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JN0-231 Juniper Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

Which two criteria should a zone-based security policy include? (Choose two.)

A. a source port
B. a destination port
C. zone context
D. an action

Answer: C, D

Explanation:

In a zone-based security policy, the primary goal is to define rules that control traffic between different security zones in a network. The key criteria that should be considered when setting up a zone-based security policy include both zone context and action:

• Zone Context (C): The zone context refers to the definition of different security zones within the network. A zone-based security policy primarily operates by associating interfaces with specific zones and defining how traffic should be handled between these zones. This means traffic from one zone to another must be explicitly allowed or denied according to security policy rules. A zone context ensures that traffic flows are monitored and regulated correctly based on the zones to which interfaces belong.

• Action (D): The action in a zone-based security policy defines what to do with the traffic that matches the defined rules. Common actions include allowing or denying the traffic. The action is critical because it dictates the behavior of the firewall or security device when traffic matches a policy rule. Without defining an action, the policy would have no effect on how the traffic is handled.

On the other hand:

• Source Port (A): While source and destination ports can be part of security policies in specific cases (especially in more granular firewall rules), they are not necessarily required for the basic structure of a zone-based security policy. A zone-based policy is more focused on controlling traffic between zones, not specifically filtering traffic based on port numbers.

• Destination Port (B): Similarly, destination ports can be part of specific rules but are not a fundamental criterion for a zone-based security policy. These would typically be specified in access control lists (ACLs) or in more detailed firewall rules, but zone-based security policies focus more on the broader concept of traffic control between different security zones, rather than individual ports.

In conclusion, the two criteria that a zone-based security policy should include are zone context (C) and action (D), as they define the overall structure and behavior of the traffic control between security zones.

Question No 2:

You are assigned a project to configure SRX Series devices to allow connections to your webservers. The webservers have a private IP address, and the packets must use NAT to be accessible from the Internet. You do not want the webservers to initiate connections with external update servers on the Internet using the same IP address as customers use to access them. 

Which two NAT types must be used to complete this project? (Choose two.)

A. static NAT
B. hairpin NAT
C. destination NAT
D. source NAT

Answer: A, D

Explanation:

When configuring NAT (Network Address Translation) for webservers that need to be accessible from the Internet, but you want to avoid the situation where the servers initiate connections using the same public IP that customers use to reach them, there are two specific types of NAT that should be applied.

• A. Static NAT: Static NAT is used to map a private IP address (like that of a webserver) to a specific public IP address. This ensures that the webserver is consistently reachable using the same public IP. Static NAT is essential when you want to make sure that external customers can always access the webserver using the same IP, and that the webserver’s private IP is hidden. This type of NAT is the primary solution to allow external access to webservers without any address translation changes for incoming traffic.

• D. Source NAT: Source NAT (SNAT) is required to handle outbound traffic from the webservers when they initiate connections to the internet. In your case, you do not want the webservers to use the same public IP address that external users use to access the webservers. By applying source NAT, the webserver’s private IP will be translated to a different public IP address when it initiates connections to external servers (like update servers). This ensures that the webservers do not use the same public IP address for both incoming and outgoing traffic, providing better separation and security.

The other options are less relevant for this specific scenario:

• B. Hairpin NAT: Hairpin NAT (also known as NAT loopback) allows a device inside a network (like your webserver) to access itself using the public IP address. This is useful when a client within the network tries to access a server using the public IP address. However, hairpin NAT is not necessary in this case because you do not want the webservers to initiate connections using the same IP address that customers use to access them. Therefore, this type of NAT does not directly apply to the problem at hand.

• C. Destination NAT: Destination NAT (DNAT) is typically used when you need to translate the destination IP address for inbound connections (e.g., to map a public IP address to the private IP of a webserver). In your case, you do need DNAT to translate incoming traffic from external customers to the internal webservers. However, DNAT alone will not handle the scenario of preventing the webserver from using the same IP for outbound traffic. Therefore, source NAT (SNAT) is needed in conjunction with DNAT to properly manage both inbound and outbound traffic.

In summary, static NAT (for consistent mapping of the webserver's private IP to a public IP) and source NAT (to ensure the webservers use a different public IP for outgoing connections) are the correct NAT types for this project. Therefore, the correct answers are A and D.

