Isaca CISA Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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CISA Isaca Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing an organization's business continuity plan (BCP)?

A. The BCP has not been tested since it was first issued.
B. The BCP is not version-controlled.
C. The BCP's contact information needs to be updated.
D. The BCP has not been approved by senior management.

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is critical to ensuring an organization can continue operations during and after a disruption. When an IS auditor reviews the BCP, they are primarily concerned with its effectiveness in a real-world scenario, and the organization’s preparedness to execute it when needed.

Let’s analyze each of the answer choices to determine which represents the greatest concern:

A. The BCP has not been tested since it was first issued:
This is a major concern. A BCP that has never been tested may not function as intended during an actual crisis. Testing verifies the practicality, accuracy, and completeness of the plan. Without testing, there is no assurance that the procedures will work, personnel will understand their roles, or the plan will support a timely and orderly recovery. Regular testing also helps uncover gaps and opportunities for improvement. A plan that has not been tested may fail during a real disruption, causing extended downtime or data loss. Therefore, this is the greatest concern among the options.
B. The BCP is not version-controlled:
While version control is important for ensuring that team members are using the latest and most accurate version of the BCP, a lack of version control is typically a documentation issue rather than an operational failure. It can lead to confusion or outdated responses but does not, by itself, imply that the plan will fail during execution. It’s a concern, but not as severe as an untested plan.
C. The BCP's contact information needs to be updated:
While outdated contact information can impair communication during a crisis, this is a localized issue that can usually be quickly corrected. It does not indicate a broader systemic failure of the BCP itself. Though it's important to keep contact details current, this is not as critical as ensuring the entire plan functions correctly under real conditions.
D. The BCP has not been approved by senior management:
This is a governance issue, and it is indeed serious because it reflects a lack of oversight and accountability. However, if the BCP has been thoroughly developed, regularly updated, and tested, it might still be functional even without formal approval. Lack of approval is problematic, especially from a compliance and authority standpoint, but it does not automatically mean the plan will fail operationally in a crisis. An untested plan, on the other hand, is far more likely to lead to immediate and tangible consequences during a disaster.

Conclusion: While all the listed issues are valid concerns for an IS auditor, the lack of testing directly impacts the effectiveness and reliability of the BCP during a real event, making A the greatest concern.

Question No 2:

Which of the following would be MOST useful when analyzing computer performance?

A. Tuning of system software to optimize resource usage
B. Operations report of user dissatisfaction with response time
C. Statistical metrics measuring capacity utilization
D. Report of off-peak utilization and response time

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

When it comes to analyzing computer performance, the goal is to assess how effectively a system is utilizing its hardware and software resources under varying workloads. This involves identifying performance bottlenecks, understanding system capacity, and making informed decisions about scaling, optimization, or potential upgrades. Among the provided options, statistical metrics measuring capacity utilization offer the most objective, quantifiable, and comprehensive insight into performance.

Let’s examine each option to determine which is the most useful for performance analysis:

Option A: Tuning of system software to optimize resource usage
While tuning system software is a valuable activity for improving performance, it is a method of optimization, not a tool or source of data for analysis. You can’t effectively tune software unless you have already analyzed performance metrics to determine where optimization is needed. So, while this is a good follow-up action, it is not useful on its own for initially analyzing performance.

Option B: Operations report of user dissatisfaction with response time
This option provides subjective feedback about system performance. While it can be helpful to know that users are dissatisfied, it lacks quantitative detail and does not pinpoint specific causes of poor performance. For example, users may report slow response times, but without supporting data, it's impossible to determine whether the issue lies with CPU, memory, storage, network latency, or software inefficiencies. This kind of report can indicate that a problem exists, but it is not sufficient for a technical analysis.

Option C: Statistical metrics measuring capacity utilization
This is the most appropriate and useful choice for analyzing computer performance. Capacity utilization metrics (such as CPU usage, memory consumption, disk I/O, network throughput, and load averages) provide quantitative, real-time, and historical data about how system resources are being used. These metrics allow administrators and analysts to:

Identify bottlenecks (e.g., high CPU utilization or low memory availability)
Forecast future capacity needs
Detect abnormal usage patterns
Correlate usage data with performance degradation

For example, consistently high CPU utilization during peak hours might suggest the need to scale vertically or horizontally. Conversely, low utilization despite user complaints could indicate application-level inefficiencies or network issues.

