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CS0-003 CompTIA Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1: 

A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited. It requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, has a significant impact on confidentiality and integrity but does not affect availability. 

Which of the following CVE metrics would most accurately describe this zero-day threat?

A. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:K/A:L
B. CVSS:31/AV:K/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L
C. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:H/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:H
D. CVSS:31/AV:L/AC:L/PR:R/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H

Answer: A. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:K/A:L

Explanation:

When assessing a zero-day vulnerability that is actively being exploited, CVE (Common Vulnerability and Exposure) metrics such as the CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) play an essential role in evaluating the severity of the threat. These metrics provide a standard way to measure the characteristics and potential impact of a vulnerability. Let’s break down the components for the most suitable choice in this case.

Key Characteristics of the Zero-Day Vulnerability:

1. No user interaction or privilege escalation required: The attack can be triggered without any action from the user and does not require higher privileges to exploit.

2. Significant impact on confidentiality and integrity, not availability: The attack compromises the confidentiality and integrity of the system but does not affect its availability.

Based on these conditions, let's analyze the CVSS components:

1. AV (Attack Vector): This describes how the vulnerability is exploited. In this case, since no user interaction is needed, AV:N (Network) is appropriate, meaning the exploit can occur over the network without needing physical access or user involvement.

2. AC (Attack Complexity): Since the attack does not require any specific conditions or advanced skills, AC:L (Low) is suitable, indicating that it can be exploited with minimal effort.

3. PR (Privileges Required): The vulnerability does not require elevated privileges or special permissions, so PR:N (None) is correct.

4. UI (User Interaction): The zero-day exploit does not require user interaction, so UI:N (None) is the correct choice.

5. S (Scope): Since the vulnerability affects the system’s integrity and confidentiality without disrupting its availability, the S:U (Unchanged) value is most appropriate. This indicates the vulnerability affects only the vulnerable component and not others.

6. C (Confidentiality Impact): The vulnerability causes significant damage to confidentiality, so C:H (High) is the correct value.

7. I (Integrity Impact): The vulnerability has a high impact on integrity, but the I:K (Unknown) value indicates that the exact level of impact might still be under investigation.

8. A (Availability Impact): Since the vulnerability does not affect availability, A:L (Low) is correct.

Therefore, the most accurate CVSS metric for this zero-day vulnerability is A. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:K/A:L, which accurately reflects the conditions described.

Question No 2: 

Which of the following tools would work best to prevent the exposure of Personally Identifiable Information (PII) outside of an organization?

A. PAM
B. IDS
C. PKI
D. DLP

Answer: D. DLP

Explanation:

When securing Personally Identifiable Information (PII) and preventing its exposure outside of an organization, the best tool to use is Data Loss Prevention (DLP). Let’s understand why DLP is the most effective option by analyzing the tools provided in the options.

What is Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

DLP refers to technologies and strategies used to monitor, detect, and prevent unauthorized access or transfer of sensitive data. It ensures that PII, along with other confidential information, does not leave the organization unintentionally or maliciously. DLP tools typically inspect data in motion (as it travels over networks), at rest (while stored), and in use (while being accessed or processed). It can enforce policies to block or alert on actions that could lead to sensitive data exposure.

For example, DLP can prevent employees from sending emails containing sensitive data to unauthorized recipients or uploading files with PII to public file-sharing sites. It’s specifically designed to safeguard confidential data like PII.

Why the Other Options Are Less Effective:

1. A. PAM (Privileged Access Management): PAM solutions control and monitor privileged access to sensitive systems. While PAM is crucial for securing administrative access, it does not directly prevent the exposure of PII outside the organization. It focuses more on internal user access controls rather than on preventing data exfiltration.

2. B. IDS (Intrusion Detection System): IDS detects potential security threats and intrusions within the network, but it does not actively prevent the leakage of sensitive data. An IDS can alert administrators when something suspicious is happening, but it is not designed to stop data from being leaked.

3. C. PKI (Public Key Infrastructure): PKI is used for encryption, ensuring secure communication by using public and private keys. While PKI can encrypt data in transit to prevent unauthorized interception, it is not designed to control the exposure of PII. It addresses security but does not monitor and prevent unauthorized sharing or access to PII directly.

In conclusion, DLP is the most suitable tool for preventing the exposure of PII, as it specifically monitors and restricts the flow of sensitive data within and outside the organization.

Question No 3: 

An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed: Image of the assessment output

Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?

Options:

A. Set an HttpOnly flag to force communication by HTTPS
B. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header
C. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains
D. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header

Answer: B. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header

Explanation:

When conducting a web application vulnerability assessment, one of the most important actions is to address potential vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. The security recommendation in this scenario aims to improve the security posture of the corporate website based on the assessment results.