Question No 3:

Which command will provide you with the required information to verify that a license for AppSecure is installed on an SRX Series device?

A. user@srx> show system license
B. user@srx> show services accounting
C. user@srx> show configuration system
D. user@srx> show chassis firmware

Answer: A

Explanation:

When managing SRX Series devices, you may need to verify the installation and status of licenses, including for AppSecure, which provides advanced security features like AppFW, AppTrack, and AppQoS. To check the license status for AppSecure and other licensed features on the device, the appropriate command must be used.

Let’s analyze the options:

A. show system license:
This is the correct command. The show system license command displays the status of installed licenses, including information about the AppSecure license if it is installed on the device. It will show which features are licensed and provide details such as the license type, expiration date, and other relevant information for features like AppSecure, allowing you to verify that the license is installed and active.

B. show services accounting:
This command provides information about accounting and logging for network services, typically focused on monitoring and tracking usage of services like firewall and VPN. It does not provide any direct information about licenses, especially not for AppSecure.

C. show configuration system:
The show configuration system command is used to display the system configuration of the device, such as settings for interfaces, routing, system services, and other aspects of device operation. However, it does not provide information related to the status or installation of licenses, including AppSecure.

D. show chassis firmware:
This command provides information about the firmware versions of the device's chassis components (such as the hardware and system software). While important for troubleshooting hardware-related issues, it does not provide any details about licenses or AppSecure installation.

In conclusion, to verify that the AppSecure license is installed on an SRX Series device, the correct command to use is A. show system license, as it directly provides the licensing information for the device’s features.

Question No 4:

Referring to the exhibit, a user is placed in which hierarchy when the exit command is run?

A. [edit security policies from-zone trust to-zone dmz]
B. [edit]
C. [edit security policies]
D. user@vSRX-1>

Answer: C

Explanation:

The command exit in Junos OS is used to move out of the current configuration hierarchy and back to a higher level within the configuration tree. Based on the exhibit and the context of the exit command, let's break down the sequence of events and the expected result:

• The command shown is [edit security policies from-zone trust to-zone dmz] in option A. This indicates that the user is currently in the configuration context for security policies, specifically between the trust and dmz zones.

• When the exit command is run from this level, it will take the user one level up in the hierarchy, which would be [edit security policies]. This is the parent configuration context under the security policies section, where global security policies are defined.

• Moving further up, if the user exits again, they would reach the [edit] context, which is the highest-level edit mode in Junos configuration.

Now let’s review the options:

• A. [edit security policies from-zone trust to-zone dmz]: This is the current hierarchy the user is in when the exit command is run. This would not be the result of running the exit command; instead, it’s where the user starts.

• B. [edit]: This would be the result if the user executed exit twice, but it is not the immediate result of the first exit command.

• C. [edit security policies]: This is the immediate hierarchy after running the exit command from [edit security policies from-zone trust to-zone dmz]. The exit command will move the user one level up, landing them in the [edit security policies] context.

• D. user@vSRX-1>: This is the operational mode prompt, not the configuration mode prompt. The exit command does not move the user directly from the configuration mode to operational mode unless it is issued multiple times, or the user explicitly exits configuration mode by using the quit command.

Question No 5:

SRX Series devices have a maximum of how many rollback configurations?

A. 40
B. 60
C. 50
D. 10

Answer: C

Explanation:

Juniper SRX Series devices support a maximum of 50 rollback configurations. This means that the device can retain up to 50 previous configuration states, allowing administrators to revert to earlier versions of the configuration if necessary. This feature is particularly useful in maintaining and managing network configurations, as it provides a history of changes that can be rolled back in case of issues or errors.

The rollback feature is part of Juniper's Junos operating system, which allows for easy management of configurations by providing the ability to "rollback" to a previous state. By default, a device maintains a history of changes made to the configuration, and these can be accessed through the rollback command. The rollback history is stored in a series of numbered slots, with the most recent configuration being stored as rollback 0.

• A. 40: This option is incorrect as SRX devices do not have a maximum of 40 rollback configurations.

• B. 60: This option is also incorrect because the maximum number of rollback configurations is not 60.

