CIS-ITSM ServiceNow Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps


Question No 1:

Given the class structure shown below, which types of CIs will be included in a report run against the cmdb_ci_computer table?

A. Just CIs defined directly in cmdb_ci_computer
B. CIs defined directly in cmdb_ci_computer and all parent classes
C. CIs defined directly in cmdb_ci_computer and all child classes

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, the cmdb_ci_computer table is part of the Configuration Management Database (CMDB), and it typically includes the record types (CIs, or Configuration Items) related to computer hardware and software components.

When creating a report against a table in ServiceNow, it is important to understand the class hierarchy within the CMDB. Each CI (Configuration Item) table can have a relationship with parent and child tables, which means that querying one table can potentially include records from related tables that inherit from it or are inherited by it.

Let's break down the options to see why C is the correct answer:

  • A. Just CIs defined directly in cmdb_ci_computer:
    If you run a report only on cmdb_ci_computer, it will only include the CIs directly defined in this table, and no CIs from any related parent or child tables would be included. This option is incorrect because it does not account for the class hierarchy in ServiceNow.

  • B. CIs defined directly in cmdb_ci_computer and all parent classes:
    This option includes parent classes, which would be incorrect. In ServiceNow's class hierarchy, a query run on a child class (like cmdb_ci_computer) typically does not include parent class CIs unless explicitly specified. Since the query is being run on cmdb_ci_computer, it would not automatically include CIs from parent tables such as cmdb_ci or other higher-level classes. This option is incorrect because it includes the wrong set of CIs.

  • C. CIs defined directly in cmdb_ci_computer and all child classes:
    This is the correct answer. In ServiceNow, cmdb_ci_computer is a parent table for specific types of computer-related CIs like cmdb_ci_server, cmdb_ci_network_adapter, and other child classes. When you run a report on cmdb_ci_computer, it will include CIs that are directly defined in the cmdb_ci_computer table and those defined in any child classes (such as cmdb_ci_server or cmdb_ci_virtual_machine). This behavior is typical of ServiceNow's class hierarchy functionality, where reports run on a parent class table will include records from both the parent and any child classes that extend from it.

In ServiceNow's CMDB, when you query the cmdb_ci_computer table, the report will include all CIs defined directly in this table as well as those that are instances of any child classes derived from it. This is an example of inheritance in the class hierarchy, where child classes are considered part of the parent class for reporting purposes.

Question No 2:

Which field from the configuration item will automatically populate in the Assignment group field of an incident record?

A. Managed by
B. Support group
C. Approval group
D. Change group

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

In the context of incident management within IT service management systems like ServiceNow, when creating or managing an incident record, certain fields can be pre-populated based on the details of the configuration item (CI) associated with the incident. This helps streamline the process and reduce manual data entry.

Here’s a breakdown of the options and why Support group is the correct answer:

Option A: Managed by
The Managed by field typically refers to the person or entity responsible for the overall management of a particular configuration item. This field is not directly related to automatically populating the Assignment group in an incident record. It could be useful for tracking accountability or ownership but does not influence the assignment of the incident to a group responsible for handling it.

Option B: Support group
The Support group field is the most relevant for populating the Assignment group field in an incident record. When a CI is linked to an incident, the Support group specified for that CI is often used to determine which team or group should handle the incident. This is based on the logical relationship between the CI and the group responsible for its maintenance or support. Therefore, when an incident is logged involving a CI, the Support group field will typically automatically populate the Assignment group field to ensure that the correct team is assigned to the incident based on the CI configuration.

Option C: Approval group
The Approval group refers to the group of individuals or teams responsible for approving changes, requests, or other operations within the organization. It is generally not used to assign an incident to a support group. The Approval group is more relevant in the context of change management or request fulfillment but does not directly influence the Assignment group for incidents.

Option D: Change group
The Change group pertains to teams responsible for overseeing or executing changes in the organization. While this field is important for change management, it is not relevant to the Assignment group of an incident. The Change group would be more appropriate for change records, not incidents.

Conclusion: The Support group is the field that is most commonly used to automatically populate the Assignment group field in an incident record. This ensures that incidents are assigned to the appropriate team based on the configuration item, improving efficiency and aligning with the organization's support structure. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Question No 3:

Which of the following are defined for a given change model? (Choose three.)

