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Cloud Digital Leader Google Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps
Question No 1:
You are migrating workloads to the cloud. The goal of the migration is to serve customers worldwide as quickly as possible. According to local regulations, certain data is required to be stored in a specific geographic area, and it can be served worldwide.
You need to design the architecture and deployment for your workloads. What should you do?
A. Select a public cloud provider that is only active in the required geographic area
B. Select a private cloud provider that globally replicates data storage for fast data access
C. Select a public cloud provider that guarantees data location in the required geographic area
D. Select a private cloud provider that is only active in the required geographic area
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
When migrating workloads to the cloud, it is essential to balance data compliance, performance, and the ability to serve customers globally. The specific challenge in this scenario is that some data needs to be stored in a specific geographic area due to local regulations, but it must also be served worldwide. To achieve this, we need a solution that ensures data compliance with local regulations while also enabling global performance. Let’s analyze the answer choices:
A. Select a public cloud provider that is only active in the required geographic area:
This option would restrict the deployment to only one geographic region, which could prevent serving customers worldwide. A cloud provider that only operates in one region would not be able to provide the global reach necessary for optimal performance. This choice is incorrect because it doesn’t meet the requirement to serve customers globally.
B. Select a private cloud provider that globally replicates data storage for fast data access:
While private clouds may offer certain advantages in control and customization, they do not inherently meet the requirement for compliance with specific geographic data storage regulations. If data is being globally replicated, it may violate those regulations by storing data outside the required region. Additionally, private cloud providers typically lack the global infrastructure of public clouds, which could hinder performance when trying to serve customers worldwide. This option is incorrect because it does not ensure data is stored in the required geographic area and could conflict with regulations.
C. Select a public cloud provider that guarantees data location in the required geographic area:
This option is the most appropriate because many public cloud providers offer region-specific data storage capabilities. Providers such as Amazon Web Services (AWS), Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud allow customers to store data in specific geographic locations and offer global infrastructure to ensure fast access to the data from anywhere in the world. This solution ensures compliance with local regulations while also providing the ability to serve customers worldwide with the performance benefits of the cloud’s global network. This option is correct because it balances data compliance and global reach.
D. Select a private cloud provider that is only active in the required geographic area:
This option, like option A, limits the deployment to one geographic area, which could prevent serving customers worldwide. Moreover, a private cloud provider that operates only in a specific region would not leverage the global infrastructure needed for fast data access across different locations. This choice does not meet the goal of serving customers worldwide, so it is incorrect.
To achieve both regulatory compliance for data storage in a specific geographic area and the ability to serve customers worldwide quickly, the best approach is to select a public cloud provider that guarantees data location in the required area while leveraging their global infrastructure for fast access. This provides the balance needed for both data compliance and performance.
Question No 2:
Your organization needs a large amount of extra computing power within the next two weeks. After those two weeks, the need for the additional resources will end. Which is the most cost-effective approach?
A. Use a committed use discount to reserve a very powerful virtual machine
B. Purchase one very powerful physical computer
C. Start a very powerful virtual machine without using a committed use discount
D. Purchase multiple physical computers and scale workload across them
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
In this scenario, the organization needs a temporary increase in computing resources for a short period of time — only two weeks — and after that, the need for the additional resources will cease. To determine the most cost-effective approach, we need to evaluate the options based on the flexibility, scalability, and cost of each approach.
Option A: Use a committed use discount to reserve a very powerful virtual machine
A committed use discount offers a lower price in exchange for a long-term commitment to use resources (typically for 1 or 3 years). While this option provides a lower cost over the long term, it is not ideal for a temporary need like this. Since the need for extra computing power lasts only two weeks, committing to a long-term reservation would result in wasted costs after the two-week period. This is not the most cost-effective solution for a temporary workload.
Option B: Purchase one very powerful physical computer
Purchasing a physical computer is a capital expenditure and involves significant upfront costs. Additionally, a physical server would need to be managed, maintained, and potentially even stored after the two-week period. Given that the additional computing power is only needed for two weeks, this approach would result in significant overhead costs for equipment that is not needed in the long term. This is not an economical solution for a short-term need.
