Fortinet NSE7_EFW-7.0 Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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NSE7_EFW-7.0 Fortinet Practice Test Questions and Exam

Question No 1:

Which three conditions are required for two FortiGate devices to form an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)

A. OSPF interface network types match.
B. OSPF router IDs are unique.
C. OSPF interface priority settings are unique.
D. Authentication settings match.
E. OSPF link costs match.

Answer: A, B, D

Explanation:

To establish an OSPF adjacency between two FortiGate devices, several conditions must be met to ensure proper communication. Let's review the correct conditions and why the other options are not required:

A. OSPF interface network types match.
For two devices to form an OSPF adjacency, the network type on each interface must be the same. This could be a broadcast, point-to-point, or non-broadcast network. If the network types don't match (for example, one device uses a point-to-point link while the other uses a broadcast network), OSPF will fail to form an adjacency. Therefore, matching network types are essential for successful adjacency formation.
B. OSPF router IDs are unique.
OSPF requires each router to have a unique Router ID (RID). If two devices share the same Router ID, they cannot establish an adjacency. This is crucial because the Router ID uniquely identifies each OSPF router in the network. Ensuring uniqueness of the OSPF router ID is a mandatory condition for forming an OSPF adjacency.
D. Authentication settings match.
If OSPF authentication is configured on both devices, the authentication settings (password, type, etc.) must match for the adjacency to be established. If the authentication settings are different, OSPF will not form an adjacency because it will treat the communication as insecure or unauthorized. Matching authentication settings are required to ensure secure OSPF communication.

Now, why the other options are not required:

C. OSPF interface priority settings are unique.
The interface priority is used in OSPF to influence the election of the Designated Router (DR) on a network segment, but it is not required to be unique between devices. Multiple devices can have the same interface priority, and OSPF can still form an adjacency. Thus, unique priority settings are not a condition for forming an adjacency.
E. OSPF link costs match.
The OSPF link cost is used to determine the best path for OSPF routing, but it does not need to be the same between devices to form an adjacency. Link costs can vary between devices, depending on the network topology, and this will not prevent the formation of an adjacency. What matters is the cost from the perspective of each router, and different devices can have different link costs.

In conclusion, the three required conditions for forming an OSPF adjacency are A. OSPF interface network types match, B. OSPF router IDs are unique, and D. Authentication settings match. These settings ensure that the devices can communicate and establish a trusted and consistent OSPF relationship.

Question No 2:

The administrator does not have access to the remote gateway. Based on the debug output, which configuration change can the administrator make to the local gateway to resolve the phase 1 negotiation error?

A In the phase 1 network configuration, set the IKE version to 2.
B In the phase 1 proposal configuration, add AES128-SHA128 to the list of encryption algorithms.
C In the phase 1 proposal configuration, add AESCBC-SHA2 to the list of encryption algorithms.
D In the phase 1 proposal configuration, add AES256-SHA256 to the list of encryption algorithms.

Answer: B

Explanation:

When addressing a phase 1 negotiation error, it is crucial to verify and correct the configuration of the local gateway, especially when the administrator cannot access the remote gateway. Phase 1 negotiations involve the establishment of a secure and authenticated channel between the two gateways using specific encryption and authentication algorithms.

In this case, B is the most likely solution because it suggests adding the AES128-SHA128 encryption algorithm to the phase 1 proposal configuration. This combination of encryption (AES128) and hashing (SHA128) is a widely accepted standard and is often used for establishing a secure channel during phase 1 negotiations.

Here is why the other options are less likely:

A suggests changing the IKE version to 2. While IKEv2 is generally more secure and efficient than IKEv1, simply switching to IKEv2 is not always the solution when dealing with phase 1 negotiation errors. Moreover, this change would require compatibility on both sides, which may not be possible given the lack of access to the remote gateway.
C suggests adding AESCBC-SHA2 to the proposal. While this might be a valid configuration in some contexts, it's not as common as AES128-SHA128, which is a more standard choice for phase 1 negotiations, and may not be compatible with the remote gateway’s settings.
D suggests adding AES256-SHA256 to the list of algorithms. While this is a strong encryption algorithm, it may not resolve the issue if the remote gateway is expecting a different, more common algorithm like AES128-SHA128. Additionally, AES256-SHA256 could introduce unnecessary complexity and might not be supported by the remote gateway.

Therefore, B is the correct option because adding AES128-SHA128 to the phase 1 proposal is a more standard and compatible solution for resolving the phase 1 negotiation error, especially when the administrator cannot modify the remote gateway's configuration.

Question No 3:

Which configuration change would result in non-zero results in the cache statistics section?