A. Phase transitions
B. State model
C. State transition conditions
D. Phase model
E. State transitions

Answer: A, C, E

Explanation:

In the context of a change model, which typically outlines how an entity or system transitions through various states or phases, certain elements are essential for its design and implementation. Let’s explore the key terms and their relevance to a change model.

A. Phase transitions:

Phase transitions refer to the changes that occur when an entity moves from one phase of a process to another. This is an important aspect of a change model as it describes how a system or process evolves over time. In many models, a transition between phases marks a significant event or change in the state of the system, and understanding these transitions is crucial for managing the change process effectively. Therefore, phase transitions are a key element of a change model.

B. State model:

While a state model may define various states and transitions, it is not inherently a feature that is defined for a given change model. A state model typically refers to the formal representation of all possible states and transitions within a system, but it’s more about the structure rather than something that is defined in the change model itself. While the change model may reference or incorporate a state model, it does not directly define it as a primary element. This makes state model a less relevant choice here.

C. State transition conditions:

State transition conditions are critical in a change model, as they specify the rules or conditions under which transitions between states occur. These conditions define when and why a change is triggered, offering important guidance for managing change processes. These conditions are often based on triggers, events, or other criteria that must be met for a state transition to happen. As such, state transition conditions are essential to the change model.

D. Phase model:

The term phase model may refer to the representation of distinct phases in a project or change management process, but it is not as commonly referenced as an element defined in a change model itself. A change model often deals with states and state transitions within a system, whereas the phase model could be more focused on the broader, higher-level stages of a process. Thus, phase model is less directly relevant to defining the core components of a change model.

E. State transitions:

State transitions are fundamental to a change model. They describe the movement from one state to another within the system or process, marking significant milestones or changes in status. Understanding state transitions helps in tracking progress and managing changes, as each transition represents a shift that could have impacts on the overall system or process. Therefore, state transitions are definitely a part of a change model.

The correct answers are A, C, and E, as these elements directly define and shape the change model. Phase transitions, state transition conditions, and state transitions are essential components that govern how change occurs in a structured and predictable manner. B and D are less directly tied to the core elements defined by the change model.

Question No 4:

When is a change task for Post Implementation Review created for an unauthorized change?

A. When the change request moves to Close
B. When a change manager accepts the change
C. When the change request moves to a state of Review
D. When the change request moves to a state of Assess

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A Post Implementation Review (PIR) is an essential part of the change management process that occurs after the change has been implemented, regardless of whether the change was authorized or unauthorized. This review serves as an evaluation of the change process, assessing the impact of the change, and determining whether the outcomes aligned with the objectives. For unauthorized changes, a change task for PIR is crucial to ensure that any unintended or improperly authorized changes are scrutinized and properly managed afterward.

Let's analyze the options based on how change management typically functions:

A. When the change request moves to Close

The Close state typically indicates that a change has been completed and finalized. At this stage, all tasks related to the change, including post-implementation reviews, should ideally already have been assigned or completed. The PIR would not typically be created when the change request moves to Close, as it’s about finalizing the change, not evaluating unauthorized actions that occurred earlier in the process. Therefore, this is incorrect.

B. When a change manager accepts the change

While the change manager's acceptance of the change indicates that the change is approved and can proceed to implementation, it does not necessarily correlate with the creation of a PIR for unauthorized changes. PIR tasks are usually created after the change has been implemented and reviewed for effectiveness. Therefore, this step is more about approval, not about triggering a post-implementation review. Hence, this option is incorrect.

C. When the change request moves to a state of Review

The Review state is a critical phase in change management where the effectiveness of the change and the process are evaluated. In the case of an unauthorized change, this is the stage where the change will likely be flagged for post-implementation review, as it involves an assessment of what went wrong or what was not followed properly. Unauthorized changes, which were not approved through the proper channels, often trigger a PIR to analyze their impact, track any issues, and ensure corrective actions are taken. Therefore, this is the correct answer.