Option C: Start a very powerful virtual machine without using a committed use discount
This is the most cost-effective option. Virtual machines (VMs) can be quickly provisioned and de-provisioned based on the organization's needs, which is ideal for temporary workloads. By starting a virtual machine on a pay-as-you-go basis, the organization can scale up resources as needed for the two-week period and only pay for the duration they use the resources. This option offers flexibility and cost efficiency, as it allows the company to add compute power immediately and then shut it down when no longer needed, avoiding long-term commitments or unnecessary expenditures.
Option D: Purchase multiple physical computers and scale workload across them
Similar to option B, purchasing multiple physical computers is an inefficient solution for temporary needs. Not only would this require significant upfront investment in hardware, but managing multiple physical servers for just two weeks would also add unnecessary maintenance costs and administrative complexity. Scaling a workload across multiple physical machines is better suited for long-term, sustained usage rather than short-term spikes in demand.
Conclusion: The best option is to start a very powerful virtual machine without using a committed use discount. This approach offers flexibility, cost-effectiveness, and scalability for short-term computing needs. The organization can easily scale resources as needed and only pay for what they use, making it the most efficient and economical choice. Therefore, the correct answer is C.
Question No 3:
Which action should your organization take when planning cloud infrastructure expenditures?
A. Review cloud resource costs frequently, because costs change often based on use
B. Review cloud resource costs annually as part of planning your organization’s overall budget
C. If your organization uses only cloud resources, infrastructure costs are no longer part of your overall budget
D. Involve fewer people in cloud resource planning than your organization did for on-premises resource planning
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
When planning cloud infrastructure expenditures, it is essential for organizations to stay proactive and adaptable, as cloud resource costs can fluctuate significantly based on usage patterns, service scaling, and any adjustments to cloud service plans. This dynamic pricing is a core characteristic of cloud environments, where costs are often based on consumption (e.g., storage, compute resources, or data transfer). This makes regular monitoring and review of cloud resource costs crucial to avoid unexpected spikes or inefficiencies. Option A suggests that reviewing cloud resource costs frequently is the best practice due to the frequent changes in pricing and usage.
In contrast, option B suggests reviewing cloud resource costs annually, but this is typically not sufficient given the rapid nature of cloud cost changes. While annual reviews might be appropriate for budgeting purposes, they do not provide the ongoing visibility necessary to control expenses effectively. Relying on just one review per year risks overlooking temporary increases or the impact of changes in cloud usage during the year.
Option C is incorrect because, even if an organization uses only cloud resources, the infrastructure costs remain an integral part of the overall budget. Cloud computing replaces traditional on-premises infrastructure but does not eliminate the need for careful financial planning. The cloud is not a one-time cost; it requires ongoing attention to ensure that expenditures are aligned with business goals and usage needs.
Lastly, option D incorrectly suggests that fewer people should be involved in cloud resource planning compared to on-premises planning. On the contrary, cloud infrastructure may require the collaboration of various departments (e.g., IT, finance, operations) due to its complexity, scalability, and cost management challenges. A dedicated and broader team can help in identifying areas of potential savings and more effective resource allocation.
Question No 4:
How can your organization most effectively identify all virtual machines that do not have the latest security update?
A. View the Security Command Center to identify virtual machines running vulnerable disk images
B. View the Compliance Reports Manager to identify and download a recent PCI audit
C. View the Security Command Center to identify virtual machines started more than 2 weeks ago
D. View the Compliance Reports Manager to identify and download a recent SOC 1 audit
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
To effectively identify virtual machines (VMs) that are not up to date with security patches, it is important to monitor and track their vulnerability status. Among the given options, A is the most direct and effective approach. The Security Command Center is a platform designed to assist with security management and vulnerability scanning across the cloud infrastructure, including virtual machines. By leveraging this tool, you can specifically identify which virtual machines are running vulnerable disk images, ensuring that those which have outdated or unpatched images are flagged. This approach helps to directly address the concern of security vulnerabilities caused by missing updates.
In contrast, option B suggests using the Compliance Reports Manager for PCI audits. While PCI compliance is important, it does not directly address security updates for virtual machines, making this approach less relevant to the task of identifying machines with outdated security patches.