Option D: Report of off-peak utilization and response time
This option provides limited insight into overall performance. While it’s useful to know how the system behaves during off-peak hours, this doesn’t reflect system performance under actual load conditions, which is when problems are most likely to occur. Analyzing performance during low utilization does not help identify stress points or determine whether the system can handle its workload during critical times.

In summary, although each option has value in certain contexts, statistical metrics measuring capacity utilization provide the most objective and actionable data for analyzing computer performance. They form the foundation for any serious performance tuning, forecasting, or troubleshooting efforts. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Question No 3:

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk if two users have concurrent access to the same database record?

A. Entity integrity
B. Availability integrity
C. Referential integrity
D. Data integrity

Answer: D

Explanation:

When two users have concurrent access to the same database record—meaning they are reading from and/or writing to it at the same time—the greatest risk involved is a compromise to data integrity.

Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. In a multi-user environment, if two users simultaneously update the same record without proper concurrency controls in place, the resulting data can become inconsistent or corrupted. This is known as a race condition or lost update problem, where one user's update overwrites another's without either being aware of it. This directly threatens the correctness of the data stored in the database.

For example, imagine two customer service agents updating a customer’s address record at the same time. Without mechanisms like locking, transactions, or isolation levels, the second update might overwrite the first one, leading to inaccurate information being stored—clearly a breach of data integrity.

Now let's evaluate the other options:

A. Entity integrity: This ensures that each table has a primary key and that the key is unique and not null. While important, entity integrity is enforced by the database schema and is less directly impacted by concurrent access to the same record unless it involves creation of new records with duplicate or null keys.
B. Availability integrity: This term is not commonly used in the context of database management. Availability is typically considered a part of the CIA triad (Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability) in information security, but "availability integrity" isn't a standard concept. Even so, concurrent access usually affects correctness rather than availability.
C. Referential integrity: This ensures that foreign key relationships between tables remain consistent (e.g., if you reference a customer ID in an orders table, that customer ID must exist in the customer table). Concurrent access to the same record doesn’t typically affect referential integrity unless one user deletes a record while another tries to reference it, which is a rarer and more specific scenario.

Conclusion: The greatest risk of concurrent access to the same record is data integrity violations due to conflicting updates. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Question No 4:

Which of the following is the MOST effective way for an organization to help ensure agreed-upon action plans from an IS audit will be implemented?

A. Ensure ownership is assigned.
B. Test corrective actions upon completion.
C. Ensure sufficient audit resources are allocated.
D. Communicate audit results organization-wide.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The effectiveness of an Information Systems (IS) audit does not solely depend on identifying issues but also on whether agreed-upon corrective actions are actually implemented. Ensuring that those corrective actions are carried out and completed requires clear accountability.

A. Ensure ownership is assigned

This is the most effective method for ensuring action plans are implemented. When ownership is clearly assigned to specific individuals or teams, they are responsible for following through with the corrective actions. This accountability promotes commitment, enables tracking of progress, and helps ensure that there is no ambiguity regarding who is responsible. Without a clearly designated owner, corrective actions may be neglected or delayed. This makes A the most critical step in ensuring the success of post-audit follow-up efforts.

B. Test corrective actions upon completion

While testing is an important step to confirm that implemented actions have resolved the original issues, it occurs after actions have been taken. It does not by itself ensure that the action plan will actually be implemented. If no one is assigned ownership, there may be nothing to test. So although this is a best practice in the validation phase, it is not the most effective initial step to ensure implementation.

C. Ensure sufficient audit resources are allocated

Allocating enough resources to the audit team is essential for conducting effective audits, but resource allocation does not ensure that corrective actions will be implemented by the auditee. This affects the audit process quality rather than the follow-through on recommendations.

D. Communicate audit results organization-wide

Communicating results across the organization can improve transparency and raise awareness, but again, this does not directly ensure action is taken. It supports a broader culture of compliance, but without ownership, communication alone won’t drive execution of the remediation plan.

The most effective way to help ensure that agreed-upon action plans from an IS audit are implemented is to assign clear ownership of each action. This ensures accountability, encourages follow-through, and allows for tracking and escalation if necessary. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Question No 5:

Which of the following issues associated with a data center's closed circuit television (CCTV) surveillance cameras should be of MOST concern to an IS auditor?

