Fortinet NSE5_FAZ-7.2 Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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NSE5_FAZ-7.2 Fortinet Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

Which two statements are correct regarding the export and import of playbooks? (Choose two.)

A. You can import a playbook even if there is another one with the same name in the destination.
B. Playbooks can be exported and imported only within the same FortiAnalyzer device.
C. You can export only one playbook at a time.
D. A playbook that was disabled when it was exported will be disabled when it is imported.

Correct answer: A and D

Explanation:

A. You can import a playbook even if there is another one with the same name in the destination: This is true because FortiAnalyzer allows importing a playbook even if another playbook with the same name already exists. The system typically handles this by appending a unique identifier or prompting the user to decide how to handle the conflict (e.g., overwrite or rename).
D. A playbook that was disabled when it was exported will be disabled when it is imported: This is true because the state of the playbook (enabled or disabled) is preserved during the export and import process. If the playbook was disabled when it was exported, it will remain in the same disabled state upon import to the destination.

Now, let's examine why the other options are incorrect:

B. Playbooks can be exported and imported only within the same FortiAnalyzer device: This is incorrect because FortiAnalyzer allows for exporting and importing playbooks between different FortiAnalyzer devices, not just within the same device. This facilitates sharing configurations across multiple devices.
C. You can export only one playbook at a time: This is incorrect because FortiAnalyzer allows exporting multiple playbooks at once. You can select and export multiple playbooks together if needed.

In conclusion, A and D are the correct answers because they accurately describe how playbooks can be imported and exported while preserving their names and state.

Question No 2:

A playbook contains five tasks in total. An administrator runs the playbook and four out of five tasks finish successfully, but one task fails. What will be the status of the playbook after it is run?

A. Running
B. Failed
C. Upstream_failed
D. Success

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

In Ansible, a playbook's overall status depends on the status of its tasks. Here's an explanation of what happens in different cases:

Option A: Running

The status of "Running" typically indicates that the playbook is still in the process of executing and hasn't yet completed. In this case, since the playbook has already been run and some tasks have completed, it cannot be in the "Running" state. It’s either finished successfully, failed, or has encountered some issues.

Option B: Failed

This is the most likely option in this scenario. When a playbook has multiple tasks, it’s important to know how Ansible handles task failures. By default, if one task fails in a playbook and the --fail-on-errors option is not used, the playbook will continue running the remaining tasks. However, Ansible reports the status of the entire playbook as Failed if at least one task fails. Since four tasks were successful and one task failed, the playbook will ultimately be considered failed overall.

Option C: Upstream_failed

This status typically occurs in specific use cases, such as when a task in a dependent workflow fails. It usually refers to a task in a "dependent" or "upstream" context, often in workflows that are running multiple playbooks or jobs. This is not the default behavior for a standard playbook run where tasks are executed sequentially.

Option D: Success

The playbook status will not be considered "Success" unless all tasks complete successfully. Since one of the tasks failed, the playbook cannot be considered to have completed successfully.

Given that one of the five tasks failed, the overall status of the playbook will be reported as Failed. Therefore, Option B: Failed is the correct answer.

Question No 3:

Which statement about the FortiSIEM management extension is correct?

A. Allows you to manage the entire life cycle of a threat or breach.
B. Its use of the available disk space is capped at 50%.
C. It requires a licensed FortiSIEM supervisor.
D. It can be installed as a dedicated VM.

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

The FortiSIEM management extension is designed to enhance the capabilities of the FortiSIEM platform by providing extended management features. Let's break down the options:

A. Allows you to manage the entire life cycle of a threat or breach.
While FortiSIEM provides comprehensive security information and event management (SIEM) functionality, the management extension itself is not necessarily designed to manage the entire life cycle of a threat or breach. This responsibility is more aligned with FortiSIEM as a whole, not specifically with the management extension. Hence, this statement is not entirely correct.
B. Its use of the available disk space is capped at 50%.
There is no typical or default setting where the FortiSIEM management extension has a cap of 50% on available disk space. Disk space management can depend on the system's configuration and needs. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
C. It requires a licensed FortiSIEM supervisor.
While FortiSIEM relies on a supervisor for management, the management extension itself does not specifically require a licensed supervisor. The supervisor manages FortiSIEM as a whole, but the management extension does not directly require a licensed supervisor in the strictest sense.
D. It can be installed as a dedicated VM.
This statement is correct. The FortiSIEM management extension can indeed be installed as a dedicated virtual machine (VM). This allows for flexible deployment and resource management, as it operates independently or alongside other FortiSIEM components.

