are not supposed to rely on external data sources or services since this makes the tests unpredictable, brittle, and unrepeatable. Moreover, test execution environments don't permit live callouts unless mocked.

C. Utilize Heroku Connect to provide test class data – Incorrect

While Heroku Connect synchronizes Salesforce data with Heroku Postgres, it is not intended as a method for providing data to Salesforce Apex tests. Using Heroku Connect involves live system integration, which again breaks the self-contained nature of Apex test classes. It's not a Salesforce-recommended approach for unit test data creation.

D. Load a CSV as a static resource and reference it in a test class – Correct

Uploading a CSV file as a static resource and then parsing it within a test class is a widely used method. This allows developers to simulate large sets of structured data within the Salesforce test environment. Since static resources are part of the metadata, they are deployable and accessible in any org, making this method ideal for consistent and scalable testing.

Among the listed options, hosting a mock endpoint and using a static CSV resource align with Salesforce’s recommended practices for test data creation. These methods ensure isolation, repeatability, and test reliability. Hence, the correct answers are A and D.

Question 3

Universal Containers (UC) has recently acquired other companies that have their own Salesforce orgs. These companies have been merged as new UC business units. The CEO has requested an architect to review the org strategy, taking into consideration two main factors: The CEO wants business process standardization among all business units. Business process integration is not required as the different business units have different customers and expertise.

Which org strategy should the architect recommend in this scenario, and why?

A. Single-org strategy, as costs increase as the number of orgs go up.
B. Multi-org strategy, as it is uncommon for the diversified business units to get used to working in the same space as the other business units.
C. Multi-org strategy, as they could deploy a common managed package into the orgs of the different business units.
D. Single-org strategy, as the high level of business process standardization will be easier to implement in a single org.

Correct Answer D

Explanation:

When deciding on an org strategy in Salesforce, architects must evaluate a range of criteria, such as data residency, business process alignment, user experience, integration needs, and governance structures. In this scenario, business process standardization is identified as a top priority, while process integration across business units is not required.

Why D. Single-org strategy is correct:

The single-org strategy is ideal when the goal is to enforce and manage consistent business processes across multiple units. This allows for:

Centralized governance over processes and configuration.
Streamlined administration and customization, as changes and improvements are made once and automatically apply across all business units.
A unified data model and schema, even if the data is logically separated by business unit using record types, profiles, or sharing rules.
Reduced licensing, maintenance, and integration overhead, as you are working with one system.

Given the CEO’s goal to standardize processes, a single org makes implementing, enforcing, and auditing that standardization easier and more efficient than attempting to replicate processes consistently across multiple orgs.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. While cost can be a consideration, this option focuses only on financial impact, not the core driver of the scenario—business process standardization. Therefore, the justification is too narrow.
B. This option focuses on user experience and adaptation challenges. While adaptation might be an issue in merging business units, it is not the architectural concern or priority presented by the CEO.
C. Although a managed package can be used for deployment across multiple orgs, this introduces complexity in maintaining version control and alignment. It does not inherently facilitate business process standardization, especially when customizations per org could diverge.

In this case, business process standardization is the dominant factor. Since the business units do not require process integration and handle different customers and expertise, data overlap is minimal. Thus, a single-org strategy will allow Universal Containers to efficiently manage and enforce unified business processes while maintaining logical boundaries through tools like business units, roles, and sharing settings.

Question 4

Universal Containers (UC) is planning to move to Salesforce Sales Cloud and retire its homegrown on-premise system. As part of the project, UC will need to migrate 5 million Accounts, 10 million Contacts, and 5 million Leads to Salesforce.

Which three areas should be tested as part of data migration? (Choose three.)

A. Account and Lead ownership
B. Contact association with correct Account
C. Page layout assignments
D. Lead assignment
E. Data transformation against source system

Correct Answer A, B, E

Explanation:

A successful data migration to Salesforce, especially involving millions of records as in this scenario, is a critical activity that must be rigorously tested. The testing ensures that data integrity, relationships, ownership, and business logic are preserved and accurately reproduced in the Salesforce org. Let’s examine the correct choices.

A. Account and Lead ownership

Correct.
Ownership of records in Salesforce is crucial for both data visibility (as determined by role hierarchy and sharing rules) and for workflow behavior (like assignments, reports, and dashboards). Testing whether the ownership of migrated Accounts and Leads maps correctly to Salesforce users ensures that the migrated data is secure and behaves as expected in terms of accessibility and routing.

