• Home
• Fortinet Exams
• NSE6_FWF-6.4 - Fortinet NSE 6 - Secure Wireless LAN 6.4

NSE6_FWF-6.4 Fortinet Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question 1

Which two statements about distributed automatic radio resource provisioning (DARRP) are correct? (Choose two.)

A. DARRP performs continuous spectrum analysis to detect sources of interference. It uses this information to allow the AP to select the optimum channel.
B. DARRP performs measurements of the number of BSSIDs and their signal strength (RSSI). The controller then uses this information to select the optimum channel for the AP.
C. DARRP measurements can be scheduled to occur at specific times.
D. DARRP requires that wireless intrusion detection (WIDS) be enabled to detect neighboring devices.

Answers: A and B

Explanation:

Distributed Automatic Radio Resource Provisioning (DARRP) is a wireless technology that helps optimize the radio frequency (RF) environment by continuously evaluating the network's wireless conditions. This allows access points (APs) to select optimal channels and transmission power settings to improve network performance and minimize interference.

Let's evaluate each option:

Option A – DARRP performs continuous spectrum analysis to detect sources of interference. It uses this information to allow the AP to select the optimum channel.

 Correct.
DARRP continuously analyzes the spectrum (radio frequency environment) to detect sources of interference, such as overlapping signals from neighboring devices. This spectrum analysis allows the access points (APs) to dynamically select the best channel to minimize interference and maximize performance. This process is essential in automated radio resource management.

Option B – DARRP performs measurements of the number of BSSIDs and their signal strength (RSSI). The controller then uses this information to select the optimum channel for the AP.

 Correct.
DARRP also collects data about the number of BSSIDs (Basic Service Set Identifiers) and their signal strength (RSSI). This information is vital for assessing the wireless network's environment and helps the controller or AP decide on the best channel to reduce interference and ensure efficient use of spectrum.

Option C – DARRP measurements can be scheduled to occur at specific times.

 Incorrect.
DARRP typically operates continuously or dynamically. The goal of DARRP is to perform real-time analysis to adjust the radio resources in an automated manner, rather than performing measurements at specific scheduled times. Scheduled measurements would not align with the dynamic nature of interference and changes in the wireless environment that DARRP aims to address.

Option D – DARRP requires that wireless intrusion detection (WIDS) be enabled to detect neighboring devices.

 Incorrect.
DARRP does not necessarily require wireless intrusion detection (WIDS). While WIDS can be useful for detecting security threats and rogue devices, DARRP is focused on optimizing the radio resources (channels and power levels) for performance, not security. It can function independently of WIDS, as its main goal is radio resource optimization.

The correct answers are A and B, as they accurately describe how DARRP works by performing spectrum analysis and measuring BSSID signal strength to select optimal channels.

Question 2

Which factor is the best indicator of wireless client connection quality?

A. Downstream link rate, the connection rate for the AP to the client
B. The receive signal strength (RSS) of the client at the AP
C. Upstream link rate, the connection rate for the client to the AP
D. The channel utilization of the channel the client is using

Answer: B

Explanation:

When evaluating the quality of a wireless client connection, several factors can influence performance. These factors primarily focus on the signal strength and the data rate between the client and the access point (AP), but one factor stands out as the best indicator for connection quality: the receive signal strength (RSS).

Let’s break down each option to explain why RSS is the best indicator:

Option A – Downstream link rate, the connection rate for the AP to the client

 Incorrect.
The downstream link rate refers to the speed at which data is transferred from the AP to the client. While this can impact the client’s perceived performance (especially for downloading), it does not necessarily reflect connection quality. The link rate can vary due to other factors, such as signal interference, channel congestion, or distance between the client and the AP. The downstream rate is important for throughput but does not directly indicate the overall connection quality in terms of signal integrity.