Thus, D is the correct answer as it accurately describes the installation capabilities of the FortiSIEM management extension.

Correct answer: D

Question No 4:

Which two statements are true regarding the outbreak detection service? (Choose two.)

A. New alerts are received by email.
B. Outbreak alerts are available on the root ADOM only.
C. An additional license is required.
D. It automatically downloads new event handlers and reports.

Correct answer: A, C

Explanation:

The outbreak detection service is a powerful feature in many security platforms, used to detect and respond to large-scale incidents or attacks such as malware outbreaks. Let's break down the correct answers:

A. New alerts are received by email:
This statement is correct. Outbreak detection services typically send alerts via email to notify administrators about any significant event or outbreak, ensuring they are quickly informed and can take the necessary actions to mitigate the threat. Alerts help ensure timely response and monitoring.
B. Outbreak alerts are available on the root ADOM only:
This statement is incorrect. Outbreak alerts are generally available across all ADOMs (Administrative Domains) in the system, not just the root ADOM. The root ADOM may hold the primary configuration, but outbreak detection and alerts can be configured and viewed in any relevant ADOM, depending on the system setup.
C. An additional license is required:
This statement is correct. The outbreak detection service may be an advanced feature that requires an additional license in many security platforms. Without this license, outbreak detection and the related services, such as advanced alerts and reports, might not be available.
D. It automatically downloads new event handlers and reports:
This statement is incorrect. While security platforms may include automatic updates for threat intelligence or definitions, the outbreak detection service does not automatically download event handlers and reports by default. Event handlers are typically part of a manual configuration or update process that administrators manage, rather than an automatic update triggered by the outbreak detection feature.

Thus, A and C are the correct answers, as they accurately reflect how the outbreak detection service typically operates in these environments.

Question No 5:

What must you consider when using log fetching? (Choose two.)

A. The fetch client can retrieve logs from devices that are not added to its local Device Manager.
B. You can use filters to include only logs from a single device.
C. The fetching profile must include a user with the Super_User profile.
D. The archive logs retrieved from the server become archive logs in the client.

Correct answer: B, D

Explanation:

When using log fetching, there are key factors to consider regarding how logs are handled and what permissions or setups are required for the fetch process.

B. You can use filters to include only logs from a single device.
This is important because filtering allows you to specify which logs should be retrieved based on criteria such as device type, severity, or time. This helps in focusing on logs relevant to your investigation or task without overwhelming the system with unnecessary data.
D. The archive logs retrieved from the server become archive logs in the client.
When logs are fetched from a server, the logs are often moved into an archive state to ensure that they are preserved for long-term storage. Once they are retrieved, they maintain this archived status on the client side, ensuring that the logs are not overwritten or lost and remain accessible for analysis or compliance purposes.

Now, let's break down why the other options are incorrect:

A. The fetch client can retrieve logs from devices that are not added to its local Device Manager.
This is generally not true for most log fetching setups, where the fetch client typically requires the devices to be added to its local Device Manager to ensure proper integration, permissions, and log retrieval. This option doesn't align with standard log-fetching requirements.
C. The fetching profile must include a user with the Super_User profile.
This is not necessarily required in all cases. While having administrative permissions can simplify the process, a Super_User profile is not always a mandatory requirement for log fetching. The user only needs the appropriate permissions for accessing and retrieving logs, which can be assigned without Super_User access.

In summary, when setting up log fetching, it’s essential to filter logs as needed (Option B) and understand that the retrieved logs will be archived in the client system (Option D).

Question No 6:

Which statement describes a dataset in FortiAnalyzer?

A. They determine what data is retrieved from the database.
B. They provide the layout used for reports.
C. They are used to set the data included in templates.
D. They define the chart types to be used in reports.