A. CCTV recordings are not regularly reviewed.
B. CCTV records are deleted after one year.
C. CCTV footage is not recorded 24 x 7.
D. CCTV cameras are not installed in break rooms.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The primary role of CCTV surveillance in a data center is to provide continuous monitoring and incident recording for security purposes, particularly to detect and respond to unauthorized physical access. Among the choices provided, the issue of CCTV footage not being recorded 24 x 7 (Option C) presents the greatest risk from an information systems auditing and security perspective.

If surveillance is not continuous, then critical security incidents—such as unauthorized access, tampering with hardware, or theft—could go undetected. This lack of visibility creates a security gap, significantly undermining the ability to conduct forensic investigations, enforce physical security policies, or meet compliance requirements.

Let’s analyze the other options in detail:

Option A (CCTV recordings are not regularly reviewed):
While it's good practice to review CCTV footage regularly, especially after incidents or for audit checks, not doing so is less critical than not recording at all. If the footage exists, it can still be used for investigation even if it wasn’t proactively monitored—though this could delay detection and response.

Option B (CCTV records are deleted after one year):
This retention period is generally adequate for most compliance and forensic needs. In fact, some regulations and storage policies recommend or require purging surveillance data after a specific timeframe to balance privacy and storage concerns. Retaining data for one year is typically not a security weakness, unless legal, regulatory, or internal policies dictate a longer period.

Option D (CCTV cameras are not installed in break rooms):
This is generally not a concern from a security or IS auditing standpoint. Break rooms are not sensitive or high-security areas, and placing cameras there may even raise privacy concerns. Surveillance is primarily needed in critical zones, such as data halls, entrances/exits, and equipment storage areas.

In summary, the most concerning issue from an IS audit perspective is Option C—the lack of 24 x 7 CCTV recording. Without continuous recording, the ability to monitor, detect, and investigate incidents is significantly impaired, exposing the data center to serious security risks.

Question No 6:

What should be the IS auditor's primary concern when auditing the proposed acquisition of new computer hardware?

A. a clear business case has been established.
B. the new hardware meets established security standards.
C. a full, visible audit trail will be included.
D. the implementation plan meets user requirements.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

When an Information Systems (IS) auditor is asked to review a proposed acquisition of new computer hardware, the auditor’s primary concern is ensuring that the acquisition is justified, aligns with business objectives, and provides measurable value. This means the focus should be on whether a clear business case exists for the investment.

Let’s analyze the options in more detail:

Option A: a clear business case has been established

This is the correct answer. The IS auditor’s foremost responsibility in an acquisition audit is to verify whether the purchase is justified from a business perspective. A clear business case outlines the reasons for the purchase, such as solving a business problem, improving operational efficiency, or enabling new capabilities. It should include cost-benefit analysis, risk assessment, alignment with strategic goals, and potential return on investment (ROI).

Without a strong business case, the hardware acquisition might result in unnecessary spending, underutilized resources, or misaligned IT investments. Auditing the existence and quality of the business case ensures that due diligence has been done and that the expenditure is aligned with organizational priorities. Therefore, this is the auditor’s primary concern during the early phases of the acquisition process.

Option B: the new hardware meets established security standards

While security is crucial, it is generally addressed later in the evaluation process, after the business need has been established. The auditor certainly should verify that the hardware complies with security standards and does not introduce vulnerabilities, but this is not the primary concern at the acquisition justification stage. Security assessments are typically more detailed during procurement or deployment phases.

Option C: a full, visible audit trail will be included

Having an audit trail is important for monitoring usage, tracking changes, and supporting accountability. However, this is more relevant to system operation and security than to the initial acquisition decision. The presence of an audit trail is a control mechanism that should be considered once the hardware is in use, not during the early business case evaluation.

Option D: the implementation plan meets user requirements

This is an important aspect of ensuring successful deployment and user satisfaction, but like Option B, it comes into play after the business case is validated. The implementation plan is essential during the planning and rollout phases, but it is not the primary focus at the point of auditing the acquisition proposal itself.

In summary, although security, auditability, and user alignment are all valid concerns, the primary concern of the IS auditor at the acquisition proposal stage is confirming that the purchase is supported by a clear, well-justified business case. This ensures the investment aligns with strategic objectives, optimizes resource allocation, and provides a solid foundation for further evaluation.

