CyberArk EPM-DEF Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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EPM-DEF CyberArk Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

Which CyberArk EPM feature should a Helpdesk technician use to provide elevation capabilities to a user whose laptop cannot connect to the Internet to pull EPM policies?

A. Offline Policy Authorization Generator
B. Elevate Trusted Application If Necessary
C. Just In Time Access and Elevation
D. Loosely Connected Devices Credential Management

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

In this scenario, the key issue is that the user’s laptop cannot connect to the Internet to pull the required EPM (Endpoint Privilege Management) policies, but the Helpdesk technician needs to provide remote elevation capabilities to the user. The most relevant feature in CyberArk EPM to handle this situation is the Offline Policy Authorization Generator (A).

Here’s why A is the correct answer and why the other options are not:

Option A – Offline Policy Authorization Generator:
This feature in CyberArk EPM is specifically designed for situations where a device cannot connect to the Internet or the CyberArk central server. It allows a Helpdesk technician to generate offline policy authorization files that can be transferred to the device, enabling it to grant the necessary elevation capabilities locally without needing an active connection to the central EPM server. This feature is crucial for environments where devices are temporarily disconnected or have limited connectivity, making it the best choice for this scenario.

Option B – Elevate Trusted Application If Necessary:
This feature automatically elevates trusted applications when necessary. While it is useful for ensuring that trusted applications can run with the appropriate privileges, it does not address the problem of remote assistance or providing elevation when a laptop cannot connect to the network. Therefore, B is not the right solution for this specific problem of offline policy application.

Option C – Just In Time Access and Elevation:
Just In Time (JIT) access is a security measure that grants users elevated privileges for a limited period of time. This allows for a more controlled and secure elevation process. However, JIT access typically requires the system to be connected to the CyberArk system to request and receive temporary elevation rights. In this case, the user’s laptop cannot connect to the network, making C unsuitable for this situation.

Option D – Loosely Connected Devices Credential Management:
This feature helps manage credentials for devices that are not continuously connected to the network but may still require access to privileged credentials. While useful for credential management on devices with intermittent connections, this feature does not provide the same level of immediate elevation control as the Offline Policy Authorization Generator. Therefore, D does not fully address the need for elevation capabilities in the scenario described.

In summary, A is the most appropriate choice because it is designed to handle situations where a laptop cannot connect to the central EPM server, allowing the Helpdesk technician to provide the required elevation capabilities offline.

Question No 2:

Which user or group will not be removed as part of CyberArk EPM's Remove Local Administrators feature?

A Built-in Local Administrator
B Domain Users
C Admin Users
D Power Users

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

CyberArk Endpoint Privilege Manager (EPM) provides functionality to manage and control user privileges, particularly in the context of local administrator accounts. One of the key features of CyberArk EPM is its ability to remove or restrict local administrator privileges from users or groups in order to enhance security and prevent unauthorized access to critical systems.

To understand which user or group will not be removed when this feature is used, let’s examine each option:

A Built-in Local Administrator: The Built-in Local Administrator account is a special system account that is typically created during the installation of the operating system. This account has full administrative privileges on a local computer and is critical to the functioning of the system. It is designed to remain in place to ensure the system is not locked out in the event of a misconfiguration or failure of other administrative accounts. Because of its essential role in system management and recovery, CyberArk EPM’s Remove Local Administrators feature will not remove or disable this account.
B Domain Users: The Domain Users group consists of all users that are part of a specific domain. These users may have different privilege levels depending on their role within the organization, but they typically do not have administrative access unless explicitly granted. Domain Users would be removed from the local administrators group if they were added to it, as part of CyberArk EPM’s effort to minimize the number of privileged accounts on a local system.
C Admin Users: Admin Users are typically users with administrative privileges on the system, whether they are local or domain administrators. If these users are added to the local administrators group, CyberArk EPM would remove them to follow the principle of least privilege and reduce unnecessary administrative access to systems.
D Power Users: Power Users are users who have some administrative rights but do not possess full administrative privileges like the local administrator. They are considered more restricted than full admins but still have more privileges than regular users. CyberArk EPM will likely remove Power Users from local administrative groups if they are found there, as part of the effort to tighten security by limiting the number of accounts with excessive privileges.