• D. 10: This option is not accurate for SRX devices, as they support up to 50 rollback configurations, not just 10.

In conclusion, 50 rollback configurations is the correct maximum number of rollback configurations supported by SRX Series devices.

Question No 6:

Unified threat management (UTM) inspects traffic from which three protocols? (Choose three.)

A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. HTTP
E. SSH

Answer: A, B, and D

Explanation:

Unified Threat Management (UTM) is a comprehensive security solution that combines multiple security features such as firewall, intrusion detection and prevention, antivirus, and content filtering, all into a single device or service. It is designed to protect networks from a variety of threats, and it inspects traffic across different protocols to detect and mitigate potential security risks. The UTM typically inspects the traffic for protocols commonly used in network communication, especially those that are vulnerable to threats such as malware, phishing, or unauthorized access.

Let's explore why A, B, and D are correct:

1. A. FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
   FTP is a widely used protocol for transferring files over a network. Because FTP can be a vector for malware, data exfiltration, or unauthorized file access, UTM devices inspect FTP traffic for potential threats. UTMs typically monitor and filter FTP traffic to prevent security breaches, such as file-based malware, and to ensure secure file transfers.

2. B. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
   SMTP is the protocol used to send emails across the internet. Since email is one of the most common attack vectors, UTMs inspect SMTP traffic for malicious attachments, spam, and phishing attempts. By filtering SMTP traffic, a UTM helps prevent malicious emails from reaching users and potentially infecting their systems or stealing sensitive information.

3. D. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
   HTTP is the protocol used for web traffic. UTM systems often include web filtering capabilities, which scan HTTP traffic for malware, phishing websites, and other web-based threats. Given the prevalence of web-based attacks, such as drive-by downloads and malicious scripts, HTTP traffic inspection is a key function of UTM devices to ensure network security.

Now, let’s look at why C and E are incorrect:

4. C. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
   While SNMP is an important protocol for network management, it is not typically the primary protocol inspected by a UTM. SNMP is used for monitoring network devices like routers, switches, and servers, and UTM systems usually focus more on traffic related to communication, email, and web services. However, SNMP traffic may be inspected indirectly as part of network management or monitoring activities, but it is not a primary target of UTM inspection.

5. E. SSH (Secure Shell)
   SSH is a protocol used for secure remote access to systems, typically over an encrypted connection. While UTM systems may have some ability to inspect SSH traffic for potential malicious activity, such as brute force attacks or tunneling of other malicious protocols, SSH traffic is typically encrypted, which makes deep inspection challenging. In many cases, UTM systems focus more on protocols like HTTP, FTP, and SMTP that are more likely to carry visible threats.

In summary, FTP, SMTP, and HTTP are the primary protocols that UTM systems focus on inspecting because they are common vectors for network-based attacks. UTM devices typically perform traffic analysis, filtering, and blocking of potential threats from these protocols to ensure network security. Therefore, the correct answers are A, B, and D.

Question No 7:

When are Unified Threat Management services performed in a packet flow?

A. before security policies are evaluated
B. as the packet enters an SRX Series device
C. only during the first path process
D. after network address translation

Answer: B

Explanation:

In a packet flow through a security device like the SRX Series, Unified Threat Management (UTM) services are typically performed as the packet enters the device. This is because UTM encompasses various security services such as antivirus scanning, intrusion prevention systems (IPS), web filtering, and anti-spam, which are applied to packets early in the inspection process to prevent malicious traffic from entering the network.

• Option A suggests performing UTM before security policies are evaluated. However, security policies typically need to be evaluated first to determine if the traffic should be allowed or blocked, so UTM services are not performed before policy evaluation.

• Option B is correct because UTM services are integrated directly into the initial stages of the packet inspection as soon as it enters the SRX device. The packet is scanned for potential threats before it is subjected to deeper security policies or other routing/processing steps.

• Option C implies that UTM services are only performed during the first path process. While UTM is part of the initial inspection path, its evaluation does not stop at the first path; it is continuously applied throughout the packet flow as necessary.

• Option D places UTM services after network address translation (NAT). While NAT is important for modifying the packet's headers (such as IP addresses), UTM services typically occur before or alongside NAT to inspect the packet thoroughly for any threats before being routed or translated.