Option C refers to identifying virtual machines that have been running for over two weeks, but the age of the VM does not inherently indicate whether the VM is missing security updates. Security vulnerabilities can exist regardless of when the VM was started, making this method unreliable for the specific goal of identifying outdated security patches.
Option D involves downloading an SOC 1 audit from the Compliance Reports Manager. SOC 1 audits are focused on internal controls related to financial reporting, not security patches or vulnerabilities of virtual machines. This approach is also irrelevant to identifying VMs with outdated security updates.
By focusing on A, using the Security Command Center to identify vulnerable disk images, your organization can specifically target the VMs that require immediate attention for security updates.
Question No 5:
What is the most cost-effective approach for optimizing the Windows Server license cost, considering that the workloads are only needed during working hours?
A. Renew your licenses for an additional period of 3 years. Negotiate a cost reduction with your current hosting provider wherein infrastructure cost is reduced when workloads are not in use
B. Renew your licenses for an additional period of 2 years. Negotiate a cost reduction by committing to an automatic renewal of the licenses at the end of the 2-year period
C. Migrate the workloads to Compute Engine with a bring-your-own-license (BYOL) model
D. Migrate the workloads to Compute Engine with a pay-as-you-go (PAYG) model
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
The most cost-effective approach for optimizing the Windows Server license cost is to migrate the workloads to a pay-as-you-go (PAYG) model. This is because under the PAYG model, you only pay for the actual compute resources used, which can significantly reduce costs when workloads are not running during the weekend or off-hours. Since your workloads are only required during working hours, this model allows for the flexibility to scale down or stop instances when not needed, thereby reducing your infrastructure and licensing costs.
While renewing licenses (options A and B) may seem like a viable option, it locks you into a long-term commitment (either 2 or 3 years) and does not provide the same level of flexibility or potential cost savings during idle periods. With the BYOL (bring-your-own-license) model (option C), you still need to manage and pay for the licenses, which may not be as cost-effective as the PAYG model in this case, since PAYG eliminates the need to purchase licenses upfront and you only incur charges for the exact time your workloads are running.
In summary, migrating to a PAYG model allows for the optimal use of licenses and infrastructure resources, ensuring you only incur costs for when your workloads are in use, which leads to the most significant potential savings.
Question No 6:
Where should your organization locate its virtual machines to ensure redundancy and extremely fast communication (less than 10 milliseconds) between parts of the application?
A. In a single zone within a single region
B. In different zones within a single region
C. In multiple regions, using one zone per region
D. In multiple regions, using multiple zones per region
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
When designing a distributed application with a requirement for both redundancy and ultra-fast communication (less than 10 milliseconds) between its components, several important factors must be considered, such as network latency, redundancy, and geographical separation.
A. In a single zone within a single region: While this option provides low latency for communication between virtual machines (VMs), it doesn't meet the redundancy requirement. Placing all the VMs in a single zone creates a single point of failure. If that zone experiences an outage, the entire application would be impacted. Thus, this option is unsuitable for achieving redundancy.
B. In different zones within a single region: This option strikes a balance between fast communication and redundancy. In Google Cloud, zones within a region are interconnected with very low latency (often less than 10 milliseconds), allowing VMs in different zones to communicate rapidly. Additionally, placing VMs in different zones within a single region ensures high availability and fault tolerance, as the failure of one zone does not affect the entire application. This solution is ideal for achieving both the speed and redundancy your application requires.
C. In multiple regions, using one zone per region: Although this option provides geographical redundancy by placing VMs in different regions, the communication between VMs in different regions is generally slower due to higher network latency. Latency between regions can be much higher than 10 milliseconds, especially if the regions are geographically distant. This would not meet the requirement for extremely fast communication.
D. In multiple regions, using multiple zones per region: This approach offers redundancy across regions and zones, but like option C, it introduces the potential for high latency between regions. Communication between VMs in different regions can exceed the 10-millisecond target due to the inherent delays in long-distance data transfer. While this option enhances disaster recovery and fault tolerance, it compromises the requirement for fast communication.
In summary, B is the best choice because it ensures both redundancy (by spreading VMs across multiple zones) and very low-latency communication within a single region. This setup minimizes the risk of downtime due to zone failures while maintaining the necessary communication speed between VMs.
Question No 7:
Which two functions does a public cloud provider own? (Choose two.)
A. Hardware maintenance
B. Infrastructure architecture
C. Infrastructure deployment automation
D. Hardware capacity management
E. Fixing application security issues
Correct Answers: A and D
Explanation:
In a public cloud model, the cloud provider typically takes responsibility for maintaining the underlying infrastructure and hardware, while the organization itself handles other aspects like application-level management. The public cloud provider owns the following functions:
A. Hardware maintenance: This is the responsibility of the cloud provider. They are in charge of maintaining the physical hardware that supports the virtual resources you access. This includes routine maintenance, hardware upgrades, and ensuring the hardware stays functional without requiring input from the customer.
D. Hardware capacity management: The cloud provider is also responsible for ensuring that adequate hardware resources are available to meet customer demand. This includes scaling the infrastructure up or down based on the needs of users, ensuring sufficient computing power, storage, and network capacity to handle customer workloads effectively.
The remaining options are not typically owned by the cloud provider:
B. Infrastructure architecture: While cloud providers offer architecture options and best practices, the organization still has significant responsibility for designing and choosing the architecture that best fits their needs.
C. Infrastructure deployment automation: While public cloud providers may offer tools to automate the deployment of resources, organizations still have control over how those tools are implemented and managed.
E. Fixing application security issues: Security issues related to applications are generally the responsibility of the customer, though the cloud provider offers various security tools to help manage and mitigate risks.
Question No 8:
What is the best approach to allow scenes to be scheduled at will, interrupted at any time, and restarted later in a cost-effective manner on Google Cloud?
A. Deploy the application on Compute Engine using preemptible instances
B. Develop the application so it can run in an unmanaged instance group
C. Create a reservation for the minimum number of Compute Engine instances you will use
D. Start more instances with fewer virtual centralized processing units (vCPUs) instead of fewer instances with more vCPUs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The most suitable approach in this case is to use preemptible instances on Google Compute Engine. Preemptible instances are an excellent fit for workloads that can tolerate interruptions, like the rendering of animation scenes in this scenario. These instances offer significant cost savings compared to standard instances, making them highly cost-efficient for workloads that do not require continuous uptime, such as scene rendering tasks.
Preemptible instances are short-lived and can be terminated by Google Cloud at any time if there is demand for resources elsewhere. Since rendering tasks are not time-critical and can be resumed later, preemptible instances allow you to take advantage of unused compute capacity at a much lower cost. Furthermore, since the rendering software can be restarted at any time, the interruption of preemptible instances does not present a significant challenge. You can restart these tasks without a major impact on the overall workflow, which is key for the scenario described.
Now, let's analyze the other options:
B. Develop the application so it can run in an unmanaged instance group
While unmanaged instance groups give you the flexibility of scaling compute resources dynamically, they do not inherently offer a cost-saving or interruption-handling mechanism. Without the use of preemptible instances, the group could end up using standard compute instances, which are more expensive and may not be as efficient as preemptible ones for the described scenario.
C. Create a reservation for the minimum number of Compute Engine instances you will use
Reservations allow you to commit to a certain number of instances at a fixed price, but this approach would not be as cost-optimized as preemptible instances. Given that the scenes can be interrupted and restarted, a reservation would result in unnecessary costs for resources that might be underutilized or not fully needed. This option also does not provide the flexibility to handle interruptions effectively.
D. Start more instances with fewer virtual centralized processing units (vCPUs) instead of fewer instances with more vCPUs
While distributing workload across more instances could provide flexibility, it does not directly address the need for cost optimization or interruption handling. Scaling out with more instances might increase overall costs because more resources are used, and without preemptible instances, this could lead to inefficiencies in compute resource usage. Additionally, this approach doesn't take advantage of Google Cloud's preemptible instances, which would be the most cost-effective solution for handling the rendering tasks.
In conclusion, using preemptible instances on Google Compute Engine provides the best combination of cost-efficiency and flexibility for rendering tasks that can be scheduled, interrupted, and restarted later.
Question No 9:
How would you restrict all virtual machines from having an external IP address?
A. Define an organization policy at the root organization node to restrict virtual machine instances from having an external IP address
B. Define an organization policy on all existing folders to define a constraint to restrict virtual machine instances from having an external IP address
C. Define an organization policy on all existing projects to restrict virtual machine instances from having an external IP address
D. Communicate with the different teams and agree that each time a virtual machine is created, it must be configured without an external IP address
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In this scenario, the goal is to prevent virtual machines (VMs) from acquiring external IP addresses, which could result in unauthorized internet access or interaction with resources outside of Compute Engine.
The most effective approach to achieve this is through the use of organization policies, which allow centralized management of restrictions across multiple resources in Google Cloud. These policies can be applied at various levels: organization, folder, and project. Each level has different scopes of enforcement, so choosing the right level is essential for scalability and enforcement across multiple projects, folders, and future additions.
Applying an organization policy at the root organization node (option A) ensures that the policy is automatically inherited by all current and future projects, folders, and virtual machine instances under the organization. This is the most centralized and comprehensive solution because it applies universally, without requiring the manual definition of policies for every new folder or project. This also removes the potential for human error and ensures that new virtual machines created in future projects or folders automatically inherit the restriction of not having external IP addresses.
Option B suggests applying the policy at the folder level, but this would not cover newly created folders that may be added in the future. As new teams create additional folders, they would have to explicitly apply the policy themselves, which is less efficient and can lead to inconsistent enforcement across the organization. This would not provide the level of coverage and automation that option A offers.
Option C suggests applying the policy at the project level, which would be effective for restricting VMs within existing projects but would fail to enforce the policy on new projects or resources added in the future. As with option B, this approach requires manual enforcement and tracking for any new projects, which is not as scalable as option A.
Option D is a manual approach that relies on communication and discipline within teams to ensure compliance. While this approach could work, it is not reliable because it depends on each team consistently following the same procedure, which can lead to human errors and oversight. Automation with policies is a more robust and enforceable solution than relying on manual actions.
Therefore, option A is the most efficient and effective solution to enforce the restriction of virtual machines not having external IP addresses across the entire organization, including future folders and projects.
Question No 10:
What should your organization do to manage mission-critical workloads consistently and centrally while stopping infrastructure management?
A. Migrate the workloads to a public cloud
B. Migrate the workloads to a central office building
C. Migrate the workloads to multiple local co-location facilities
D. Migrate the workloads to multiple local private clouds
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
To achieve consistent and central management of mission-critical workloads, and to stop managing infrastructure, the best option is to migrate the workloads to a public cloud. The public cloud provides a central platform where you can manage workloads from anywhere in the world without the need to worry about the underlying physical infrastructure. This is ideal for organizations that want to focus on their applications and services rather than managing servers, storage, and networking hardware themselves.
In a public cloud environment, all of your workloads can be centrally managed using cloud-native tools, such as monitoring, automation, and orchestration platforms, ensuring consistency across global operations. Public cloud providers typically offer global data center networks, allowing organizations to deploy and manage their workloads in various geographic regions with ease. This eliminates the need for on-premises infrastructure and allows for dynamic scaling, flexibility, and cost optimization.
Option B – Migrating the workloads to a central office building does not provide the ability to scale globally or manage workloads centrally across various locations. It would require maintaining infrastructure, which goes against the goal of stopping infrastructure management.
Option C – Migrating workloads to multiple local co-location facilities still requires managing physical infrastructure, which would involve maintaining and overseeing the hardware, networks, and physical locations. This doesn't provide the same centralization or ease of management that a public cloud would offer.
Option D – Migrating workloads to multiple local private clouds involves managing on-premises private cloud infrastructure. While private clouds offer some flexibility, they still require your organization to handle the infrastructure, which is contrary to the objective of removing infrastructure management.
Thus, A is the most appropriate choice because it aligns with the need for centralized management without the burden of managing physical infrastructure.
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