In conclusion, A Built-in Local Administrator is the correct answer because this account is a vital system account that is essential for recovery and maintenance. CyberArk EPM will leave this account intact to prevent system issues. On the other hand, all the other user groups (Domain Users, Admin Users, Power Users) may have their local administrator privileges revoked as part of the feature’s functionality to reduce security risks associated with excessive user permissions.

Question No 3:

An end user is reporting that an application requiring administrative rights is crashing when selecting a certain menu item. The application is part of an advanced elevate policy and is working correctly except when using that menu item.

What could be the EPM cause of the error?

A. The Users defined in the advanced policy do not include the end user running the application.
B. The Advanced: Time options are not set correctly to include the time that the user is running the application at.
C. The Elevate Child Processes option is not enabled.
D. The Specify permissions to be set for selected Services on End-user Computers is set to Allow Start/Stop.

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

The issue described in the scenario suggests that the application is designed to require elevated administrative rights and is controlled via an advanced elevate policy. When the end user attempts to select a certain menu item, the application crashes, even though it otherwise functions correctly. This points to a configuration issue with the elevated permissions or access control defined within the policy.

Let’s break down the possible causes:

A. This is the correct answer. If the users defined in the advanced policy do not include the end user running the application, the end user will not have the proper permissions to execute certain actions, which could explain the crash when selecting a specific menu item. The advanced elevate policy would be set up to grant administrative rights to specific users, and if the user is not included in this list, the application may not be able to execute properly when trying to access the menu option requiring elevated permissions. This would lead to the application crashing.
B. While the Advanced: Time options being misconfigured could cause problems, such as if the policy is set to apply at certain times of day and not during the time the user is attempting to run the application, this is less likely to be the root cause. Time-based restrictions would generally prevent access to the application entirely, rather than causing a crash when a specific menu item is selected. Therefore, this is an unlikely cause for the crash described in the scenario.
C. The Elevate Child Processes option being disabled could be a possible cause if the application spawns child processes that also require elevated rights. If the Elevate Child Processes option is not enabled, these child processes might not inherit the necessary permissions, leading to a crash. However, the scenario indicates that the problem occurs when selecting a specific menu item, not when the application is spawning child processes. Hence, this option is a less likely cause of the error.
D. The setting "Specify permissions to be set for selected Services on End-user Computers" being set to Allow Start/Stop typically applies to services, not to the application itself. While misconfiguring service permissions could lead to issues with certain service-related actions, it is less likely to directly cause the application to crash during the selection of a menu item. This is therefore not the most likely cause of the issue described in the scenario.

In conclusion, the most probable cause of the error is that the users defined in the advanced policy do not include the end user running the application. If the user is not part of the policy granting the required administrative rights, the application may crash when attempting to execute actions that require those elevated privileges. Thus, option A is the correct answer.

Question No 4:

Which setting in the agent configuration controls how frequently the agent sends events to the EPM Server?

A Event Queue Flush Period
B Heartbeat Timeout
C Condition Timeout
D Policy Update Rate

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

This question is asking about the configuration setting that determines how often an agent sends events to an Enterprise Performance Management (EPM) server. To understand this, it's important to break down the various settings listed and identify which one is responsible for controlling the frequency of event transmission.

A Event Queue Flush Period refers to the time interval at which the agent flushes its event queue, meaning it sends collected events to the EPM server. The agent accumulates events during operation, and when the flush period is reached, it sends those events to the server. This setting directly influences the frequency with which events are transmitted, making it the correct answer. If you want to control how often events are sent, adjusting the Event Queue Flush Period is the right approach.

B Heartbeat Timeout is related to the time interval between periodic heartbeats sent from the agent to the server. These heartbeats are used to check the agent's status, ensuring that it is still active and connected. However, heartbeats are not related to the transmission of event data, so this setting does not control the frequency of event transmission.

C Condition Timeout refers to the time period before the agent considers a specific condition to be timed out or invalid. This could be used in certain event-related contexts but is more focused on the agent's behavior under specific conditions, not the sending of events. As such, it does not control the frequency of event transmission to the EPM server.