Therefore, B, "as the packet enters an SRX Series device," is the correct answer, as this aligns with the typical packet flow and threat detection process in UTM implementations.

Question No 8:

When configuring antispam, where do you apply any local lists that are configured?

A. custom objects
B. advanced security policy
C. antispam feature-profile
D. antispam UTM policy

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When configuring antispam on security appliances or within email security systems, local lists such as blacklists and whitelists are typically used to help filter out unwanted emails or allow specific emails to pass through. These local lists are a crucial part of spam filtering to improve the accuracy of the antispam system.

Here’s a breakdown of each option:

• A. custom objects: This option is incorrect. Custom objects typically refer to specific user-defined data structures, and they are not directly related to antispam configurations. Local lists for antispam are not applied via custom objects.

• B. advanced security policy: This option is incorrect. An advanced security policy is typically used to configure general security settings on a network or device, such as intrusion prevention, VPN settings, and overall threat management. While it might include some antispam features, it is not specifically the place where local lists are applied.

• C. antispam feature-profile: This is correct. The antispam feature-profile is where you apply and configure local lists (such as whitelists, blacklists, or custom URL filters) within the antispam system. These profiles define how the antispam features should handle specific email messages, based on the local lists configured by the administrator. This is the location where the local lists are actively used to filter incoming and outgoing email traffic.

• D. antispam UTM policy: This option is incorrect. UTM (Unified Threat Management) policies typically combine multiple security features, including firewall, antivirus, and antispam, into a unified policy. While antispam policies are part of UTM, the local lists specifically belong to the antispam feature-profile. UTM policies provide a higher-level, overarching structure, and the local lists themselves are applied within the specific antispam feature-profile.

In conclusion, C (antispam feature-profile) is the correct answer because it is the dedicated section where local lists (like blacklists and whitelists) are applied and utilized within antispam configurations, ensuring the system properly filters out unwanted spam or permits legitimate emails.

Question No 9:

Screens on an SRX Series device protect against which two types of threats? (Choose two.)

A. IP spoofing
B. ICMP flooding
C. zero-day outbreaks
D. malicious e-mail attachments

Correct answers: A, B

Explanation:

The SRX Series devices from Juniper Networks are designed to provide high-performance security with advanced threat detection and mitigation. One key feature of these devices is screens, which are specialized security filters designed to protect against specific types of attacks. Screens can help mitigate various security threats, and the two most relevant ones in this context are:

• A (IP spoofing): IP spoofing occurs when an attacker sends packets with a fake source IP address in order to disguise the origin of the traffic or impersonate another system. The SRX Series devices' screens can protect against IP spoofing by ensuring that packets are only accepted if their source addresses are valid and match the expected characteristics for the network. This is crucial for preventing various attacks, including Denial-of-Service (DoS) attacks that rely on spoofed IP addresses.

• B (ICMP flooding): ICMP flooding is a type of Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack in which the attacker sends a large number of ICMP Echo Request (ping) packets to overwhelm a network device or host, causing it to become unresponsive. The SRX Series screens can help defend against ICMP flooding by filtering and controlling the rate at which ICMP packets are accepted, ensuring the system doesn't become overwhelmed by this type of attack.

Now, let’s analyze the other options:

• C (zero-day outbreaks): Zero-day outbreaks refer to attacks that exploit previously unknown vulnerabilities in software or systems, before a patch or fix is available. While the SRX Series devices provide protection against various threats, including intrusion detection and prevention, zero-day outbreaks typically require more advanced capabilities like signature-based or behavioral detection systems that can identify unusual patterns or unknown exploits. Screens are more focused on filtering traffic based on predefined rules and conditions, making them less effective against zero-day outbreaks. Thus, C is not the correct choice for screens.

• D (malicious e-mail attachments): Malicious e-mail attachments are usually handled by email security solutions and antivirus software, not by network-level security devices like the SRX Series. While the SRX can protect against network-based attacks, such as those that exploit vulnerabilities or conduct flooding, protecting against malicious attachments in emails is outside the scope of what the SRX screens are designed to handle. Hence, D is not correct.

In summary, A (IP spoofing) and B (ICMP flooding) are the correct answers because the SRX Series screens are specifically designed to protect against these types of network threats.