A. set server-type rating under config system central-management
B. set webfilter-cache enable under config system fortiguard
C. set webfilter-force-off disable under config system fortiguard
D. set ngfw-mode policy-based under config system settings

Answer: B

Explanation:

Cache statistics in FortiGate devices track the use of cached data to optimize web filtering performance, reduce latency, and minimize traffic load. The configuration change that directly impacts cache statistics is related to enabling or disabling the caching of web filtering data.

A. The option to set server-type rating under config system central-management relates to the configuration of central management settings, specifically for FortiGate devices connected to a central FortiManager. This change does not impact the web filtering cache directly, and therefore would not result in non-zero cache statistics.

B. The correct answer is to enable the web filter cache by setting webfilter-cache enable under config system fortiguard. When this option is enabled, FortiGate begins caching web filtering results (such as URL categorization) locally to enhance the speed and efficiency of web filtering processes. This caching mechanism significantly reduces the time required to evaluate web requests, as frequently accessed websites can be processed from the cache instead of needing to contact FortiGuard servers. This configuration results in non-zero cache statistics, as cached data starts accumulating.

C. Setting webfilter-force-off disable under config system fortiguard disables the web filter force-off function, meaning that web filtering will not be forced off for certain categories of traffic. While this impacts how web filtering behaves, it does not directly enable or disable web filtering caching. Therefore, it would not result in non-zero cache statistics.

D. Setting ngfw-mode policy-based under config system settings enables policy-based next-generation firewall (NGFW) mode. This mode allows for more granular control over security policies but does not directly influence the web filtering cache. Therefore, it does not result in non-zero results in the cache statistics section.

In conclusion, the correct configuration that would result in non-zero cache statistics is B, enabling the web filter cache under config system fortiguard.

Question No 4:

If the priority on route ID 2 were changed from 10 to 0, what would happen to traffic matching that user session?

A. The session would remain in the session table, but its traffic would now egress from both port1 and port2.
B. The session would remain in the session table, and its traffic would egress from port2.
C. The session would be deleted, and the client would need to start a new session.
D. The session would remain in the session table, and its traffic would egress from port1.

Answer: C

Explanation:

When the priority on route ID 2 is changed from 10 to 0, the system reevaluates the routing decision, and since priority is a key factor in determining which route is preferred, the change results in a reassignment of the route being used. The session that was previously using this route may become invalid because the route priority change affects which route is considered the most optimal for traffic. Therefore, the existing session would be deleted, and the client would need to initiate a new session for the traffic to use the new routing path.

Option A: The session would remain in the session table, but its traffic would now egress from both port1 and port2. This is not correct because the change in priority will cause the session to be removed, not allow traffic to egress from multiple ports. Traffic egressing from both ports would generally be part of a different setup, like load balancing or multiple interfaces, which is not directly related to the change in route priority.
Option B: The session would remain in the session table, and its traffic would egress from port2. While traffic may eventually be routed through port2, the session would not remain in the session table after a significant routing change like a priority shift. The session needs to be refreshed with the new route configuration, so this option is incorrect.
Option D: The session would remain in the session table, and its traffic would egress from port1. Similar to Option B, the session would not remain in the session table after the priority change. Traffic egressing from port1 would only occur if the session remains valid, but in this case, it would be deleted due to the priority shift.

The correct response is C. The session would be deleted, and the client would need to start a new session, as this accurately describes the expected behavior when the route priority is changed and the previous session is invalidated.

Question No 5:

An administrator would like to test session failover between the two service provider connections. What changes must the administrator make to force this existing session to immediately start using the other interface? (Choose two.)

A. Configure set snat-route-change enable.
B. Change the priority of the port2 static route to 5.
C. Change the priority of the port1 static route to 11.
D. unset snat-route-change to return it to the default setting.

Answer: A, B

Explanation:

To test session failover between two service provider connections, an administrator needs to adjust settings that force the system to switch to the other interface immediately. The changes that can achieve this are:

A. Configure set snat-route-change enable.
Enabling snat-route-change is a crucial setting for session failover testing. This setting ensures that the source network address translation (SNAT) will automatically change the route if the session detects a failure or if a route change occurs. By enabling this option, sessions will follow the new route immediately, which is necessary for testing failover between interfaces.
B. Change the priority of the port2 static route to 5.
Adjusting the priority of static routes can force the system to prefer one interface over another. Lower priority numbers are higher priority, so setting the priority of the port2 route to 5 makes it more likely to be chosen for the session failover. When the failover occurs, the session will shift to port2 due to the higher priority configuration, helping test the failover mechanism.