D. When the change request moves to a state of Assess

The Assess state typically happens before the implementation of a change. It’s where the impact, risks, and resources required for the change are evaluated and considered. This stage is part of the planning process, not the post-implementation phase where the review and evaluation of an unauthorized change would occur. Therefore, it is not the right time for creating a PIR. Hence, this option is incorrect.

The most appropriate time for creating a change task for a Post Implementation Review for an unauthorized change is when the change request moves to the Review state. This is the stage where the impact and process of the change can be assessed, and any discrepancies or unauthorized actions can be scrutinized. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Question No 5:

Which should be used to explore the entire hierarchy and table definitions of the Configuration Management Database Classes?

A. Reports
B. CI Class Manager
C. Application Menus
D. Dependency View

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The CI Class Manager is the correct tool for exploring the entire hierarchy and table definitions of the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) Classes. The CMDB is a repository that stores information about the IT environment's Configuration Items (CIs), and these CIs are organized in a hierarchical structure. The CI Class Manager provides the functionality to view and manage the different CI classes, their relationships, and their associated tables within the CMDB. This tool allows you to explore the various classes, their attributes, and the dependencies between them, which is key when trying to understand the structure of the CMDB.

Here’s a breakdown of why the other options are not correct:

Option A (Reports): While reports are useful for presenting data and insights, they are not designed for exploring the hierarchy and table definitions of CMDB classes. Reports may provide summarized or specific data about CIs, but they do not offer the detailed structural exploration that the CI Class Manager does.

Option C (Application Menus): The Application Menus provide access to different applications and modules within a platform, but they do not focus on exploring the CMDB hierarchy. They are used to navigate the user interface to access different tools or features rather than diving into the specifics of class structures or tables within the CMDB.

Option D (Dependency View): The Dependency View is used to visualize the relationships and dependencies between Configuration Items. While it helps you see how CIs are connected, it does not provide direct access to explore the entire hierarchy or the detailed table definitions of the CMDB classes.

In summary, the CI Class Manager is specifically designed to allow users to explore and manage the hierarchy and table definitions of CMDB classes, making it the most appropriate choice for this task.

Question No 6:

Which of the following cannot be defined or set through a Catalog UI Policy?

A. Setting a variable to mandatory
B. Apply a requirement to all form views
C. Setting a catalog category to visible
D. Setting a variable to read-only

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, a Catalog UI Policy is used to manage the behavior of variables in Service Catalog items, making it easier to apply changes to form elements dynamically. UI policies allow administrators to control aspects such as whether a variable is mandatory, read-only, or visible, based on certain conditions. However, there are certain aspects of the catalog items that cannot be controlled by UI policies. Let's break down the options:

Option A: Setting a variable to mandatory

This option is correct in the context of Catalog UI Policies. A Catalog UI Policy can be used to set a variable to mandatory dynamically based on certain conditions. By using a UI Policy, administrators can configure which variables in the catalog item form need to be filled in based on user input or other variables. Therefore, A is something that can be set through a Catalog UI Policy.

Option B: Apply a requirement to all form views

While Catalog UI Policies are specific to certain forms, they are not global across all form views by default. However, requirements in terms of making variables mandatory or read-only can be set across different views. Therefore, the Catalog UI Policy can apply certain requirements to form views as long as the condition is met, although it is typically done for specific catalog item forms rather than all views. So, B is achievable through a Catalog UI Policy, but it's typically applied to specific views.

Option C: Setting a catalog category to visible

This is the correct answer. A Catalog UI Policy is designed to control the variables and their behaviors, such as making them mandatory, read-only, or visible. It cannot be used to set the visibility of a catalog category itself. The visibility of catalog categories is usually controlled by other mechanisms such as Access Control Rules or Catalog Item Conditions. The Catalog UI Policy focuses on specific form variables, not categories or overall catalog visibility. Therefore, C is the correct option because it cannot be done through a Catalog UI Policy.

Option D: Setting a variable to read-only

A Catalog UI Policy can indeed set a variable to read-only dynamically based on specific conditions. This is one of the core uses of a UI policy in the Service Catalog to control the user experience and prevent modification of certain fields when needed. Therefore, D is something that can be done with a Catalog UI Policy.