D Policy Update Rate defines how often the agent checks for and applies any updates to its policy configuration. While this is important for ensuring that the agent operates with the most up-to-date settings, it does not directly influence how frequently the agent sends events to the server.

Therefore, the correct setting for controlling how often the agent sends events to the EPM server is the Event Queue Flush Period, which determines the interval for event transmission based on the accumulation of events in the queue.

Question No 5:

Which of the following application options can be used when defining trusted sources?

A Publisher, Product, Size, URL
B Publisher, Name, Size, URI
C Product, URL, Machine, Package
D Product, Publisher, User/Group, Installation Package

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When defining trusted sources in the context of software installation and security, certain attributes are used to identify and verify the authenticity of applications, ensuring that they come from reliable and secure origins. Among the options presented, Product, Publisher, User/Group, and Installation Package are commonly used to define trusted sources. Here’s why each of these elements is relevant:

Product: This refers to the specific application or software product being installed. Defining the product ensures that only recognized and authorized software is allowed to run on the system.
Publisher: The publisher is the entity that has created or distributed the software. Establishing trust with a publisher guarantees that the software is from a legitimate source. The publisher’s digital signature or certificate is often used to verify authenticity.
User/Group: This refers to the users or groups on the system that are allowed to install or execute the software. By restricting installation based on user/group permissions, you limit the access of software to trusted personnel or roles, thus adding an additional layer of security.
Installation Package: This is the actual file or package containing the software. Defining trusted installation packages ensures that only verified and secure software packages are used to install or upgrade the application, preventing the execution of malicious code.

Now, let’s look at the other options:

A. Publisher, Product, Size, URL: While the publisher and product are key components in defining trusted sources, size and URL are less reliable when it comes to validating software security. Size alone cannot guarantee the integrity of the software, and URLs can change or be spoofed.
B. Publisher, Name, Size, URI: Similarly to option A, while publisher and name are useful for identifying trusted sources, size and URI (Uniform Resource Identifier) are not strong indicators of trust. Size can be easily altered, and a URI alone does not ensure the authenticity of the source.
C. Product, URL, Machine, Package: While product, machine, and package are relevant to defining trusted sources, URL is not an ideal measure for determining trustworthiness. URLs can be spoofed or redirected to malicious sites, which undermines their reliability in the context of trusted sources.

In summary, the combination of Product, Publisher, User/Group, and Installation Package in option D is the most robust method for defining trusted sources. These attributes help ensure the legitimacy of the software and the security of the system, making D the best answer.

Question No 6:

What EPM component is responsible for communicating password changes in credential rotation?

A. EPM Agent
B. EPM Server
C. EPM API
D. EPM Discovery

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

In the context of Enterprise Password Management (EPM) systems, the component responsible for communicating password changes during credential rotation is the EPM Agent. The EPM Agent is a crucial part of the EPM ecosystem because it actively monitors and manages password changes for various systems and applications. It ensures that when passwords are rotated or updated, the new credentials are propagated to all relevant systems, ensuring consistency and security.

Password rotation refers to the practice of regularly changing passwords to reduce the risks associated with credential theft or misuse. In an EPM system, when credentials are rotated, the EPM Agent is responsible for ensuring that these updated credentials are communicated to the target systems, applications, and services that rely on them for authentication. This process often involves integrating with a wide variety of systems, including databases, network devices, and cloud platforms. The agent functions as a bridge, facilitating communication between the EPM Server and these systems to ensure that password changes are applied across all necessary platforms.

Let’s review the other components and their roles to clarify why they are not the correct answers:

B. EPM Server: The EPM Server is the central component that manages the overall enterprise password management system. While it controls policies, schedules, and the overarching configuration of password management tasks, it does not directly communicate password changes to target systems. It is more of a coordinator, while the EPM Agent handles the execution of changes.
C. EPM API: The EPM API allows integration between the EPM system and other applications or services, enabling external systems to interact with the password management platform. While it facilitates communication and can be involved in credential management, it is not the component responsible for directly executing or communicating password changes to systems. The API provides a way for external systems to request or interact with password management functions, but the actual rotation is still handled by the EPM Agent.
D. EPM Discovery: EPM Discovery is used for identifying and discovering applications, systems, or assets that require password management. It scans the network and identifies systems that need to be incorporated into the password management process. While it plays an important role in mapping out what needs to be managed, it does not directly handle the communication of password changes during credential rotation.