Other options do not directly force session failover in the context of route changes:

C. Change the priority of the port1 static route to 11.
Changing the priority of port1 to 11 makes it less likely to be chosen in case of failover, as it has a higher priority number. However, this alone does not immediately cause a failover to the other interface.
D. unset snat-route-change to return it to the default setting.
Unsetting snat-route-change would return the setting to the default behavior, which does not actively force route changes when a failover occurs. This would not help in testing immediate session failover and could prevent automatic route switching.

Therefore, enabling set snat-route-change and adjusting route priorities are the correct steps to ensure that the session immediately begins using the other interface for failover testing.

Question No 6:

What are two functions of automation stitches? (Choose two.)

A. Automation stitches can be configured on any FortiGate device in a Security Fabric environment.
B. An automation stitch configured to execute actions sequentially can take parameters from previous actions as input for the current action.
C. Automation stitches can be created to run diagnostic commands and attach the results to an email message when CPU or memory usage exceeds specified thresholds.
D. An automation stitch configured to execute actions in parallel can be set to insert a specific delay between actions.

Correct answer: B, C

Explanation:

Automation stitches in FortiGate devices allow the automation of various network security tasks, which can help streamline operations and respond more effectively to certain conditions or events. These stitches are designed to execute multiple actions, either sequentially or in parallel, based on triggers such as network traffic, system status, or threat events.

B. An automation stitch configured to execute actions sequentially can take parameters from previous actions as input for the current action.
This functionality allows automation stitches to work dynamically by chaining actions together. When one action is completed, its output can be used as input for the next action in the sequence. This is crucial for scenarios that require data to flow through multiple steps, such as collecting logs or gathering diagnostic data from a device and using that data in subsequent actions (e.g., reporting, alerting, or adjusting device settings).

C. Automation stitches can be created to run diagnostic commands and attach the results to an email message when CPU or memory usage exceeds specified thresholds.
This is another important feature of automation stitches, where FortiGate devices can be set to automatically run diagnostic commands (such as gathering system performance data) when certain thresholds (like CPU or memory usage) are exceeded. The results of these diagnostic commands can then be sent via email, helping administrators stay informed about critical system health conditions and take preventive or corrective actions swiftly.

A. Automation stitches can be configured on any FortiGate device in a Security Fabric environment.
While automation stitches are indeed a key feature of FortiGate devices, they are not restricted to just FortiGate devices in a Security Fabric environment. They can also be used in standalone FortiGate units, making this option less specific to the overall functionality of automation stitches.

D. An automation stitch configured to execute actions in parallel can be set to insert a specific delay between actions.
Although automation stitches can be configured to run actions in parallel, the key feature here is that parallel execution of actions is done without necessarily inserting delays. Delays are generally more applicable to sequential execution, not parallel execution, making this option incorrect.

Thus, B and C accurately describe important functions of automation stitches, offering practical benefits for automation in FortiGate devices.

Question No 7:

Based on the output, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. The npu_flag for this tunnel is 03.
B. Different SPI values are a result of auto-negotiation being disabled for phase 2 selectors.
C. Anti-replay is enabled.
D. The npu_flag for this tunnel is 02.

Explanation:

To determine which two statements are correct, we need to analyze the details provided in the output. The statements relate to different aspects of the VPN configuration, such as NPU flags, SPI values, and anti-replay settings.

A. The npu_flag for this tunnel is 03. and D. The npu_flag for this tunnel is 02. are both statements concerning the npu_flag, which typically refers to the NPU offload or acceleration settings. The correct value for the npu_flag can be found in the output, depending on whether the tunnel is hardware offloaded or processed in software. One of these statements will be correct based on the actual npu_flag value shown.
B. Different SPI values are a result of auto-negotiation being disabled for phase 2 selectors. This statement involves the SPI (Security Parameters Index), which uniquely identifies a specific security association. If auto-negotiation is disabled for phase 2 selectors, it can result in different SPI values being used for the same connection. This behavior can be confirmed by checking the configuration and output values related to the selectors.
C. Anti-replay is enabled. Anti-replay is a mechanism to prevent replay attacks, and this is typically shown in the VPN configuration output. If anti-replay is enabled, the output will explicitly mention this setting. If the output confirms that anti-replay is enabled, then this statement is correct.

Thus, the correct answers will depend on the actual output data, but based on standard configurations:

A or D could be the correct statement about the npu_flag.
B could be correct if the SPI values are influenced by the phase 2 auto-negotiation setting.
C could be correct if the output shows that anti-replay is indeed enabled.

The correct answers are likely C and one of either A or D.

Question No 8:

Which statement about FortiGate behavior relating to this session is true?