While Catalog UI Policies offer flexibility in controlling variable behavior on forms, they do not extend to controlling the visibility of catalog categories, which is why C, "Setting a catalog category to visible," cannot be achieved using a Catalog UI Policy. Thus, the correct answer is C.

Question No 7:

Which type of catalog item should be used to create an incident record from the portal?

A. Incident Template
B. Request Item
C. Order Guide
D. Record Producer

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In the context of ServiceNow or similar IT service management systems, catalog items are used to offer users an easy way to request services or create records. Different types of catalog items serve distinct purposes, and it’s important to understand which one would be suitable for creating an incident record directly from a portal.

Option A: Incident Template
An incident template is typically used for creating predefined incident records. These templates are helpful for quickly filling in fields and standardizing responses when creating incidents. However, an incident template itself is not a catalog item that can be requested by a user directly through the portal. It is more about predefining an incident to be used in other areas. Therefore, A is incorrect in this context.

Option B: Request Item
A request item is a part of a service catalog and represents a single item that a user can request. While it is related to requesting services, it is typically used for more structured or predefined items rather than creating incident records. The request item is generally used to request IT services or assets. Creating an incident record through the portal typically requires more flexibility and a dynamic form, which request items don't necessarily provide. Therefore, B is incorrect.

Option C: Order Guide
An order guide is a catalog item that allows users to request multiple catalog items at once in a structured manner. It is essentially a grouping of catalog items that can be ordered together. However, order guides are not used for creating individual records such as incidents but are rather designed for more complex requests involving multiple items. Therefore, C is incorrect.

Option D: Record Producer
A record producer is the correct catalog item to use when you want to allow users to create records, such as incident records, directly from the service portal. A record producer provides a custom form for users to fill out, and once submitted, it creates a new record in a specified table (in this case, the incident table). This makes it the most appropriate catalog item to create an incident record from the portal. Therefore, D is correct.

The most appropriate catalog item for creating an incident record from a portal is the record producer, as it provides a customizable form for users to create incidents directly within the system.

Question No 8:

Which incident management roles are activated by installing the ITSM Roles plugin (com.snc.itsm.roles)? (Choose two.)

A. sn_incident_read
B. itsm_incident_read
C. incident_manager
D. sn_incident_write
E. itsm_incident_write

Answer: B, D

Explanation:

When the ITSM Roles plugin (com.snc.itsm.roles) is installed, it activates specific roles related to incident management in ServiceNow. These roles are critical for managing incident records and controlling access to incident data across different users and teams within the platform.

Here’s a detailed breakdown of the correct roles activated by this plugin:

Option B – itsm_incident_read
The itsm_incident_read role is one of the roles activated by the installation of the ITSM Roles plugin. This role allows users to view incident records in ServiceNow, which is crucial for users who need to access incident data but do not need to make any modifications to those records. It aligns with the read-only access requirement for certain users, such as incident management staff or analysts who are tasked with reviewing incidents but not updating them.

Option D – sn_incident_write
The sn_incident_write role is also activated when the ITSM Roles plugin is installed. This role provides write access to incident records, meaning users with this role can create, modify, and resolve incidents within the system. This is essential for users who are responsible for actively working on incidents, such as incident managers or analysts who need the ability to take actions, such as assigning or updating incidents.

Now, let’s go over the other options:

Option A – sn_incident_read
The sn_incident_read role allows users to read incident records but is not directly tied to the ITSM Roles plugin. While it is related to incident management, this role is typically part of basic incident management and does not require the ITSM Roles plugin to be installed. It's generally assigned to users who need to view incidents but not modify them.

Option C – incident_manager
The incident_manager role is not automatically activated by the ITSM Roles plugin. This role is typically assigned to users responsible for overseeing the incident management process as a whole. Although this role has a direct connection to incident management, it is not activated by the ITSM Roles plugin but instead is often assigned to incident managers through other means.

Option E – itsm_incident_write
The itsm_incident_write role is not part of the default roles activated by the ITSM Roles plugin. It’s possible that it is a custom or additional role created within the platform, but it is not one of the standard roles that the ITSM Roles plugin activates.

To summarize, the ITSM Roles plugin activates the itsm_incident_read and sn_incident_write roles, allowing users to read and write incident records as part of incident management tasks. Therefore, the correct answer is B and D.