Question No 7:

To confirm the integrity of a hashed message, what should the receiver do?

A. the same hashing algorithm as the sender's to create a binary image of the file.
B. a different hashing algorithm from the sender's to create a numerical representation of the file.
C. a different hashing algorithm from the sender's to create a binary image of the file.
D. the same hashing algorithm as the sender's to create a numerical representation of the file.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When ensuring the integrity of a message using hashing, the fundamental goal is to verify that the message or file has not been altered in transit. This process uses hash functions, which are mathematical algorithms that produce a fixed-length output (usually a numerical representation, such as a hexadecimal string) from input data of any size.

Here's how the process works in typical scenarios:

The sender uses a specific hashing algorithm (like SHA-256) to compute a hash value of the original message or file.

The sender sends both the message and the hash value to the receiver.

The receiver, upon receiving the message, uses the same hashing algorithm to compute the hash value of the received message.

The receiver then compares the calculated hash with the original hash value sent by the sender.

If both hash values match, the message has not been altered; otherwise, it indicates tampering or corruption.

Let’s examine each option:

Option A: the same hashing algorithm as the sender's to create a binary image of the file
This choice starts correctly — using the same hashing algorithm is essential — but the phrase “create a binary image of the file” is misleading. Hashing doesn't create a binary replica; it creates a numeric hash value. Therefore, A is incorrect.

Option B: a different hashing algorithm from the sender's to create a numerical representation of the file
Using a different hashing algorithm defeats the purpose of verification. Different algorithms (e.g., SHA-1 vs. SHA-256) will produce completely different outputs, even for the same input. As such, the receiver must use the same algorithm to compare hash values accurately. Therefore, B is incorrect.

Option C: a different hashing algorithm from the sender's to create a binary image of the file
This option is doubly incorrect. As stated, hashing algorithms must match, and hashing doesn't create a binary image but a fixed-length numerical digest. Therefore, C is incorrect.

Option D: the same hashing algorithm as the sender's to create a numerical representation of the file
This is the correct choice. The integrity verification process relies on both sender and receiver using the same hashing algorithm, and the output is a numerical representation (typically in hexadecimal or binary format), not a copy of the original file. By comparing these numerical hash values, the receiver can confirm whether the message remains unchanged. Therefore, D is correct.

To ensure that a received message has not been modified, the receiver must use the same hashing algorithm as the sender to compute a numerical representation (hash value) of the message. This value is then compared with the one sent by the sender. If they match, the message's integrity is confirmed.

Question No 8:

Which implementation strategy would be the most efficient for minimizing business downtime during the deployment of a new system that supports a month-end business process?

A. Cutover
B. Phased
C. Pilot
D. Parallel

Answer: D

Explanation:

When deploying a new system that supports a critical, time-sensitive process such as a month-end business process, minimizing risk and reducing downtime are paramount. Among the listed implementation strategies, the Parallel strategy offers the most efficient approach for decreasing business downtime while still maintaining continuity and ensuring system reliability.

In a Parallel implementation, both the new system and the legacy (existing) system run simultaneously for a designated period. This allows the organization to compare outputs, verify correctness, and identify and resolve issues without impacting the actual business operations. If any problems occur in the new system, the organization can continue using the old system without interruption. This dual-system operation acts as a safety net, reducing risk and effectively eliminating downtime, since the business doesn’t have to halt operations while transitioning.

Let’s evaluate the other options:

Option A – Cutover:
Also known as a "big bang" implementation, this strategy involves switching from the old system to the new one all at once. While it might seem efficient from a scheduling perspective, it's risky, especially for critical processes like month-end reporting. If the new system fails or has undetected issues, the organization could face significant downtime, data integrity issues, or loss of productivity, making this a less suitable option for minimizing disruption.

Option B – Phased:
A phased implementation involves rolling out the new system in segments over time (e.g., department by department or module by module). This reduces risk in a controlled way but doesn’t necessarily minimize downtime for the entire process since only parts of the system are live at any given time. It may also result in temporary inefficiencies and require integration between live and non-live parts, which can be complex. For a process that is unified and time-bound like month-end processing, this approach could lead to coordination challenges.

Option C – Pilot:
In a pilot strategy, the system is introduced to a small group of users or a specific business unit to test functionality and gather feedback before a full rollout. While this helps detect issues early, it doesn’t minimize downtime across the organization because only a subset of the business benefits initially. It also means that most users will not be transitioned during the pilot, so the business as a whole may still experience downtime during the final deployment phase.