Option B – The receive signal strength (RSS) of the client at the AP

 Correct.
RSS is the signal strength received by the access point from the client, which directly impacts the connection quality. A higher RSS indicates a stronger signal, which typically means better connection quality. If the RSS is weak, the connection may experience higher interference, packet loss, and reduced data rates. Therefore, RSS is a crucial indicator of how well the client can communicate with the AP and reflects the strength and stability of the connection.

Option C – Upstream link rate, the connection rate for the client to the AP

 Incorrect.
While the upstream link rate (client to AP) is important for understanding the client’s ability to send data, it does not directly indicate connection quality. Similar to the downstream link rate, the upstream link rate can be affected by various factors like interference or client mobility. It's a factor in overall performance but does not fully capture the strength or quality of the wireless connection.

Option D – The channel utilization of the channel the client is using

 Incorrect.
Channel utilization refers to how much of the available wireless channel is being used by the devices. While high channel utilization can indicate network congestion and might affect performance, it doesn’t directly measure the quality of the connection between a client and an AP. A channel might be heavily used, but the client could still have a good connection quality if the RSS is high. This factor is more related to the network’s overall load rather than the quality of a particular client’s connection.

The best indicator of a wireless client connection quality is the receive signal strength (RSS), as it directly measures the signal integrity and overall connection stability between the client and the AP. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Question 3

When configuring Auto TX Power control on an AP radio, which two statements best describe how the radio responds? (Choose two.)

A. When the AP detects any other wireless signal stronger than -70 dBm, it will reduce its transmission power until it reaches the minimum configured TX power limit.
B. When the AP detects PF Interference from an unknown source such as a cordless phone with a signal stronger than -70 dBm, it will increase its transmission power until it reaches the maximum configured TX power limit.
C. When the AP detects any wireless client signal weaker than -70 dBm, it will reduce its transmission power until it reaches the maximum configured TX power limit.
D. When the AP detects any interference from a trusted neighboring AP stronger than -70 dBm, it will reduce its transmission power until it reaches the minimum configured TX power limit.

Answer: A and D

Explanation:

Auto TX Power Control is a feature in Access Points (APs) that automatically adjusts the transmit power of the radio to optimize wireless performance. The idea behind Auto TX Power Control is to adjust the AP's power based on various conditions such as interference, neighboring signals, or client needs. The objective is to balance signal strength and avoid unnecessary interference with other devices, while ensuring that clients receive enough signal for a reliable connection.

Let's break down each option:

Option A – When the AP detects any other wireless signal stronger than -70 dBm, it will reduce its transmission power until it reaches the minimum configured TX power limit.

 Correct.
In Auto TX Power control, if the AP detects that another wireless signal (from a neighboring AP or interference) is stronger than -70 dBm, it will reduce its own transmission power. This helps minimize interference between adjacent APs and optimizes the overall wireless environment. The AP will keep lowering its power until it reaches the minimum TX power setting that has been configured. This helps avoid interference from other signals that are too strong.

Option B – When the AP detects PF Interference from an unknown source such as a cordless phone with a signal stronger than -70 dBm, it will increase its transmission power until it reaches the maximum configured TX power limit.

 Incorrect.
This statement is misleading. PF interference (like interference from non-Wi-Fi sources such as a cordless phone) does not trigger an increase in TX power. The purpose of Auto TX Power Control is to reduce power in response to interference or stronger neighboring signals to avoid congestion and interference. If a signal is too strong (whether from a non-Wi-Fi source or another AP), the AP will decrease its power, not increase it.

Option C – When the AP detects any wireless client signal weaker than -70 dBm, it will reduce its transmission power until it reaches the maximum configured TX power limit.

 Incorrect.
The behavior described here is incorrect. When an AP detects a weaker client signal, the AP's TX power is generally increased to try and reach clients that are farther away. The idea is to improve the client’s signal quality and ensure proper communication. Auto TX Power Control will not reduce power in response to weak client signals, as that would worsen the client’s connection. The maximum TX power limit will come into play to prevent excessive transmission.

Option D – When the AP detects any interference from a trusted neighboring AP stronger than -70 dBm, it will reduce its transmission power until it reaches the minimum configured TX power limit.