Thus, the EPM Agent is the key component that actively performs the task of ensuring that password changes, such as during a rotation, are communicated to and reflected across the necessary systems and applications. Without the EPM Agent, password changes would not be consistently propagated, leaving systems vulnerable to security risks. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Question No 7:

An EPM Administrator would like to notify end users whenever the Elevate policy is granting users elevation for their applications. Where should the EPM Administrator go to enable the end-user dialog?

A End-user UI in the left panel of the console
B Advanced, Agent Configurations
C Default Policies
D End-User UI within the policy

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

To enable end-user notifications, particularly regarding the Elevate policy (which is typically associated with allowing higher privileges for certain applications), the EPM (Endpoint Privilege Management) Administrator needs to configure settings that will prompt end users when an elevation is granted. This allows users to be notified about the elevation process, helping them understand when and why their applications are being granted higher privileges.

Option A, the End-user UI in the left panel of the console, refers to the user interface that might be visible in the administration console, but it doesn't specifically pertain to setting up the notification for elevation events. This section would likely deal with general settings and user interaction, but not specific to elevating privileges or notifying users.

Option B, Advanced, Agent Configurations, would be a place to configure agent-level settings and might include more complex configurations related to the agent's functionality. However, this area typically focuses on the backend or technical setup of agents, not directly on enabling notifications for end users about specific actions like elevation.

Option C, Default Policies, refers to predefined policies that can be set within the EPM system. While this area is essential for overall policy management, it doesn't specifically focus on enabling the user dialogs that alert end users to the elevation of their privileges. This section would define the general rules, but you would need to specify the behavior for notifications elsewhere.

The correct option is D, End-User UI within the policy. This is where the EPM Administrator would configure the settings to notify end users about the elevation of their privileges when the Elevate policy is in effect. The "End-User UI" refers to the specific settings within a policy that control the dialog boxes or notifications shown to users during the elevation process. This is the place to enable or modify the notification dialog that informs users whenever they are granted elevated privileges for their applications, providing transparency and allowing users to understand why such actions are being taken.

Thus, D is the most appropriate choice for achieving the goal of notifying end users when an Elevate policy grants elevation to applications.

Question No 8:

What is CyberArk's recommended FIRST rollout strategy for securing privileged access?

A Implement Application Control
B Implement Privilege Management
C Implement Threat Detection
D Implement Ransomware Protection

Answer: B

Explanation:

CyberArk, a leading provider of privileged access management solutions, focuses on securing high-risk accounts and preventing unauthorized access to critical systems. The company provides a strategic approach to implementing their solutions, with an emphasis on minimizing risk through strong governance of privileged credentials, access, and activities.

The correct answer is B. Implement Privilege Management is typically the first step recommended in CyberArk's rollout strategy. Privilege management involves controlling and monitoring access to sensitive systems, applications, and data based on the principle of least privilege. This means granting users the minimum level of access necessary to perform their jobs, which reduces the attack surface for malicious actors or insiders. CyberArk emphasizes the need to secure and manage privileged accounts (such as administrator or root accounts) because they provide powerful access to critical infrastructure, making them a prime target for attackers.

Privilege Management helps organizations control access to these high-risk accounts, enforce granular access policies, and monitor the activities of users with elevated privileges. By implementing this strategy first, organizations can effectively limit the potential damage caused by compromised accounts and provide foundational security measures for their environments. Once the foundation of privilege management is in place, other components like application control, threat detection, and ransomware protection can be implemented in a layered approach.

Now, let’s review why the other options are not the best first step:

A. Implement Application Control: Application control is an important security measure that restricts which applications can execute within an environment. However, this should be done after securing privileged accounts, as attackers often exploit privileged accounts to run unauthorized applications. While application control reduces the potential attack surface, it does not address the risk of privileged account misuse, which is a more critical starting point.
C. Implement Threat Detection: Threat detection is crucial for identifying and responding to security incidents. However, it is not the best starting point because without proper privilege management, it may be difficult to detect and respond to threats in the first place. Privileged account misuse is often the primary avenue for many attacks, so securing these accounts should be prioritized over detecting threats.
D. Implement Ransomware Protection: Ransomware protection is vital, but it’s also more of a specific defensive measure. Protecting against ransomware involves strategies like backups, network segmentation, and endpoint protection. However, without first securing privileged accounts and implementing strong privilege management, attackers may still be able to execute ransomware attacks by leveraging compromised credentials.