Question No 9:

A customer requests that when the Service Desk agent clicks on the information icon for the Caller's name, the quick view frame shows only the following fields:How would you modify the quick view frame?

A. Update the sys_popup view for the user table
B. Update the sys_quick view for the caller table
C. Update the sys_popup view for the caller table
D. Update the sys_quick view for the user table

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

To understand the correct course of action, it’s important to know the role of different views in ServiceNow and their associations with tables.

  1. The sys_quick view:
    The quick view frame in ServiceNow is tied to a quick view, which determines how records from a table are presented when accessed quickly, often by clicking an information icon. In this case, the customer wants specific fields related to the caller to be displayed in the quick view frame. The caller is the table where the data about the individual interacting with the Service Desk is stored, not the general user data. Therefore, to tailor the quick view for the caller, the appropriate modification would involve the sys_quick view for the caller table.

  2. The sys_popup view:
    The sys_popup view determines what fields show in a pop-up window for a record. However, the request in this question specifies modifying the quick view frame, not a pop-up window. Hence, modifying a sys_popup view would not be the right approach, as it is not tied to the specific behavior described in the request.

  3. User table vs. Caller table:
    In ServiceNow, the user table contains information about users, while the caller table contains information about the caller or the individual who has raised a request or incident. Since the request is related to the caller’s name being clicked to show a quick view, we need to update the quick view associated with the caller table to ensure the relevant fields (User name, Manager name, Email Address, Employee ID) are shown.

  4. Why not other options?

Option A refers to the sys_popup view for the user table, which would be used for different purposes, such as pop-ups for user data, but it does not directly affect the caller’s quick view.

Option D suggests updating the sys_quick view for the user table, but this would show the user data, not the caller's data, which is the focus of the request.

In conclusion, the correct action is to update the sys_quick view for the caller table (B), as it ensures the appropriate fields (User name, Manager name, Email Address, Employee ID) are displayed when the Service Desk agent clicks on the caller's name.

Question No 10:

Your customer has built a mature knowledge base, with articles targeted to internal audiences - which are technical. Other articles are written for end users, with simple instructions. From the Incident form, the agents would like to be able to identify which articles are visible to the callers. 

What feature would you use, to satisfy this requirement?

A. Internal/External Highlighting
B. Search as User
C. Show User Viewable
D. User Only View

Answer: C

Explanation:

To meet the requirement where agents can identify which articles are visible to callers (i.e., end users), the best feature to use is Show User Viewable. This feature enables agents to see which knowledge base articles are visible to end users based on the article's visibility settings. By marking articles with the appropriate visibility tags (such as "User Viewable"), agents can easily identify which articles are accessible to end users directly from the incident form.

Here’s why Show User Viewable is the most appropriate option:

  • Show User Viewable makes it easy for agents to see which knowledge base articles are accessible to end users without needing to manually search for each article's permissions. It ensures that agents can quickly identify which content is relevant for the customer or caller based on user permissions.

  • This feature is tailored for the requirement of differentiating articles meant for internal use versus those intended for external (end user) consumption. When an article is marked as "User Viewable," it is visible to the caller (end user), and agents can instantly identify those articles when managing incidents.

Let’s explore the other options:

  • A. Internal/External Highlighting is not a common or standard feature in knowledge management systems. It might refer to the practice of differentiating articles based on internal or external use, but it does not directly address the need for agents to identify which articles are visible to callers from the incident form.

  • B. Search as User allows agents to perform searches based on user roles or permissions, essentially mimicking what an end user would see. While it may be useful for ensuring the right content appears in a search, it does not provide a clear indication on the incident form of which articles are visible to the callers.

  • D. User Only View could imply a view restricted to users with certain roles, but it doesn’t directly address the agents’ need to quickly identify articles visible to callers. This feature is generally used for limiting access rather than helping agents identify accessible content.

In conclusion, Show User Viewable is the feature that best satisfies the requirement of allowing agents to easily identify which articles are visible to callers from the Incident form. By marking articles as "User Viewable," the knowledge base effectively distinguishes between internal and end-user content, providing clarity for agents when handling incidents.

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