NCP-US v6.5 Nutanix Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps


Question No 1:

An IT administrator is preparing to upgrade all ESXi hypervisors in a VMware cluster that is actively hosting Nutanix File Server Virtual Machines (FSVMs). The administrator intends to use the one-click upgrade method provided by Nutanix for this task. Given the role of FSVMs in managing file services and ensuring high availability, certain pre-upgrade steps are required to maintain service continuity and avoid upgrade failures.

Which of the following actions must the administrator perform prior to initiating the one-click hypervisor upgrade process to ensure a successful and uninterrupted upgrade?

A. Enable the anti-affinity rules on all FSVMs.
B. Manually migrate the FSVMs.
C. Disable the anti-affinity rules on all FSVMs.
D. Shut down the FSVMs.

Correct Answer: C. Disable the anti-affinity rules on all FSVMs

Explanation:

When using Nutanix’s one-click upgrade feature to update ESXi hypervisors in a cluster, there are specific pre-requisites related to VM placement and cluster rules that must be observed—especially in environments running critical services like Nutanix Files, which relies on File Server Virtual Machines (FSVMs).

Anti-affinity rules in VMware prevent specified virtual machines from running on the same host. These rules are generally used for FSVMs to ensure high availability—so that if one host fails, the file services remain available from other hosts. However, during a one-click hypervisor upgrade, each host in the cluster is taken offline sequentially to perform the upgrade. If anti-affinity rules remain enabled, FSVMs cannot be migrated or restarted on the host scheduled for upgrade because the rules will block their movement, resulting in either upgrade failure or service interruption.

To avoid such issues, disabling the anti-affinity rules for FSVMs temporarily before initiating the upgrade is mandatory. This allows the Nutanix orchestration layer to safely migrate FSVMs to available hosts without being constrained by anti-affinity rules, ensuring that file services remain available and uninterrupted throughout the upgrade process.

Other options are incorrect:

  • Option A (Enable anti-affinity rules): This is generally already the case and doesn't help with upgrades—in fact, it causes issues during them.

  • Option B (Manually migrate FSVMs): Manual intervention isn't required or ideal; the upgrade process is automated.

  • Option D (Shutdown FSVMs): Shutting down would lead to a complete loss of file services, which is not acceptable during an upgrade.

Therefore, Option C is the correct and necessary step.

Question No 2:

In Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering, what are the minimum and maximum object size limitations for objects to be eligible for automatic tiering across storage classes?

A. 64 KiB minimum and 15 TiB maximum
B. 64 KiB minimum and 5 TiB maximum
C. 128 KiB minimum and 15 TiB maximum
D. 128 KiB minimum and 5 TiB maximum

Correct Answer: D. 128 KiB minimum and 5 TiB maximum

Explanation:

Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering is a storage class designed to optimize storage costs automatically when data access patterns change. It is ideal for data with unknown or unpredictable access patterns. S3 Intelligent-Tiering automatically moves data between two access tiers: frequent and infrequent access, based on access patterns.

However, for S3 Intelligent-Tiering to function effectively, certain file size requirements must be met:

  • Minimum Object Size: 128 KiB

  • Maximum Object Size: 5 TiB

Minimum Size – 128 KiB

The minimum object size for automatic tiering is 128 KiB. If an object is smaller than 128 KiB, it will remain in the frequent access tier and will not be transitioned to the infrequent access tier, even if it's not accessed frequently. This threshold is in place to ensure that the cost of moving small objects does not outweigh the savings gained from tiering.

Maximum Size – 5 TiB

The maximum object size that S3 supports (including for Intelligent-Tiering) is 5 TiB. This is a general Amazon S3 object size limit and applies across all storage classes. Objects larger than 5 TiB cannot be uploaded in S3 and hence are not applicable for any tiering.

Therefore, only objects between 128 KiB and 5 TiB are eligible for automatic cost-optimized tiering in S3 Intelligent-Tiering.

Understanding these limits is essential when designing storage solutions in AWS, as storing smaller files in Intelligent-Tiering may result in unnecessary costs due to tiering fees without gaining the benefits of automatic storage tiering.

Question No 3:

Which of the following is a critical prerequisite when setting up and deploying Smart Disaster Recovery (Smart DR) in a file server environment?

A. Smart DR deployment requires a one-to-many file share configuration.
B. Both primary and recovery file servers must be assigned the same domain name.
C. TCP port 7515 must be open on all client-facing network IPs, with unidirectional communication allowed from the source to the recovery file servers.
D. The system must include a minimum of three file servers within the Files Manager.

Correct Answer: C. TCP port 7515 must be open on all client-facing network IPs, with unidirectional communication allowed from the source to the recovery file servers.

Explanation:

Smart Disaster Recovery (Smart DR) is a feature designed to provide automated, policy-driven file replication and failover capabilities for enterprise file servers. It ensures high availability and business continuity by enabling seamless file system recovery in the event of outages or disasters. For Smart DR to function correctly, specific network and infrastructure prerequisites must be met.

One of the most critical requirements for deploying Smart DR is the configuration of network communication between the primary (source) and recovery (target) file servers. This involves ensuring that TCP port 7515 is open for communication, specifically in a unidirectional manner — from the source file server to the recovery file server. This port is used by Smart DR for data replication and metadata synchronization processes. If this port is not open or improperly configured, replication will fail, rendering the Smart DR functionality inoperative.

Let’s analyze the other options:

  • Option A (One-to-many shares): While Smart DR supports flexible configurations, a one-to-many share setup is not a strict prerequisite. Smart DR can also operate in one-to-one or many-to-one setups depending on business requirements.

  • Option B (Same domain name): The source and recovery servers do not need to have the same domain name. They just need proper network visibility and trust relationships for authentication and access control.

  • Option D (Minimum three file servers): There is no mandatory requirement for three file servers. Smart DR can function with just two — a source and a recovery server.

Therefore, Option C is the correct prerequisite, as the opening of TCP port 7515 is a technical necessity for Smart DR’s file replication and disaster recovery capabilities to operate successfully. Ensuring proper firewall configurations and IP accessibility is a fundamental first step in the deployment process.

Question No 4:

When deploying File instances in a cloud or virtualized environment, which two of the following are the minimum system resource requirements that must be met on each host? (Select two options.)

A. 12 GiB of RAM per host
B. 8 virtual CPUs (vCPUs) per host
C. 4 virtual CPUs (vCPUs) per host
D. 8 GiB of RAM per host

Correct Answers:

C. 4 virtual CPUs (vCPUs) per host
D. 8 GiB of RAM per host

Explanation:

When deploying file service instances—such as those used in cloud storage environments, virtualized infrastructure, or enterprise storage systems—it's essential to allocate sufficient system resources to ensure stable and efficient operation. File instances are specialized virtual machines (VMs) or containers designed to provide access to network-attached storage (NAS) or similar file-sharing services. These instances typically handle multiple read and write operations and must be configured to meet the platform’s minimum hardware requirements.

In most deployment environments, the minimum required resources for running file instances effectively include at least 4 virtual CPUs (vCPUs) and 8 GiB of memory (RAM) per host. These resources ensure that the file instance can handle basic I/O tasks, metadata operations, file locking mechanisms, and serve client requests without performance degradation.

  • 4 vCPUs per host (Option C): This is generally considered the minimum CPU resource allocation for a file instance. It ensures the system can handle concurrent processes such as file reads/writes, directory indexing, and data caching efficiently.

  • 8 GiB of RAM per host (Option D): Memory is critical for file caching, buffering I/O operations, and storing metadata. Without at least 8 GiB of RAM, the file instance may become sluggish, especially under moderate load.

On the other hand:

  • Option A (12 GiB of RAM per host) and Option B (8 vCPUs per host) represent configurations that exceed the minimum and might be recommended for high-performance or production-level workloads but are not the minimum requirements. These higher specifications are often adopted in environments where scalability, redundancy, or high throughput is needed.

In summary, to meet the baseline deployment requirements for file instances, each host must be provisioned with at least 4 vCPUs and 8 GiB of memory. This ensures reliable performance and operational stability in most standard environments.

Question No 5:

An IT administrator managing a Nutanix cluster environment notices that users are unable to access shared files and folders. Upon investigation, it appears that the file server services are down, impacting the availability of the file services across the network. To resolve this issue and restore file access, the administrator needs to determine which specific background service should be examined to identify the root cause of the problem.

Which of the following services is primarily responsible for managing file server functionality in a Nutanix cluster and should be investigated first?

A. cassandra
B. insights_collector
C. minerva_nvm
D. sys_stats_server

Correct Answer: C. minerva_nvm

Explanation:

In a Nutanix cluster, various services run in the background to support core functionality including storage management, analytics, monitoring, and file services. When file server functionality goes down, understanding which service governs this aspect of the infrastructure is critical for rapid troubleshooting and resolution.

The correct service to investigate in this scenario is minerva_nvm, which is a core component of Nutanix Files (formerly known as Acropolis File Services or AFS). Nutanix Files provides scalable file storage services, similar to traditional file servers, and is integrated into the Nutanix environment. The minerva_nvm service specifically manages the underlying file server nodes and handles the orchestration of file services.

Let's briefly look at the other options to clarify why they are not correct:

  • A. cassandra – This service handles metadata and state information across the cluster, especially for the Acropolis Distributed Storage Fabric. While important, it's not directly responsible for file services.

  • B. insights_collector – This is used for collecting telemetry and operational data for support and proactive monitoring. It does not affect file server operations directly.

  • D. sys_stats_server – This service is responsible for gathering and reporting system statistics for performance and health monitoring. While useful for diagnostics, it is not directly tied to the file server services.

When file services go offline, the administrator should check the health and status of the minerva_nvm service using Prism (Nutanix’s management interface) or command-line tools. Restarting or investigating this service can often reveal issues such as misconfigurations, resource shortages, or communication problems between file server nodes.

Thus, in the event of file server downtime, focusing on the minerva_nvm service is the correct first step in troubleshooting and resolving the issue efficiently.

Question No 6:

In Nutanix Unified Storage architecture, which feature provides a centralized monitoring and analytics solution that allows administrators to gain visibility into storage usage, capacity trends, and operational health across all Files deployments globally?

A. Files Manager
B. Data Lens
C. Nutanix Cloud Manager
D. File Analytics

Correct Answer: B. Data Lens

Explanation:

Nutanix Unified Storage is a modern software-defined storage platform that consolidates file, object, and block storage into a single solution. One of its core components is Nutanix Files, which is a distributed file storage service built into the Nutanix platform. As enterprise environments scale and deploy multiple file servers across various locations, monitoring and managing these deployments centrally becomes increasingly important.

This is where Data Lens comes into play.

Data Lens is a powerful cloud-based tool integrated into the Nutanix ecosystem. It provides global visibility and monitoring capabilities for all Nutanix Files deployments across different clusters and geographies. It helps administrators track usage patterns, detect anomalies, and optimize storage capacity, all from a single centralized interface.

Key Features of Data Lens:

  • Global File Analytics: Data Lens collects telemetry data from multiple Nutanix Files instances, enabling organizations to have a consolidated view of file activity across all deployments.

  • Usage Monitoring: It offers detailed reports on storage usage, data growth trends, and capacity planning, making it easier to manage resources efficiently.

  • Security and Compliance: Data Lens helps detect and alert on abnormal file access patterns, which can indicate insider threats or ransomware activity. It also supports data governance and compliance auditing.

  • User Activity Monitoring: It provides insights into user behaviors, such as which files are accessed, by whom, and when.

  • Centralized Dashboard: Admins can access all analytics through a unified web-based dashboard, simplifying operations across large enterprise environments.

Why Not the Other Options?

  • A. Files Manager: This is a local management interface for individual Nutanix Files deployments. It does not offer centralized or global monitoring.

  • C. Nutanix Cloud Manager: While useful for infrastructure and operations management (like capacity and automation), it is not specific to file-level analytics.

  • D. File Analytics: This provides insights into a single Nutanix Files deployment, focusing more on file-level statistics and access behavior, but not at a global scale.

For organizations running multiple Nutanix Files deployments, Data Lens offers a critical advantage by delivering centralized, cloud-based monitoring and analytics. This capability ensures that storage administrators can maintain optimal performance, security, and capacity planning across their entire file storage landscape.

Question No 7:

In the context of designing storage solutions for performance-sensitive applications that rely heavily on sequential input/output (I/O) operations, 

Which of the following criteria should be given the highest priority when evaluating the performance characteristics of file shares?

A. Number of concurrent connections
B. Input/Output Operations Per Second (IOPS)
C. Throughput (MB/s)
D. Block size used in data transfers

Correct Answer: C. Throughput (MB/s)

Explanation:

When evaluating storage performance for applications that primarily perform sequential I/O operations, the most critical metric to focus on is throughput, measured in megabytes per second (MB/s) or gigabytes per second (GB/s). Sequential I/O refers to the reading or writing of data in a continuous, ordered fashion, such as streaming media, large file transfers, or database backups.

Throughput represents the total volume of data that can be transferred per second and directly impacts how quickly large blocks of sequential data can be moved to or from storage. This is distinct from IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second), which measures how many discrete read/write operations a system can handle in a second. While IOPS is crucial for applications with high volumes of small, random I/O operations (e.g., OLTP databases), it is less significant in scenarios dominated by large, continuous data streams.

Let’s consider a media rendering application that processes multi-gigabyte video files. In this case, the speed at which the application can sequentially read or write those files to a shared storage system will dictate overall performance. A storage solution optimized for high throughput will allow the application to access these large datasets more efficiently, resulting in better performance and shorter job completion times.

Block size also plays a role in I/O performance but is more of a tuning parameter than a primary performance indicator. Larger block sizes are typically more efficient for sequential I/O, but they don’t fundamentally define the system’s capacity to move data—that’s determined by throughput.

Connections, while relevant for scalability and concurrent access, are also not the primary concern in performance-sensitive, sequential I/O workloads. A system may handle many connections, but without sufficient throughput, performance will still suffer.

In summary, for performance-sensitive applications with sequential I/O patterns, throughput is the key metric to prioritize. It ensures the system can sustain high-speed, large-block data transfers, which is essential for maintaining application responsiveness and processing efficiency.

Question No 8:

An administrator is tasked with performing an upgrade to the latest version of Objects in a system. What steps should the administrator take prior to upgrading the Object Manager to ensure the upgrade is successful?

A. Upgrade Objects service
B. Upgrade AOS
C. Upgrade MSP
D. Upgrade Lifecycle Manager

Correct Answer: B. Upgrade AOS

Explanation:

Before upgrading Object Manager, it is essential to understand the dependencies and proper sequence of steps involved in ensuring a smooth upgrade process. The Object Manager, which is a key component for managing the lifecycle of objects in a system, typically interacts with various other services and systems like AOS (Application Object Server), MSP (Managed Service Provider), and Lifecycle Manager. The following steps provide a comprehensive approach to upgrading an Object Manager:

1. Upgrading AOS (Application Object Server):

The Application Object Server (AOS) plays a central role in facilitating communication between clients and servers in an enterprise environment, particularly for systems like Microsoft Dynamics AX or other similar enterprise resource planning (ERP) solutions. AOS is responsible for processing business logic, interacting with the database, and serving client requests.

Upgrading AOS before upgrading the Object Manager is crucial because AOS is directly tied to how objects are processed and managed within the system. If the AOS is not compatible with the new version of Objects or if it hasn't been updated, there might be compatibility issues, leading to system downtime or functional errors when the Object Manager is upgraded. Therefore, ensuring that AOS is upgraded to the latest version is the first step to maintaining system stability and ensuring that the Object Manager operates optimally post-upgrade.

2. Upgrading MSP (Managed Service Provider):

The MSP is typically a framework or service provider responsible for managing various services and components within the system. While it plays an important role in managing services like databases, backup systems, or application monitoring, it is not necessarily a prerequisite to upgrading the Object Manager itself. However, it’s important to ensure that MSP components are compatible with the new version of Object Manager once AOS is upgraded.

3. Upgrading Objects Service:

The Objects service refers to the specific service responsible for managing object storage, handling object creation, updates, and deletions. While upgrading the Objects service might be part of the upgrade process, it is not the first step. The AOS needs to be upgraded first to ensure that the underlying application layer is ready for the new version of Objects.

4. Upgrading Lifecycle Manager:

The Lifecycle Manager is responsible for managing the lifecycle of objects, including their creation, modification, and deletion, as well as maintaining version control. While this component may need an upgrade eventually, it is not as critical as AOS when preparing for an Object Manager upgrade. Upgrading Lifecycle Manager can be done after ensuring that AOS is upgraded and the system is stable.

The first step in upgrading Object Manager should be upgrading the AOS (Application Object Server). This ensures that the underlying application layer and business logic components are in sync with the new Object Manager version. Only after this step should the administrator proceed to upgrade other components like MSP, the Objects service, and Lifecycle Manager. Upgrading these components out of sequence can lead to system errors, data inconsistencies, or service interruptions. Therefore, upgrading AOS is a critical prerequisite before upgrading the Object Manager.

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