In summary, the Parallel strategy is the most effective at minimizing business downtime during system implementation for a critical, time-sensitive process. By running both systems concurrently, the business can validate the new system in real time, ensure continuity, and fall back to the old system if needed—all of which are crucial for maintaining operational integrity during a month-end process.

Question No 9:

Which of the following should be the FIRST step in managing the impact of a recently discovered zero-day attack?

A. Estimating potential damage
B. Identifying vulnerable assets
C. Evaluating the likelihood of attack
D. Assessing the impact of vulnerabilities

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

When a zero-day attack is discovered, it means a vulnerability has been identified that is being actively exploited or could be exploited, and for which there is no official patch available yet. These situations demand immediate and structured action to minimize potential harm to an organization's systems and data. The first step in this process must be understanding where the organization is exposed — that is, identifying which assets are vulnerable.

Here's why each option ranks the way it does:

Identifying vulnerable assets:
This is the first and most critical step. Before you can mitigate or assess anything, you need to know which systems, applications, or endpoints are at risk. If you don’t know what is vulnerable, you cannot accurately assess potential damage, likelihood, or impact. Asset inventory and vulnerability scanning help determine what is running the affected software or configurations. This step forms the foundation for all subsequent risk analysis and response actions.
Estimating potential damage:
Option A focuses on damage estimation, which is important but premature if you have not yet identified the scope of exposure. You cannot estimate damage without first knowing what systems are vulnerable and what roles they play in the organization. Estimating damage is part of the broader risk assessment, which comes after vulnerable assets are identified.
Evaluating the likelihood of attack:
While C is a valid consideration in risk management, in the context of a zero-day vulnerability, the assumption should lean toward high likelihood if the vulnerability is publicly disclosed or known to be under active exploitation. Nonetheless, this evaluation is based on information gathered about how many and which systems are vulnerable, further supporting the fact that identifying assets is a prerequisite.
Assessing the impact of vulnerabilities:
Option D, assessing impact, is similar to estimating potential damage, but again, it requires context — specifically, which systems are involved, their criticality, and how they could be exploited. This step comes after identifying the vulnerable assets and is part of the comprehensive risk evaluation process.

In conclusion, the very first step in managing a zero-day vulnerability should be identifying vulnerable assets (option B). This step enables the organization to scope the threat, prioritize remediation, and prepare accurate risk assessments, all of which depend on a clear understanding of exposure.

Question No 10:

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that an application is performing according to its specifications?

A. Pilot testing
B. System testing
C. Integration testing
D. Unit testing

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

To determine whether an application is performing according to its specifications, the best method is System testing. System testing is a critical phase in the software development lifecycle where the entire application is tested as a whole to verify that it meets the defined requirements and specifications. It ensures that all components and features function correctly together in the intended environment.

Here’s why System testing is the most suitable:

System testing is a high-level testing process that validates the complete and integrated application. It checks the application’s compliance with the functional and non-functional requirements outlined during the planning and specification phases. This testing encompasses aspects such as usability, performance, security, and compatibility—ensuring the application behaves as expected from end to end. The goal is to confirm that the system does exactly what the specifications state, making this the best fit for the question.

Let’s review why the other options are less suitable:

A. Pilot testing involves deploying the application to a small group of end-users in a real-world environment before a full-scale rollout. While useful for gathering user feedback and identifying unforeseen issues, pilot testing is more about real-world usability and user acceptance rather than ensuring strict adherence to technical specifications. It is not a comprehensive or systematic method of verifying all requirements.
C. Integration testing focuses on testing the interfaces and interactions between different modules or components of an application. While this is important to ensure that various parts of the application communicate correctly, it does not test the entire application against its specifications. It is narrower in scope compared to system testing.
D. Unit testing involves testing individual components or functions of the application in isolation. Developers typically perform unit testing to validate that specific units of code work as expected. However, unit testing does not verify that the application as a whole meets its overall specifications.

In summary, while each testing type plays a vital role in the software development lifecycle, System testing stands out as the best method to confirm whether the application is functioning according to its specifications. It is the final phase of testing before deployment and is designed specifically to validate that the software meets all outlined requirements comprehensively.