 Correct.
When the AP detects interference from a trusted neighboring AP (i.e., one in the same network or environment), and the interference is stronger than -70 dBm, the AP will reduce its transmission power. This helps to minimize channel overlap and reduce interference between the APs, ensuring better overall performance for all devices in the area. The AP will reduce its TX power until it reaches the minimum configured TX power limit, to ensure that it doesn’t interfere with other APs or devices.

The two correct answers are A and D. Auto TX Power Control reduces the AP's transmission power in response to strong neighboring signals or interference, thus reducing interference and optimizing performance.

Question 4

Which two statements about background rogue scanning are correct? (Choose two.)

A. A dedicated radio configured for background scanning can support the connection of wireless clients.
B. When detecting rogue APs, a dedicated radio configured for background scanning can suppress the rogue AP.
C. Background rogue scanning requires DARRP to be enabled on the AP instance.
D. A dedicated radio configured for background scanning can detect rogue devices on all other channels in its configured frequency band.

Answer: B and D

Explanation:

Background rogue scanning is a process in which Access Points (APs) use one of their radios to constantly scan for rogue APs and other malicious devices in the network environment. This is essential for maintaining network security and detecting any unauthorized devices that might be attempting to connect to the network or disrupt normal operations. Let’s break down each option:

Option A – A dedicated radio configured for background scanning can support the connection of wireless clients.

 Incorrect.
A dedicated radio used for background scanning is typically not available for client connections. This radio is specifically tasked with scanning for rogue devices and interference. When an AP is configured for rogue scanning, it uses the radio exclusively for that purpose, which means it cannot be used simultaneously for client communication. This allows the AP to continuously monitor the network for any potential threats without disrupting client connections.

Option B – When detecting rogue APs, a dedicated radio configured for background scanning can suppress the rogue AP.

 Correct.
Once a rogue AP is detected during background rogue scanning, the AP can take actions to mitigate the threat. One of these actions is to suppress the rogue AP by sending deauthentication or disassociation frames to prevent the rogue AP from operating within the network. This helps to protect the integrity of the wireless network and ensures that unauthorized devices cannot communicate or disrupt legitimate connections. Background rogue scanning helps to actively detect and neutralize rogue devices in real time.

Option C – Background rogue scanning requires DARRP to be enabled on the AP instance.

 Incorrect.
DARRP (Distributed Automatic Radio Resource Provisioning) is not a requirement for background rogue scanning. DARRP is a feature that helps optimize the radio resources (such as channel selection and power levels) for better performance, but it is not related to rogue detection. Background rogue scanning operates independently and does not require DARRP to function. Instead, rogue scanning focuses on security monitoring, detecting and mitigating unauthorized devices.

Option D – A dedicated radio configured for background scanning can detect rogue devices on all other channels in its configured frequency band.

 Correct.
A radio that is dedicated to background rogue scanning has the ability to monitor all channels within its configured frequency band (e.g., 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz) for rogue devices. It listens to the entire spectrum of channels, identifying any unauthorized APs or devices that might be present on any of those channels. This ensures comprehensive coverage and allows the AP to detect rogue devices that could be broadcasting on different channels within the band, enhancing the overall security of the wireless network.

The correct answers are B and D. A dedicated radio configured for background scanning can detect rogue devices across all channels within its frequency band and can suppress rogue APs when detected, ensuring that the network remains secure.

Question 5

When configuring a wireless network for dynamic VLAN allocation, which three IETF attributes must be supplied by the radius server? (Choose three.)

A. 81 Tunnel-Private-Group-ID
B. 65 Tunnel-Medium-Type
C. 83 Tunnel-Preference
D. 58 Egress-VLAN-Name
E. 64 Tunnel-Type

Answer: A, B, and E

Explanation:

Dynamic VLAN allocation is a process in which a RADIUS server dynamically assigns a VLAN ID to a device when it connects to the network. This is commonly used in wireless networks to ensure that clients are placed in the appropriate VLAN based on user roles or other policies. The RADIUS server must supply several IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) attributes to the network device (such as a wireless controller) to properly configure and assign the correct VLAN for each client.

The required IETF attributes for dynamic VLAN allocation typically include:

Option A – 81 Tunnel-Private-Group-ID

 Correct.
The Tunnel-Private-Group-ID attribute is used to specify the VLAN ID or group ID that should be assigned to the client. This attribute allows the RADIUS server to dynamically assign a specific VLAN to the device based on user authentication or other policies. This is one of the key attributes needed for dynamic VLAN allocation, ensuring that clients are placed in the appropriate network segment.

Option B – 65 Tunnel-Medium-Type

 Correct.
The Tunnel-Medium-Type attribute specifies the type of network medium for the tunnel, which typically indicates whether the tunnel is over Ethernet, PPP, or other network types. In the case of dynamic VLAN allocation, this attribute helps define the network medium that will be used for the tunneling process. It is important for the network device to understand the medium in which the client will be placed, so this attribute must be supplied by the RADIUS server.

Option C – 83 Tunnel-Preference

 Incorrect.
The Tunnel-Preference attribute is not typically required for dynamic VLAN allocation. It is used to specify the preference of the tunnel being created (if multiple tunnels are available), but it is not part of the required attributes for dynamically assigning VLANs. Therefore, this attribute is not necessary for dynamic VLAN assignment.

Option D – 58 Egress-VLAN-Name

 Incorrect.
The Egress-VLAN-Name attribute is not a standard IETF attribute for dynamic VLAN allocation. While some systems may use this attribute for other purposes, it is not a required IETF attribute when configuring VLAN assignment in dynamic VLAN environments. Instead, the Tunnel-Private-Group-ID attribute is typically used to specify the VLAN ID, as mentioned in Option A.

Option E – 64 Tunnel-Type

 Correct.
The Tunnel-Type attribute specifies the type of tunnel being used for the client’s connection. For dynamic VLAN allocation, this attribute is often set to Ethernet to specify that the device will be placed into an Ethernet VLAN. This attribute is important because it helps define how the tunnel will function, and it is necessary for correctly assigning the VLAN to the client.

The correct answers are A, B, and E. These are the three key IETF attributes that the RADIUS server must supply for dynamic VLAN allocation: Tunnel-Private-Group-ID (VLAN assignment), Tunnel-Medium-Type (network medium), and Tunnel-Type (type of tunnel).

Question 6

Which two phases are part of the process to plan a wireless design project? (Choose two.)

A. Project information phase
B. Hardware selection phase
C. Site survey phase
D. Installation phase

Answer: A and C

Explanation:

When planning a wireless design project, it is essential to follow a structured approach to ensure the network is properly designed, implemented, and optimized for the specific environment. The process generally includes several critical phases to ensure a seamless deployment. Let’s look at each phase mentioned and explain why the correct answers are A and C:

Option A – Project information phase

 Correct.
The project information phase is the initial phase of any wireless design project. During this phase, the key objectives and requirements of the project are gathered, including the business goals, expected coverage areas, performance needs, and budget constraints. Information is gathered to understand the environment, such as the number of users, applications to be supported, and security considerations. This foundational phase helps to ensure that the entire project is aligned with the end goals and will guide all subsequent phases of the design and deployment.

Option B – Hardware selection phase

 Incorrect.
While hardware selection is an important part of the overall project, it is typically a part of the implementation phase, not the planning phase. Hardware selection involves choosing the right access points (APs), controllers, antennas, and other components based on the design requirements outlined in the planning phases. However, this selection is based on the information gathered during the project information phase and the insights from the site survey phase, rather than being a separate phase during the initial planning stages.

Option C – Site survey phase

Correct.
The site survey phase is a critical step in the wireless design project. This phase involves physically visiting the site to assess the environment where the wireless network will be deployed. The survey helps identify potential sources of interference, evaluate the building's layout (including materials and structural elements that can affect signal propagation), and determine optimal access point placement. It also includes RF (radio frequency) measurements and coverage analysis to ensure the network will meet performance objectives. This is an essential part of the planning phase because it provides the necessary data to create an accurate and effective wireless network design.

Option D – Installation phase

Incorrect.
The installation phase is part of the deployment process, not the planning phase. In this phase, the hardware selected in the design phase is physically installed, the network components are connected, and the network is configured based on the design created in the earlier planning and survey phases. While it is a crucial phase in the overall project, it comes after the planning and design phases are complete.

The two correct answers are A and C. The project information phase and the site survey phase are integral steps in the planning process of a wireless design project. These phases ensure that the network design is aligned with the requirements and optimized for the physical environment.

Question 7

When enabling security fabric on the FortiGate interface to manage FortiAPs, which two types of communication channels are established between FortiGate and FortiAPs? (Choose two.)

A. Control channels
B. Security channels
C. FortLink channels
D. Data channels

Answer: A and C

Explanation:

When FortiGate is used to manage FortiAPs through the Security Fabric, it establishes several communication channels to facilitate the management and operation of the access points. These channels enable various aspects of the communication, including control, security, and data exchange. Let's review the two correct options in detail:

Option A – Control channels

Correct.
Control channels are established between the FortiGate and the FortiAPs to manage and control the FortiAPs' operations. These channels are used for tasks like configuration updates, monitoring, and overall management of the FortiAPs. The control channels ensure that the FortiGate can send configuration changes, updates, and receive status reports from the FortiAPs. These channels play a key role in the centralized management of FortiAPs.

Option B – Security channels

Incorrect.
While security is a key aspect of the communication between FortiGate and FortiAPs, the term "security channels" is not used to describe any specific type of communication between them. The security of the communication typically relies on protocols like HTTPS or SSH, but the "security channel" term itself is not a distinct communication channel in the context of the FortiGate-FortiAP management process. Therefore, this option is not correct.

Option C – FortLink channels

Correct.
FortLink channels are used to connect FortiAPs to the FortiGate for management purposes. This specialized communication channel is designed to establish a secure link between the FortiAPs and the FortiGate for centralized management. FortLink enables seamless communication between the FortiGate and the FortiAPs for configuration management, firmware updates, and other administrative tasks. This channel is part of the FortiGate’s feature set designed to ensure that access points can be efficiently managed.

Option D – Data channels

Incorrect.
Data channels are used for the actual user data traffic, but they are not specific to the communication established between FortiGate and FortiAPs for management purposes. While FortiAPs forward user data traffic over data channels, these are separate from the communication channels used for management and control. The FortiGate uses control and FortLink channels for management, while data channels are primarily concerned with end-user communication.

The correct answers are A and C. The control channels and FortLink channels are the communication paths used to manage FortiAPs through FortiGate when Security Fabric is enabled. These channels ensure proper management, monitoring, and configuration of the FortiAPs.

Question 8

Part of the location service registration process is to link FortiAPs in FortiPresence. Which two management services can configure the discovered AP registration information from the FortiPresence cloud? (Choose two.)

A. AP Manager
B. FortiAP Cloud
C. FortiSwitch
D. FortiGate

Answer: A and D

Explanation:

When FortiAPs are registered with FortiPresence, they are discovered and their registration information is processed to enable proper configuration and management. The FortiPresence cloud serves as the central point for location-based services and registration, and then certain management services are used to configure and manage the FortiAPs.

Let’s go through the options to explain why A and D are correct:

Option A – AP Manager

Correct.
The AP Manager is the service used for managing and configuring FortiAPs in a network. When FortiAPs are discovered and registered through FortiPresence, the AP Manager can be used to apply configuration settings to these FortiAPs. It provides the necessary tools to manage the wireless network, including configuration changes, monitoring, and policy application. The AP Manager is specifically designed for managing the registration and configuration of FortiAPs.

Option B – FortiAP Cloud

Incorrect.
While FortiAP Cloud can manage FortiAPs and provide cloud-based control, the FortiPresence platform is separate from the cloud management platform for FortiAPs. FortiAP Cloud is not directly involved in the configuration of FortiAP registration information from FortiPresence. Therefore, this is not the best option for configuring the discovered AP registration information.

Option C – FortiSwitch

Incorrect.
The FortiSwitch is a network switch used for managing the switching infrastructure. Although FortiSwitches may work alongside FortiAPs in an overall network setup, they do not play a role in managing or configuring FortiAP registration information in FortiPresence. FortiSwitch is focused on networking and switching capabilities, not on AP management or cloud-based location services.

Option D – FortiGate

Correct.
The FortiGate provides security features and integrates with FortiAPs for management. It can configure and manage FortiAPs registered through the FortiPresence cloud. FortiGate serves as the central security and management platform, capable of handling the configuration and registration of FortiAPs in coordination with FortiPresence. It ensures that the FortiAPs are properly integrated into the overall network and security infrastructure, applying any necessary policies and settings.

Conclusion:

The correct answers are A and D. The AP Manager and FortiGate are both involved in configuring the FortiAP registration information discovered through FortiPresence. The AP Manager directly manages the FortiAPs, while the FortiGate serves as the central platform for configuring the APs within the network security infrastructure.

Question 9

Which two configurations are compatible for Wireless Single Sign-On (WSSO)? (Choose two.)

A. A VAP configured for captive portal authentication
B. A VAP configured for WPA2 or 3 Enterprise
C. A VAP configured to authenticate locally on FortiGate
D. A VAP configured to authenticate using a radius server

Answer: B and D

Explanation:

Wireless Single Sign-On (WSSO) is a feature that allows users to authenticate once and be granted access to multiple services or networks without needing to authenticate repeatedly. This is useful in environments where seamless access to resources is required after an initial sign-on. Let’s go through the options to determine which configurations are compatible with WSSO:

Option A – A VAP configured for captive portal authentication

 Incorrect.
While captive portal authentication is commonly used for guest networks or public access points, it is not typically associated with Wireless Single Sign-On (WSSO). Captive portals require user interaction (such as entering credentials on a web page), which contrasts with WSSO’s seamless, user-transparent authentication process. WSSO aims for transparent authentication, typically without requiring users to re-enter credentials.

Option B – A VAP configured for WPA2 or 3 Enterprise

Correct.
WPA2 or WPA3 Enterprise is a robust, enterprise-grade security protocol that supports 802.1X authentication. This is the preferred configuration for Wireless Single Sign-On (WSSO), as it allows seamless integration with identity services and supports methods like EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) for authentication. WPA2 or WPA3 Enterprise enables WSSO to authenticate users via a centralized Radius server or other identity management solutions, ensuring seamless and secure access to the network.

Option C – A VAP configured to authenticate locally on FortiGate

 Incorrect.
While it is possible to configure a VAP (Virtual Access Point) to authenticate users locally on the FortiGate, this setup does not support Wireless Single Sign-On (WSSO) in the typical use case. WSSO requires integration with external authentication services, such as RADIUS or Active Directory, and local authentication on FortiGate generally does not support the broad, seamless user experience that WSSO requires.

Option D – A VAP configured to authenticate using a radius server

Configuring a VAP to authenticate using a RADIUS server is fully compatible with Wireless Single Sign-On (WSSO). The RADIUS server is responsible for validating user credentials and can integrate with various identity management systems, such as Active Directory or LDAP. This setup enables WSSO by allowing users to authenticate once and seamlessly access network resources without needing to repeatedly enter their credentials.

The correct answers are B and D. Configuring a VAP for WPA2 or WPA3 Enterprise and using a RADIUS server for authentication are both compatible with Wireless Single Sign-On (WSSO). These configurations enable seamless authentication across services and devices without the need for users to manually log in multiple times.