B. Contact association with correct Account

Correct.
Salesforce maintains parent-child relationships between Accounts and Contacts. During migration, it is essential to maintain foreign key integrity, meaning Contacts must be correctly linked to their associated Accounts. A mismatch here would result in data inconsistencies and potential reporting failures.

E. Data transformation against source system

Correct.
Data from a legacy system often needs to be cleansed, normalized, or transformed before being inserted into Salesforce. Testing ensures that:

Data types and formats are correctly adjusted.
Lookup values and picklists are mapped correctly.
Legacy codes or values are properly translated into Salesforce standards.

Without validating transformations, the risk of migrating unusable or inconsistent data increases significantly.

Why the other options are incorrect:

C. Page layout assignments

Incorrect.
While page layout assignments affect user interface experience, they are not directly relevant to data migration testing. Migration testing focuses on data accuracy, integrity, relationships, and transformation, not the visual presentation of that data.

D. Lead assignment

Incorrect.
While lead assignment rules are important in operational flow, lead assignment testing is part of functional configuration testing, not data migration testing. During migration, Leads are usually assigned statically based on ownership mappings, not dynamically routed through assignment rules.

To ensure a reliable and accurate data migration from a legacy system to Salesforce Sales Cloud, Universal Containers must test for correct record ownership (A), contact-to-account relationship integrity (B), and accurate transformation of source data (E).

The correct answers are A, B, and E.

Question 5

Universal Containers (UC) is a high-tech company using SFDX tools and methodologies for its Salesforce development. UC has moved some of its code and configuration to Unlocked Packages.

Which two best practices should an architect recommend to support UC’s new package development strategy? (Choose two.)

A. Move everything in the existing codebase to a single monolithic package.
B. Version control does not need to be used, as packages manage all the code and configuration.
C. Test developed packages in test environments before installing to production.
D. Consult the metadata coverage report to identify features supported by packages.

Correct Answer C, D

Explanation:

As Universal Containers (UC) adopts Unlocked Packages within the Salesforce DX (SFDX) model, it’s essential to follow key best practices to ensure maintainability, flexibility, and successful deployments. Unlocked Packages help manage modularity and dependency in a scalable way, but only when coupled with rigorous development standards.

C. Test developed packages in test environments before installing to production

Correct.
Before pushing any package to production, it is a critical best practice to install and test it in lower environments, such as sandboxes or scratch orgs. This ensures:

The package installs cleanly and behaves as expected.
No breaking changes or unexpected metadata overwrites occur.
Regression tests can be run to validate business functionality.

This step mitigates the risk of introducing errors into production and supports a robust CI/CD pipeline.

D. Consult the metadata coverage report to identify features supported by packages

Correct.
Salesforce’s metadata coverage report provides insights into which metadata types are supported in Unlocked Packages and scratch orgs. This is vital because not all Salesforce metadata types are currently supported by packaging. If you attempt to include unsupported metadata, the package may fail to build or deploy.

Consulting this report helps architects and developers make informed decisions about:

Which features can be packaged.
Which items must remain outside of the package.
The best modularization strategies.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Move everything in the existing codebase to a single monolithic package

Incorrect.
This contradicts one of the core goals of Unlocked Packages, which is to promote modularity and separation of concerns. Creating a large monolithic package defeats the purpose of manageable and scalable codebases. Instead, development should follow a modular approach, where related metadata and logic are grouped logically and independently.

B. Version control does not need to be used, as packages manage all the code and configuration

Incorrect.
Version control is still essential. Even with packages managing modular metadata, a source control system (like Git) is required for:

Tracking changes over time
Enabling team collaboration
Supporting automated CI/CD pipelines
Providing rollback and audit capabilities

Relying solely on packages without version control would significantly hinder collaboration and risk traceability and control.

To fully leverage Unlocked Packages in a Salesforce DX environment, it is essential to follow best practices such as testing packages in non-production environments (C) and consulting metadata coverage (D) to avoid packaging unsupported components. These practices ensure stable, scalable, and maintainable deployments.

The correct answers are C and D.

Question 6

Universal Containers (UC) has been on the org development model with scratch orgs already enabled, but they haven’t been taking advantage of the scratch orgs. Now UC is ready to move to the package development model.