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

In FortiAnalyzer, datasets play a crucial role in determining which data is retrieved from the underlying database for analysis and reporting purposes. A dataset essentially defines a set of data that can be used to generate reports, graphs, and other analytical insights within the system.

A. They determine what data is retrieved from the database is the correct answer. Datasets in FortiAnalyzer define the specific data that is pulled from the database based on set criteria. This allows users to query and retrieve relevant information for creating reports and analysis, which are critical for monitoring and maintaining security infrastructure. The data selection process is managed through these datasets, enabling efficient and customized reporting.

B. They provide the layout used for reports is incorrect. The layout of reports is typically handled separately, using templates and other formatting tools within FortiAnalyzer. Datasets are focused on the data retrieval aspect rather than how that data is presented in the reports.

C. They are used to set the data included in templates is partially correct but not the best answer. While datasets can be linked to templates in FortiAnalyzer, their primary function is to define the data retrieved from the database, not to directly set the data in templates. Templates are used to organize and present the data in a specific format, but the datasets determine what data is available to be included in those templates.

D. They define the chart types to be used in reports is incorrect. The chart types used in reports (such as bar charts, line graphs, etc.) are defined separately in the reporting configuration and templates. Datasets do not define the visual presentation of the data, but instead, they specify which data should be included in the reports.

In summary, datasets in FortiAnalyzer are responsible for determining what data is retrieved from the database, which is essential for accurate and effective reporting and analysis.

Question No 7:

How many events will be added to the incident created after running this playbook?

A. Thirteen events will be added.
B. Five events will be added.
C. No events will be added.
D. Ten events will be added.

Explanation:

To determine the number of events added to an incident after running a playbook, we would typically need to examine the specific configuration and actions within the playbook. Playbooks are automation workflows designed to address security incidents, and they often include steps that generate or aggregate events, log actions, or trigger additional tasks.

A (Thirteen events will be added): If the playbook is designed to involve several actions or checks, it might generate multiple events, but without seeing the exact details of the playbook, it's hard to confirm if thirteen is the correct number.
B (Five events will be added): This would suggest that the playbook is designed to add five specific events to the incident, which could be a realistic number if there are a few key actions being executed within the playbook.
C (No events will be added): If the playbook doesn’t generate new events or is focused only on response actions without logging, this could be possible. However, most playbooks are designed to produce at least some event data.
D (Ten events will be added): This could be another possible answer depending on the scope of the playbook, as it might generate several events as part of the response and incident handling.

Based on typical playbook configurations, it's common for incidents to generate several events, but the exact number will depend on the complexity of the playbook. Given that the number of events in playbooks can vary, without specific details, D seems a reasonable answer.

Thus, the correct answer is D.

Question No 8:

What does the data point at 12:20 indicate?

A. The performance of FortiAnalyzer is below the baseline.
B. FortiAnalyzer is using its cache to avoid dropping logs.
C. The log insert lag time is increasing.
D. The sqlplugind service is caught up with new logs.

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

In this scenario, the data point at 12:20 likely reflects a situation where FortiAnalyzer is using its cache to avoid dropping logs. This is a common event in log management systems when the device is either underperforming or there is a temporary delay in processing incoming logs.

B. FortiAnalyzer is using its cache to avoid dropping logs: When log processing systems like FortiAnalyzer are unable to process logs fast enough (due to system load, resource constraints, or other issues), they may temporarily store logs in memory or cache. This ensures that logs are not lost, even though they are not immediately written to disk. The point at 12:20 likely indicates that FortiAnalyzer had to use its cache as a safeguard against log loss.

Now, let's review the other options:

A. The performance of FortiAnalyzer is below the baseline: While it's possible that this could be a result of system stress, the use of cache typically suggests that the device is trying to manage load, rather than performing poorly overall. "Below the baseline" usually indicates overall performance degradation, which may not be the direct cause of cache usage.
C. The log insert lag time is increasing: Log insert lag time refers to the delay between when logs are generated and when they are inserted into the FortiAnalyzer. This could be related to cache use, but the specific description of cache use at 12:20 suggests a more immediate action to prevent log drops, rather than a rising lag time.
D. The sqlplugind service is caught up with new logs: This option is less likely because it implies the service has caught up with log processing, which is a different situation from using a cache to temporarily store logs due to a backlog.