A. FortiGate redirected the client to the captive portal to authenticate, so that a correct policy match could be made.
B. FortiGate forwarded this session without any inspection.
C. FortiGate is performing security profile inspection using the CPU.
D. FortiGate applied only IPS inspection to this session.

Answer: A

Explanation:

When analyzing FortiGate behavior related to session handling, there are different stages and processes that FortiGate may perform depending on the configuration, session states, and the applied security profiles. FortiGate is a robust security appliance that integrates several functions, including firewall protection, intrusion prevention, VPN services, and content filtering.

Option A: This statement is accurate because if a session is in progress and a policy match cannot be determined immediately, FortiGate may redirect the client to a captive portal for authentication. This step ensures that only authenticated clients are allowed access based on predefined security policies. After the authentication, FortiGate can properly apply the relevant policies, ensuring that the session is handled according to the rules set for authenticated users. This process is often used to ensure proper policy matching in a secure and controlled manner.
Option B: This option, stating that FortiGate forwarded the session without any inspection, is not typically correct for a FortiGate device, which is designed to perform various security inspections, including firewall rules, security profiles, and more. Unless the session explicitly bypasses certain inspections (such as in specific policy configurations or exclusions), FortiGate typically inspects the session for potential threats, traffic violations, and policy matches.
Option C: The statement FortiGate is performing security profile inspection using the CPU is somewhat true, but it's not fully accurate. While FortiGate does perform security profile inspections, it does so by using the Security Processing Unit (SPU) in addition to the CPU. The SPU is a hardware-based processor designed to offload certain security tasks from the general CPU, enhancing performance. Security profiles, such as antivirus, web filtering, and application control, typically rely on the SPU, not just the CPU.
Option D: The statement FortiGate applied only IPS inspection to this session would only be true if the session were specifically limited to IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) inspection in a scenario where other profiles are not applied. However, FortiGate typically applies a broader range of security checks, including firewall rules, security profiles (e.g., antivirus, web filtering, etc.), and possibly IPS, depending on the configuration. Limiting the session to only IPS inspection would be unusual unless explicitly configured in the policy.

In conclusion, Option A is the correct answer because it describes a typical behavior where FortiGate redirects the client to a captive portal for authentication to ensure that the correct policy match can be made. This is a common process for controlling access and enforcing security policies based on user authentication.

Question No 9:

An administrator has configured two VPNs for two different user groups. Users who are in the Users-2 group are not able to connect to the VPN. After running a diagnostics command, the administrator discovered that FortiGate is not matching the user-2 VPN for members of the Users-2 group.

Which two changes must the administrator make to fix the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Use different pre-shared keys on both VPNs.
B. Enable XAuth on both VPNs.
C. Set up specific peer IDs on both VPNs.
D. Change to aggressive mode on both VPNs.

Answer: B, C

Explanation:

In FortiGate VPN configurations, proper identification and matching of the right VPN tunnel for a user group are crucial for a successful connection. In this case, the administrator discovered that FortiGate was not matching the Users-2 group to the correct VPN. To address this, the administrator can implement two key changes.

B. Enable XAuth on both VPNs: XAuth (Extended Authentication) is a feature used in VPN configurations to allow for additional user authentication beyond the traditional phase 1 and phase 2 settings. Enabling XAuth on both VPNs would allow the FortiGate to differentiate between the user groups more clearly. XAuth helps ensure that the Users-2 group is correctly matched to its VPN tunnel based on the user credentials.

C. Set up specific peer IDs on both VPNs: The use of specific peer IDs ensures that FortiGate can correctly identify which peer (VPN endpoint) to connect to, particularly in a multi-VPN setup. Without unique peer IDs, the VPN might fail to match the correct VPN tunnel for a given user group, resulting in connection issues like the one described. Configuring unique peer IDs for each VPN would allow FortiGate to correctly associate the Users-2 group with its designated VPN.

The other options are less relevant to solving the issue:

A. Use different pre-shared keys on both VPNs: While using different pre-shared keys could improve security by ensuring that each VPN tunnel uses a unique key, it is unlikely to be the cause of the mismatch between the user group and the VPN. The problem here is more likely related to identification and authentication rather than the pre-shared keys.

D. Change to aggressive mode on both VPNs: Aggressive mode is a type of IKE negotiation mode that allows for faster VPN setup by exchanging fewer messages. However, changing to aggressive mode would not directly address the issue of matching the correct VPN to a user group. This mode is more related to the VPN handshake and negotiation speed, not to user group identification.

Therefore, the administrator should focus on enabling XAuth and setting up specific peer IDs to resolve the issue.