What step must be done by an administrator?

A. In setup, switch the Enable Unlocked Packages to Enabled, keep the Enable Second-Generation Managed Packages as disabled.
B. In setup, switch the Enable Dev Hub to Enabled, then switch the Enable Source Tracking for Scratch Orgs to Enabled.
C. In setup, switch the Enable Unlocked Packages and Second-Generation Managed Packages to Enabled.
D. In setup, switch both the Enable Dev Hub and Enable 2nd-Generation Managed Packages to Enabled.

Correct Answer C

Explanation:

As Universal Containers (UC) transitions from the org development model to the package development model in Salesforce DX (SFDX), there are specific administrative actions required to support the packaging workflow.

Key Concepts:

The package development model is designed to manage and modularize metadata into Unlocked Packages or Second-Generation Managed Packages (2GP). These packages are developed and tested in scratch orgs, and tracked through version control.

Although UC has scratch orgs enabled (a prerequisite already met by enabling Dev Hub), they need to explicitly enable package support in the Salesforce setup to begin using the packaging commands provided by Salesforce CLI.

Why C. In setup, switch the Enable Unlocked Packages and Second-Generation Managed Packages to Enabled is correct:

This is the correct and necessary step for enabling the package development model. There are two types of second-generation packages:

Unlocked Packages, typically used by enterprises to modularize and distribute internal apps.
Second-Generation Managed Packages, generally used by ISVs to distribute apps via AppExchange.

Enabling both options provides the flexibility to work with both package types, depending on the use case.

Once enabled, developers can:

Create and register packages using the CLI.
Create versions of those packages.
Install packages into scratch orgs, sandboxes, or production environments.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. This option only enables Unlocked Packages but leaves 2GP disabled, which limits flexibility. Also, both settings should be enabled to support all package types in the model.

B. This step talks about enabling Dev Hub and Source Tracking, but Dev Hub is already enabled, and Source Tracking is already active for scratch orgs by default. These steps are not required for enabling the package development model itself.

D. This option redundantly suggests enabling Dev Hub, which is already active, making it unnecessary. The key missing step in this scenario is enabling Unlocked Packages—this option doesn't include that.

To fully support the package development model, UC’s administrator must enable both Unlocked Packages and Second-Generation Managed Packages in Setup. This unlocks the CLI commands and organizational capabilities needed for modular, versioned, and trackable package development and deployment.

The correct answer is C.

Question 7

Universal Containers (UC) has a multi-cloud architecture within a single org. The Sales Cloud development team is working in a Dev Pro sandbox (DevPro1) with a delivery timeline of three months. Meanwhile, a second work stream—Service Cloud—requires a faster release within four weeks but depends on some of the Sales Cloud work already done in DevPro1. DevPro1 was upgraded to a preview version of the next major Salesforce release two weeks ago. A decision to use a separate Dev Pro sandbox (DevPro2) is still under consideration.

What should an architect recommend?

A. Clone the DevPro1 sandbox and name it DevPro2 for the second work stream to work on the Service Cloud requirements.
B. Push back on the requirements because adding another work stream will bring some risks with it.
C. Ask the second work stream team to work on the same DevPro1 sandbox.
D. DevPro1 cannot be cloned because it is on a different version from Production. Just create a new DevPro2, and migrate metadata from DevPro1.

Correct Answer D

Explanation:

When working with Salesforce release cycles, a key consideration is whether the sandbox is on the same version as Production. In this scenario, DevPro1 was upgraded to a preview version of the next Salesforce release. This means it's no longer on the same release version as Production. As a result, cloning from DevPro1 is not possible because Salesforce does not allow sandbox cloning between different release versions.

Why D is correct:

Salesforce prevents sandbox cloning from a sandbox that is running a different major release version than Production. Since DevPro1 is now on a preview release, and Production is still on the current release, attempting to clone DevPro1 would fail or not even be allowed in the Setup UI.

The best approach is to:

Create a new DevPro2 sandbox from Production, which remains on the current release.
Manually deploy or migrate metadata from DevPro1 to DevPro2 (e.g., using source control, Change Sets, or Metadata API).
This allows the second work stream (Service Cloud) to work independently while leveraging completed components from DevPro1, without version conflicts.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. This would only work if both DevPro1 and Production were on the same version, but that’s not the case. DevPro1 is already upgraded to preview, making it ineligible for cloning.