In summary, the most likely interpretation of the data point at 12:20 is that FortiAnalyzer is using its cache to avoid dropping logs, which is typically done when the system faces delays or high log input rates. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Question No 9:

You created a playbook on FortiAnalyzer that uses a FortiOS connector. When configuring the FortiGate side, which type of trigger must be used so that the actions in an automation stitch are available in the FortiOS connector?

A. FortiAnalyzer Event Handler
B. Incoming webhook
C. Fabric Connector event
D. FortiOS Event Log

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

When configuring a playbook on FortiAnalyzer that utilizes a FortiOS connector, it is essential to set up the correct trigger in FortiGate to ensure the actions in the automation stitch are available in the FortiOS connector. The FortiOS connector facilitates communication between FortiGate and FortiAnalyzer, enabling the use of automation and playbook execution based on specific events or conditions.

Let's analyze each option:

A. FortiAnalyzer Event Handler: The FortiAnalyzer Event Handler is a part of FortiAnalyzer and is used to handle events that occur within the FortiAnalyzer system. However, this is not directly related to triggering automation on the FortiGate side. It is more relevant to how events are processed within FortiAnalyzer, not how FortiGate communicates with the FortiOS connector.
B. Incoming webhook: An incoming webhook is a way to receive data from external sources to trigger actions in the system. While webhooks are useful for triggering events based on external systems, they are not specifically designed for triggering actions within FortiOS connectors in this context. This would be more applicable in scenarios where external systems trigger the playbook.
C. Fabric Connector event: Fabric Connector events are designed to integrate FortiGate with the broader Fortinet Security Fabric. These events allow FortiGate devices to communicate with other components of the Fortinet ecosystem, including FortiAnalyzer. When you configure a Fabric Connector event, it enables FortiGate to trigger actions based on specific events, which can then be utilized by the FortiOS connector for the playbook automation. This is the correct choice as it directly relates to triggering automation actions in FortiOS and is a key method for facilitating automation in this scenario.
D. FortiOS Event Log: The FortiOS Event Log records logs and events from FortiGate devices. While these logs can be important for monitoring and diagnostics, they do not directly trigger automation stitches or playbook actions. Event logs are typically used for reviewing events, not for triggering automation.

Therefore, the correct trigger to use in this case is the Fabric Connector event, as it enables integration between FortiGate and FortiAnalyzer and allows the automation actions to be available in the FortiOS connector.

Question No 10:

Which FortiAnalyzer feature allows you to use a proactive approach when managing your network security?

A. Outbreak alert services
B. FortiView Monitor
C. Threat hunting
D. Incidents dashboard

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

FortiAnalyzer is a powerful tool used in the Fortinet security ecosystem that helps organizations manage and monitor network security events. It provides various features to help organizations stay ahead of security threats. Let's break down the options:

A. Outbreak alert services: This feature notifies administrators about potential threats or outbreaks in the network, but it is more reactive than proactive. It alerts after an issue has been detected, rather than helping prevent future incidents or identifying threats before they cause harm. This is a response mechanism rather than a proactive approach.
B. FortiView Monitor: This feature provides real-time visibility into network traffic and security events, offering detailed insights into what’s happening within the network. While this is helpful for monitoring ongoing activity, it is not as proactive as threat hunting. It is more of a monitoring tool, providing insights and visibility into security data but not actively searching for unknown threats.
C. Threat hunting: Threat hunting is the process of proactively searching for potential threats or vulnerabilities within a network before they can cause damage. This feature allows security professionals to actively look for signs of malicious activity, anomalous behavior, or weaknesses that could lead to future breaches. It is a core proactive approach to network security because it helps identify and mitigate threats before they become active incidents.
D. Incidents dashboard: The incidents dashboard provides a centralized view of security incidents, helping security teams track and manage events as they occur. It focuses more on organizing and responding to incidents rather than preventing them. While this is useful for response and management, it is a reactive feature rather than a proactive one.

Therefore, the feature that allows for a proactive approach to managing network security in FortiAnalyzer is C. Threat hunting, as it involves actively searching for and mitigating potential threats before they impact the network.