Therefore, B is the best choice. CyberArk recommends starting with privilege management to ensure that privileged accounts are well-secured before expanding to other cybersecurity measures, creating a solid foundation for further protection.

Question No 9:

What setting should an EPM Administrator configure to include a particular file extension to be monitored and protected under Ransomware Protection?

A Authorized Applications (Ransomware Protection)
B Files to be Ignored Always
C Anti-tampering Protection
D Default Policies

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

To include a specific file extension in the Ransomware Protection settings, the EPM Administrator needs to configure the Authorized Applications (Ransomware Protection) setting. This setting allows administrators to specify which file extensions or applications are to be monitored and protected by the ransomware protection mechanisms. When certain files are designated as authorized, the system can apply additional security measures to detect and prevent ransomware activities affecting those files.

The Authorized Applications (Ransomware Protection) setting is specifically designed to allow users to whitelist applications or file types that should be actively protected from ransomware attacks. This ensures that ransomware protection can be focused on files with a specific extension that is deemed vulnerable or important for the system’s security.

Option B, Files to be Ignored Always, refers to a setting where files are excluded from the protection and monitoring processes, which is the opposite of what is needed in this case. Files ignored by this setting would not receive the protection needed for ransomware detection.

Option C, Anti-tampering Protection, is related to preventing malicious tampering with security settings or configurations but does not specifically address file extension monitoring under ransomware protection. It focuses on maintaining the integrity of the security solution itself, rather than on adding specific file extensions to be monitored.

Option D, Default Policies, refers to the baseline security policies that are applied to the system, but it does not directly allow administrators to customize the monitoring or protection of specific file types under ransomware protection. While default policies provide a general level of protection, they are not typically used for adding specific file extensions for monitoring.

Therefore, the correct setting to configure in this case is A, Authorized Applications (Ransomware Protection). By adding the file extension to this setting, the EPM Administrator can ensure that files with the specified extension are actively monitored and protected from ransomware threats.

Question No 10:

When deploying EPM and in the Privilege Management phase, what is the purpose of Discovery?

A. To identify all non-administrative events
B. To identify all administrative level events
C. To identify both administrative and non-administrative level events
D. To identify non-administrative threats

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

The Privilege Management phase of deploying Enterprise Privilege Management (EPM) focuses on monitoring, controlling, and securing the privileged access to critical systems and data within an organization. One of the first and essential steps in this phase is Discovery, which is used to gather detailed information about user activities and events related to system access.

In the Discovery phase, the goal is to identify both administrative and non-administrative level events. This process helps administrators to understand the full scope of actions being taken on systems, including both activities performed by privileged users (administrators) and those by standard users (non-administrators). The objective of identifying both sets of events is to build an accurate and comprehensive picture of the system’s usage patterns, potential vulnerabilities, and areas that need more stringent control or monitoring.

Let’s break down the options:

Option A (To identify all non-administrative events): This is incorrect because Discovery does not focus solely on non-administrative events. While understanding non-administrative user activity is important, it’s not the sole focus of this phase.
Option B (To identify all administrative level events): This option is partially correct but too narrow. While identifying administrative events is critical, Discovery also looks at non-administrative events to establish a complete understanding of how users interact with the system.
Option C (To identify both administrative and non-administrative level events): This is the correct answer. Discovery involves identifying events at both administrative and non-administrative levels to ensure comprehensive visibility over system access and potential risks. By understanding both user categories, security teams can properly configure privileges, detect misuse, and enforce least privilege principles.
Option D (To identify non-administrative threats): This is incorrect because Discovery is not solely focused on threats. It is about gathering data on events, both administrative and non-administrative, in order to identify usage patterns, not specifically to identify threats at this stage.

Thus, C is the correct answer because it aligns with the comprehensive approach of Discovery, which includes gathering information on both administrative and non-administrative events in the Privilege Management phase.