B. While introducing another work stream does introduce risk, this is not an architectural recommendation. Architects must provide a solution to facilitate parallel development, especially when time-to-market is a critical factor.

C. Asking both work streams to work in DevPro1 introduces serious risks, such as development collisions, release timing conflicts, and challenges managing changes for different go-live timelines.

Given the version mismatch between DevPro1 and Production, cloning is not an option. The appropriate and supported solution is to create a new DevPro2 sandbox from Production and then migrate the required metadata from DevPro1 manually. This ensures separation of work streams, supports different release schedules, and adheres to Salesforce platform limitations.

The correct answer is D.

Question 8

Universal Containers (UC) Customer Community is scheduled to go live in the Europe, Middle East, and Africa (EMEA) region in 3 months. UC follows a typical centralized governance model. Two weeks ago, the project stakeholders informed the project team about the recent changes in mandatory compliance requirements needed to go live. The project team analyzed the requirements and have estimated additional budget needs of 30% of the project cost for incorporating the compliance requirements.

Which management team is empowered to approve this additional budget requirement?

A. Security Review Committee
B. Executive Steering Committee
C. Project Management Committee
D. Change Control Board

Correct Answer B

Explanation:

In a centralized governance model, decision-making authority is usually concentrated within specific committees or bodies that oversee strategic, financial, and execution aspects of a project. When there is a significant change in project scope or cost, such as a 30% increase in budget, the approval responsibility falls to the highest-level decision-making body, particularly one that includes executive sponsors and key business stakeholders.

Why B. Executive Steering Committee is correct:

The Executive Steering Committee (ESC) is typically responsible for:

Approving major changes in scope, budget, and timeline.
Ensuring that the project aligns with the organization’s strategic goals.
Making critical decisions that exceed the authority of the project team or lower governance bodies.

A 30% increase in budget is a major financial impact. Only a body with executive-level authority can make such decisions, especially in centralized governance structures. The ESC also balances competing interests across departments and evaluates how changes affect the organization as a whole.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Security Review Committee:
This team is typically responsible for reviewing security and compliance measures, such as data protection, penetration testing, and access control. They may recommend changes, but they do not control budgets or strategic decisions.

C. Project Management Committee:
This group usually handles tactical or operational decisions, such as scheduling, resources, and issue tracking. It typically works within the approved budget and doesn’t have the authority to approve large financial changes.

D. Change Control Board (CCB):
The CCB approves change requests related to scope, functionality, or project deliverables. However, their financial authority is usually limited, especially for significant budget increases. For a 30% cost escalation, the CCB would likely escalate the decision to the Executive Steering Committee.

In this scenario, the need to incorporate new mandatory compliance requirements results in a 30% increase in project cost. This scale of change requires strategic financial approval and likely affects overall delivery timelines and corporate planning. Therefore, the Executive Steering Committee, which oversees the strategic direction and has financial oversight authority, is the appropriate body to approve such a change.

The correct answer is B.

Question 9

Universal Containers uses multiple Salesforce orgs for its different lines of business (LOBs). In a recent analysis, the architect found that UC could have a more complete view of its customers by gathering customer data from different orgs.

What two options can an architect recommend to accomplish the customer 360-degree view? (Choose two.)

A. Implement a Complete Graph multi-org strategy by allowing each org to connect directly to every other, reading and writing customer data from the orgs where it has been originally created.
B. Migrate from multi-org to single-org strategy, consolidating customer data in the process.
C. Implement a Single Package multi-org strategy by developing and deploying to all orgs a managed package which reads and consolidates customer 360-degree view from the different orgs.
D. Implement a Hub-and-Spoke multi-org strategy by consolidating customer data in a single org, which will be the master of customer data, and using integration strategies to let the LOBs orgs read and write from it.

Correct Answer B and D

Explanation:

When multiple Salesforce orgs are used across different lines of business (LOBs), customer data becomes fragmented, leading to challenges in gaining a unified, 360-degree view of the customer. An architect must consider strategies that either consolidate or federate the data to solve this fragmentation while maintaining governance, scalability, and usability.