Let’s look at the provided options:

Why Option B (X-Frame-Options header) is the Best Solution:

The X-Frame-Options header is used to control whether a web page can be embedded within an <iframe>, which is often used for embedding content like ads, videos, or third-party resources. However, if the website doesn’t restrict this, attackers can perform clickjacking, a malicious technique where an attacker embeds the website in a hidden iframe and tricks users into clicking on something they didn’t intend to.

Setting the X-Frame-Options header to DENY or SAMEORIGIN ensures that your website cannot be embedded into iframes from other domains, mitigating the risk of clickjacking attacks. Since this is a common vulnerability identified in web application security assessments, this recommendation directly addresses a known attack vector and improves the security of the website.

Why the Other Options Are Less Effective:

1. A. Set an HttpOnly flag to force communication by HTTPS: The HttpOnly flag prevents access to cookies via JavaScript, enhancing security against cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks. However, this is not directly related to the vulnerability assessment findings for clickjacking or similar threats.
   
   

2. C. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains: This is important for controlling cross-origin resource sharing (CORS), but the vulnerability described in the question seems to relate to iframe security rather than cross-origin resource sharing.
   
   

3. D. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header: While disabling CORS headers might prevent cross-origin attacks, it is not a blanket solution and can limit legitimate use cases where cross-origin resource sharing is required. Disabling it may break functionality without directly addressing the core vulnerability related to clickjacking.

In conclusion, blocking requests without an X-Frame-Options header is the most effective way to mitigate the risk of clickjacking and ensure that the website is secure from this type of attack.

Question No 4:

Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)

A. Lessons learned
B. Service-level agreement
C. Playbook
D. Affected hosts
E. Risk score
F. Education plan

Answer:

D. Affected hosts
E. Risk score

Explanation:

A vulnerability scan report is a critical document that summarizes the findings of a vulnerability assessment. The report should include relevant details that help the organization understand the risks and prioritize remediation efforts.

Why D (Affected hosts) and E (Risk score) Are Essential:

1. D. Affected Hosts: Identifying the affected hosts is crucial because it specifies the systems or assets that are vulnerable. Knowing which hosts are impacted allows the organization to focus on patching, updating, or securing the most critical systems first. Without this information, the remediation efforts could be disorganized and inefficient. Affected hosts should be listed with relevant details such as IP addresses, system names, and their vulnerability statuses.

2. E. Risk Score: The risk score is a numerical value that quantifies the severity of the vulnerabilities discovered. This score helps stakeholders prioritize remediation actions based on the potential impact and exploitability of the vulnerabilities. A higher risk score typically indicates a more critical vulnerability that should be addressed promptly. Including risk scores in the report ensures that decision-makers can focus resources on the most significant threats.

Why the Other Options Are Less Relevant:

1. A. Lessons Learned: While lessons learned are valuable for improving future assessments, they are typically included in post-mortem analysis rather than the vulnerability scan report itself. The report focuses on the current findings, not reflective learning.
   
   

2. B. Service-level Agreement (SLA): An SLA defines the expectations for service delivery but is not directly relevant to the findings of a vulnerability scan. It’s more applicable to vendor or contract agreements.
   
   

3. C. Playbook: While a playbook can be useful for responding to incidents, it is not typically part of a vulnerability scan report. The report should focus on current vulnerabilities and remediation priorities, not incident response procedures.
   
   

4. F. Education Plan: An education plan could be useful for addressing security awareness, but it is not a direct component of a vulnerability scan report. The report should focus on vulnerabilities and technical remediation.

In conclusion, a vulnerability scan report should include affected hosts and risk scores as they directly pertain to the assessment and remediation process.

Question No 5: 

The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry occurs approximately 45 days after a patch is released. Which of the following would best protect this organization?

A. A mean time to remediate of 30 days
B. A mean time to detect of 45 days
C. A mean time to respond of 15 days
D. Third-party application testing

Answer: A. A mean time to remediate of 30 days

Explanation:

In the scenario where attacks are being exploited approximately 45 days after a patch is released, the organization must focus on minimizing the gap between the patch release and its implementation. The mean time to remediate (MTTR) refers to the average time it takes to fix or mitigate vulnerabilities after they are identified. Reducing MTTR is critical in protecting the organization from being compromised by newly discovered exploits.

Why A (MTTR of 30 days) is the Best Option:

By setting a mean time to remediate (MTTR) of 30 days, the organization can ensure that patches are applied within a shorter window than the 45 days it takes for exploits to occur. This proactive approach reduces the likelihood of attackers successfully exploiting known vulnerabilities, as the patch will be in place before the exploits become widespread. A 30-day remediation window strikes a balance between fast patching and the complexity of testing and deploying patches.

Why the Other Options Are Less Effective:

1. B. A mean time to detect of 45 days: While detection is essential, it doesn't address the immediate need for remediating vulnerabilities. If vulnerabilities are detected only after 45 days, the exploit might have already occurred. Proactive remediation is more critical in this scenario.
   
   

2. C. A mean time to respond of 15 days: The mean time to respond refers to the time it takes to address the incident after it occurs. While response time is important, it's not as critical as the time taken to prevent the incident from happening by quickly patching known vulnerabilities.
   
   

3. D. Third-party application testing: Although testing third-party applications for vulnerabilities is important, it doesn't directly address the issue of remediating vulnerabilities caused by patches or fixes. Remediation of internal systems should take precedence to prevent exploitation.

In conclusion, reducing the mean time to remediate to 30 days ensures that vulnerabilities are patched faster than they can be exploited, offering the best protection for the organization.

Question No 6: 

A security analyst recently joined the team and is trying to determine which scripting language is being used in a production script to evaluate whether it may be malicious. Given the following script:

Which of the following scripting languages was used in the script?

A. PowerShell
B. Ruby
C. Python
D. Shell script

Answer: A. PowerShell

Explanation:

PowerShell is a powerful scripting language that is commonly used in Windows environments for automating system administration tasks, including file management, network configuration, and user management. It is also frequently exploited in cyberattacks due to its deep integration with the Windows operating system.

To identify the scripting language of a script, one can look for specific syntax and features that are unique to that language. PowerShell scripts are often characterized by certain elements such as:

• Cmdlets: PowerShell uses cmdlets (command-lets), which are specialized commands used to perform various tasks, such as Get-Process, Set-Item, and New-Object.
  
  

• Pipelines: PowerShell uses pipelines (|) to pass output from one cmdlet to another, enabling the chaining of commands.
  
  

• Objects: Unlike traditional scripts that work with plain text, PowerShell works heavily with objects, enabling the manipulation of system data and services more easily.

For instance, PowerShell scripts often include commands that can directly interact with the operating system's services, allowing for administrative actions and system manipulations that can be malicious if misused.

In contrast:

• Ruby and Python scripts are more general-purpose programming languages and have different syntax, such as def for defining functions (in Ruby and Python).
  
  

• Shell scripts are used in Unix-like systems and typically employ commands like echo, ls, or grep, and don’t have the same level of integration with the system as PowerShell does on Windows.

In this case, based on the typical characteristics of PowerShell scripts, A. PowerShell is the most likely scripting language.

Question No 7: 

A company's user accounts have been compromised. Users are also reporting that the company's internal portal is sometimes only accessible through HTTP, and at other times, it is accessible through HTTPS. 

Which of the following most likely describes the observed activity?

A. There is an issue with the SSL certificate causing port 443 to become unavailable for HTTPS access
B. An on-path attack is being performed by someone with internal access that forces users into port 80
C. The web server cannot handle an increasing amount of HTTPS requests so it forwards users to port 80
D. An error was caused by BGP due to new rules applied over the company's internal routers

Answer:

B. An on-path attack is being performed by someone with internal access that forces users into port 80

Explanation:

When users report inconsistencies in accessing a website through both HTTP and HTTPS, it typically indicates that an attacker may be intercepting or manipulating the traffic. An on-path attack (previously known as a "man-in-the-middle" attack) occurs when an attacker gains access to the communication channel and can alter or redirect traffic between the client and the server.

In this case, the attacker could be forcing users to access the portal through HTTP (port 80) instead of HTTPS (port 443), which is not encrypted. This could be done by intercepting or modifying the DNS response or the HTTP headers, leading users to an insecure HTTP version of the site.

Why the Other Options are Less Likely:

• A. SSL certificate issue: While an SSL certificate problem can cause HTTPS to fail, it wouldn't typically cause intermittent switching between HTTP and HTTPS. The certificate issue would usually prevent HTTPS from working at all.

• C. Web server load: While it is possible that a server under high load might struggle with HTTPS requests, it’s unlikely that the server would automatically redirect users to HTTP. Web servers typically handle load by queuing or using load balancing, not by redirecting to HTTP.

• D. BGP error: Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) issues typically affect routing at the network level, not application-layer protocols like HTTP and HTTPS. This wouldn’t cause the behavior described.

Therefore, the most likely cause is B. An on-path attack where an attacker is manipulating the communication to downgrade it to HTTP.

Question No 8: 

A security analyst is tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation. The relevant company security policies are shown below:

Security Policy 1006: Vulnerability Management

1. The Company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics (Exploitability and Impact) to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities.

2. In situations where a choice must be made between confidentiality and availability, the Company shall prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data.

3. The Company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available systems.

According to the security policy, which of the following vulnerabilities should be the highest priority to patch?

A. Name: THOR.HAMMER
CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:N/I:N/A:H
Internal System

B. Name: CAP.SHIELD
CVSS 3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:N/A:N
External System

C. Name: LOKI.DAGGER
CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:N/I:N/A:H
External System

D. Name: THANOS.GAUNTLET
CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:N/A:N
Internal System

Answer: B. Name: CAP.SHIELD

Explanation:

The security policy prioritizes remediation efforts based on CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics and the confidentiality of the data, as well as the exposure of the system (public vs. internal systems).

Let’s analyze each option in terms of these criteria:

• A. THOR.HAMMER: This vulnerability affects an internal system, and while it has high availability impact (A:H), it does not compromise confidentiality or integrity. The internal nature of the system reduces its immediate exposure, meaning it is a lower priority than external systems.
  
  

• B. CAP.SHIELD: This vulnerability affects an external system and has a high impact on confidentiality (C:H). Since the company prioritizes confidentiality over availability when there’s a choice, this vulnerability becomes the highest priority. External systems are more exposed and can have far-reaching consequences if compromised.
  
  

• C. LOKI.DAGGER: Although this vulnerability also affects an external system, it impacts availability (A:H) rather than confidentiality. According to the policy, confidentiality takes precedence over availability, making this a lower priority than CAP.SHIELD.
  
  

• D. THANOS.GAUNTLET: This vulnerability also affects an internal system and, like THOR.HAMMER, has no impact on confidentiality or integrity. Given the internal nature of the system, this is a lower priority compared to external systems.

Therefore, B. CAP.SHIELD, affecting an external system and compromising confidentiality, should be the highest priority according to the company’s security policy.

Question No 9: 

Which of the following will most likely ensure that mission-critical services are available in the event of an incident?

Options:

A. Business continuity plan
B. Vulnerability management plan
C. Disaster recovery plan
D. Asset management plan

Answer: C. Disaster recovery plan

Explanation:

A Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) is a critical component in ensuring that mission-critical services remain available during and after an incident, such as a cyberattack, natural disaster, or other major disruptions. The DRP outlines procedures for restoring services, data, and infrastructure in the event of a disaster, and it typically includes strategies for:

• Data backup and restoration: Ensuring that critical data is regularly backed up and can be quickly restored.

• Alternative infrastructure: Moving services to backup systems or secondary locations if primary systems fail.

• Communication protocols: Informing key stakeholders about the status of services and recovery efforts.

While the other plans listed are important for overall security and operational resilience, they serve different purposes:

• A. Business Continuity Plan (BCP): A BCP focuses on maintaining essential business functions during a disruption, but the DRP is more specific to restoring IT services and infrastructure after a failure.
  
  

• B. Vulnerability Management Plan: This plan focuses on identifying and mitigating vulnerabilities in systems to prevent incidents from occurring. However, it doesn't specifically address service availability during incidents.

• D. Asset Management Plan: This plan tracks the organization's IT assets but does not directly address service availability in case of an incident.

Thus, a Disaster Recovery Plan (C) is most likely to ensure that mission-critical services are restored and available following an incident.

Question No 10: 

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to eliminate and reduce shadow IT in the enterprise. Several high-risk cloud applications are being used, increasing the risk to the organization. 

Which of the following solutions will assist in reducing the risk?

A. Deploy a CASB and enable policy enforcement
B. Configure MFA with strict access
C. Deploy an API gateway
D. Enable SSO to the cloud applications

Answer: A. Deploy a CASB and enable policy enforcement

Explanation:

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is the most effective solution for reducing the risk associated with shadow IT. Shadow IT refers to the use of unauthorized cloud applications or services that employees access without IT’s knowledge or control. A CASB provides visibility into which cloud applications are being used within the organization, allowing the security team to enforce policies regarding acceptable usage.

With a CASB, organizations can:

• Monitor cloud app usage: CASBs can detect and report on unauthorized or risky cloud applications being accessed by users.

• Enforce security policies: CASBs can restrict access to certain applications, enforce data encryption, and apply access controls to ensure secure use of approved cloud services.

• Compliance and risk management: CASBs help organizations meet regulatory compliance requirements by ensuring data is appropriately protected in the cloud.

Why the Other Options Are Less Effective:

• B. Configure MFA with strict access: While multi-factor authentication (MFA) improves security, it does not address shadow IT directly. MFA helps secure access but does not control or monitor the use of unauthorized cloud applications.

• C. Deploy an API gateway: An API gateway can manage traffic between services but does not directly address shadow IT risks related to unauthorized cloud apps.

• D. Enable SSO to the cloud applications: Single sign-on (SSO) simplifies access to cloud apps but does not address the issue of unapproved apps being used in the first place.

Therefore, A. Deploy a CASB is the most comprehensive solution to reduce shadow IT risks in the organization.