Why B. Migrate from multi-org to single-org strategy is correct:

A single-org strategy simplifies the challenge of data unification by bringing all data into one centralized Salesforce org. This consolidation:

Enables a true 360-degree customer view within a single system.
Reduces complexity related to data governance, duplication, and access control.
Simplifies reporting and analytics across business lines.

However, this approach requires significant effort in org consolidation, data migration, and standardizing business processes, and may not be feasible in all scenarios, especially if LOBs are highly distinct.

Why D. Implement a Hub-and-Spoke multi-org strategy is correct:

In cases where org consolidation is not viable (due to regulatory, organizational, or operational reasons), a Hub-and-Spoke model is ideal. In this architecture:

One org (the Hub) serves as the customer data master.
Other LOB orgs (the Spokes) integrate with the Hub to read/write customer data.
Centralized data management provides a consolidated view of the customer, while maintaining independence across LOBs.

This strategy enables a federated model for data sharing and allows UC to maintain multiple orgs without sacrificing visibility into the customer lifecycle.

Why the other options are not optimal:

A. Complete Graph Strategy:
This model requires each org to connect to every other org, which results in:

An exponential increase in the number of integrations (n*(n-1)/2 connections).
High complexity in data synchronization and conflict resolution.
Scalability and maintenance challenges.
While technically feasible, it is inefficient and not recommended for organizations with more than a few orgs.

C. Single Package Multi-Org Strategy:
Deploying a managed package to all orgs for data consolidation is not practical for:

Real-time integration.
Centralized data storage or master data management. Managed packages are better for feature parity, not data consolidation across orgs. A package cannot unify the data within itself unless paired with a backend or middleware integration strategy, which this option doesn't specify.

To achieve a 360-degree customer view across multiple Salesforce orgs, the most effective strategies are:

Consolidation into a single org when feasible (B).
Hub-and-Spoke integration architecture when retaining multiple orgs is necessary (D).

These approaches offer the best balance between data visibility, scalability, governance, and maintainability.

The correct answers are B and D.

Question 10

Universal Containers (UC) is considering implementing a minor change policy for a series of low-risk user stories that are commonly received by the UC admins. The policy would allow admins to make these changes directly in production. UC does not have continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) in place.

Which three best practices should the architect suggest UC follow for their new change policy? (Choose three.)

A. All changes should still be tested.
B. CI/CD is required in to successful manage minor changes.
C. Downstream environments will not be automatically updated when production changes.
D. Minor changes do not need to be documented and can be made at any time.
E. Minor changes should be thoroughly documented and follow some type of standard cadence.

Correct Answer A, C, and E

Explanation:

When allowing low-risk, minor changes to be made directly in production, it is essential to maintain controlled governance, even without a formal CI/CD process. The key is to balance flexibility with risk mitigation to ensure production stability and maintain auditability.

Why A. All changes should still be tested is correct:

Even low-risk or "minor" changes can introduce unexpected issues or unintended side effects. Therefore:

Testing in a sandbox or scratch org should be done before applying any change directly in production.
Testing ensures functionality behaves as expected and doesn't negatively affect other users or processes.
It also helps maintain system integrity, especially in environments without automated pipelines.

Why C. Downstream environments will not be automatically updated when production changes is correct:

Without CI/CD, the deployment and synchronization of metadata across environments is manual. When changes are made directly in production:

Sandboxes and lower environments become out of sync.
This can lead to confusion and regression issues during future deployments.
It’s important to track and replicate these changes manually to downstream orgs.

Why E. Minor changes should be thoroughly documented and follow some type of standard cadence is correct:

Documentation ensures:

Traceability of changes.
Enables easier debugging or rollback if issues arise.
Helps coordinate with teams and maintain a clear audit trail.

Using a standard cadence (e.g., weekly or bi-weekly minor change windows) adds:

Predictability and stability to the deployment process.
Helps teams prepare and review upcoming changes systematically.

Why the other options are not correct:

B. CI/CD is required to successfully manage minor changes – Incorrect
While CI/CD offers great benefits, it is not a requirement for managing minor changes. Minor change policies can be successful with manual processes, as long as testing, documentation, and governance practices are followed.

D. Minor changes do not need to be documented and can be made at any time – Incorrect
This would lead to poor visibility, lack of accountability, and potential regression issues. Even small changes must be documented and executed with oversight.

A well-structured minor change policy must include: