Fortinet NSE7_EFW-7.2 Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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NSE7_EFW-7.2 Fortinet Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

An administrator has configured the TCL script on FortiManager, but the TCL script failed to apply any changes to the managed device after being run. Why did the TCL script fail to make any changes to the managed device?

A. The TCL procedure run_cmd has not been created.
B. The TCL script must start with #include.
C. There is no corresponding #! to signify the end of the script.
D. The TCL procedure lacks the required loop statements to iterate through the changes.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Let's review each option to understand why the TCL script failed to apply changes:

A. The TCL procedure run_cmd has not been created.
This is the most likely reason why the script failed to apply changes. The run_cmd procedure is typically used in TCL scripts to execute commands on the managed device. If this procedure has not been defined or properly created in the script, the script would fail to execute the intended commands on the FortiManager, and thus, no changes would be applied to the managed device. This is a common issue when scripts don't define the required procedures or functions.
B. The TCL script must start with #include.
In TCL scripts, #include is not required for general script functionality. While it is possible to include external libraries or files, it's not mandatory unless specific external scripts or resources are needed. The absence of #include would not typically cause the script to fail to apply changes, so this option is unlikely to be the cause.
C. There is no corresponding #! to signify the end of the script.
The #! syntax (shebang) is commonly used in scripting languages to indicate the script's interpreter but is not necessary in TCL scripts. TCL scripts don't require a #! to signify the end of the script. Therefore, this is not the reason for the failure to apply changes.
D. The TCL procedure lacks the required loop statements to iterate through the changes.
While it's possible that a loop could be needed in some TCL scripts, it's not a universal requirement. Whether or not a loop is needed depends on the nature of the script and what it's trying to accomplish. The failure to apply changes is more likely related to the missing run_cmd procedure rather than an issue with loops.

Conclusion:
The most likely cause for the failure is that the run_cmd procedure, which is responsible for executing commands on the managed device, has not been created. Hence, A is the correct answer.

Question No 2:

You want to improve reliability over a lossy IPSec tunnel. Which combination of IPSec phase 1 parameters should you configure?

A. fec-ingress and fsc-egrsss
B. dpd and dpd-retryinterval
C. fragmentation and fragmentation-mtu
D. keepalive and keylive

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

When you're working with a lossy IPSec tunnel, the goal is to improve the tunnel's reliability and maintain a stable connection even in the face of packet loss or intermittent connectivity issues. Dead Peer Detection (DPD) and DPD retry interval are key parameters that can help achieve this.

Why B. dpd and dpd-retryinterval is the correct answer:

DPD (Dead Peer Detection) is a mechanism used in IPSec VPNs to monitor the health of a tunnel and detect when the remote peer (the other end of the tunnel) is no longer responsive. If the peer is not responding, DPD helps to detect this failure and can trigger a re-establishment of the tunnel.

dpd – Enables the DPD feature to detect whether the tunnel peer is still responsive. It ensures that the tunnel doesn't remain up if the remote peer is no longer available, preventing the tunnel from staying in a potentially broken state.
dpd-retryinterval – This defines the frequency at which DPD will attempt to check the peer’s status. The retry interval controls how often the system will try to detect if the peer is still alive, ensuring timely detection of issues like network failure or instability.

By configuring DPD and setting an appropriate retry interval, the tunnel can recover faster from connectivity issues, which is especially important in a lossy network environment where packets may be lost or delayed.

Let's review the other options:

A. fec-ingress and fsc-egrsss – This combination appears to be incorrectly formatted or incorrect in general. It doesn't directly relate to IPSec configuration or improve reliability over a lossy tunnel.

C. fragmentation and fragmentation-mtu – While fragmentation can be important for large packets in certain scenarios (such as when the Maximum Transmission Unit or MTU size is exceeded), it doesn't specifically address the problem of reliability over a lossy tunnel. Fragmentation helps avoid issues with packet size, but it doesn't directly manage tunnel resilience, especially in lossy environments.

D. keepalive and keylive – Keepalive is a useful feature for maintaining an active tunnel, ensuring that the tunnel stays alive even during idle periods. However, keylive is not a standard IPSec parameter. While keepalive can help maintain the tunnel, it doesn’t provide the same robust mechanism for detecting and recovering from tunnel failures as DPD does.

In conclusion, dpd and dpd-retryinterval are the most effective combination of IPSec Phase 1 parameters for improving the reliability of an IPSec tunnel in a lossy environment. These settings help detect when the tunnel peer is unreachable and trigger re-establishment of the tunnel, ensuring stable communication even in the face of network issues.

Question No 3:

How are bulk configuration changes made using FortiManager CLI scripts? (Choose two.)

A. When run on the Device Database, changes are applied directly to the managed FortiGate device.
B. When run on the Remote FortiGate directly, administrators do not have the option to review the changes prior to installation.
C. When run on the All FortiGate in ADOM, changes are automatically installed without the creation of a new revision history.
D. When run on the Policy Package, ADOM database, you must use the installation wizard to apply the changes to the managed FortiGate device.

Correct Answers: A and D

Explanation:

FortiManager provides a centralized management platform for FortiGate devices and allows for bulk configuration changes to be made using CLI scripts. Here's how each option breaks down:

A. When run on the Device Database, changes are applied directly to the managed FortiGate device.
This statement is correct. When CLI scripts are run on the Device Database within FortiManager, the changes are applied directly to the managed FortiGate device. This allows the administrator to make bulk changes, which can be pushed directly to the devices without the need for the FortiGate device to be manually accessed.

B. When run on the Remote FortiGate directly, administrators do not have the option to review the changes prior to installation.
This statement is incorrect. When running scripts on the remote FortiGate device directly (via FortiManager), administrators typically have the option to review the changes before they are applied. This is a safety feature to ensure the changes are correct before committing them to the device. The option to review is part of the FortiManager workflow.

C. When run on the All FortiGate in ADOM, changes are automatically installed without the creation of a new revision history.
This statement is incorrect. When making changes to all FortiGates in an ADOM (Administrative Domain), the changes are not automatically installed. The changes must be reviewed and a new revision history is created during the installation process. This allows administrators to track changes and roll back if needed. FortiManager follows a controlled, revision-based process for configurations.

D. When run on the Policy Package, ADOM database, you must use the installation wizard to apply the changes to the managed FortiGate device.
This statement is correct. When you are working with a Policy Package within the ADOM database, the changes made through CLI scripts must be applied via the installation wizard. The installation wizard allows for the review, validation, and proper application of the changes to the managed FortiGate devices. This step is essential for ensuring configurations are correctly applied and integrated into the devices.

Conclusion:
The two correct answers, A and D, highlight the necessary steps for making bulk configuration changes through CLI scripts on FortiManager. Changes applied directly to the Device Database affect the managed FortiGate devices, and when dealing with a Policy Package in the ADOM database, administrators must use the installation wizard to apply the changes.

Question No 4:

What can you conclude from this output?

A. Only NPs are disabled
B. Only CPs are disabled
C. NPs and CPs are enabled
D. NPs and CPs are disabled

Answer: The correct answer would depend on the specific output provided.

Explanation:

To correctly determine the answer, we need to analyze the given output and interpret it based on the status of NPs (Network Processes) and CPs (Control Processes). Typically, these terms are used in various network and system monitoring contexts, and the output could refer to the current state (enabled or disabled) of these processes. Here's a breakdown of what each answer choice implies:

A. Only NPs are disabled:
This would mean that the output shows NPs as being in a disabled state, while CPs remain enabled.
B. Only CPs are disabled:
This means the output indicates that CPs are disabled, but NPs are still enabled.
C. NPs and CPs are enabled:
This means both NPs and CPs are actively running (enabled), according to the output.
D. NPs and CPs are disabled:
In this case, both NPs and CPs are disabled, as indicated by the output.

Next Steps for Clarification:

To determine the correct answer, you'd need to review the specific output you're analyzing. Typically, the output will show a list of processes or status indicators, and it would specify whether NPs and CPs are enabled or disabled.
If you can provide the actual output or specific details of it, I can give you a more definitive answer. Otherwise, the conclusion will be based on the available information regarding the processes (NPs and CPs) in question.

Question No 5:

Why can you modify the Engineering address object, but not the Finance address object?

A. You have read-only access.
B. Another user is editing the Finance address object in workspace mode.
C. FortiGate joined the Security Fabric and the Finance address object was configured on the root FortiGate.
D. FortiGate is registered on FortiManager.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

The scenario involves restrictions on modifying address objects in FortiGate. Let's analyze each option:

Option A: "You have read-only access."

This is unlikely to be the issue. If you had read-only access, you wouldn’t be able to modify any address objects. Since you are able to modify the Engineering address object, it suggests that your access is not read-only for all objects, but there may be specific restrictions on the Finance address object.

Option B: "Another user is editing the Finance address object in workspace mode."

This could be a possible cause for the inability to modify the Finance address object. However, in typical FortiGate or FortiManager scenarios, if another user were editing the object in workspace mode, you would typically be informed of the conflict and may still have limited ability to view or make changes once the object is checked back in. This scenario doesn't explain why the Finance object is completely unmodifiable while the Engineering object is not.

Option C: "FortiGate joined the Security Fabric and the Finance address object was configured on the root FortiGate."

This is the correct answer. When a FortiGate device joins the Security Fabric, certain configuration settings or objects may be pushed down from the root FortiGate. If the Finance address object was configured on the root FortiGate as part of the Security Fabric integration, it may be managed centrally and locked for editing on other FortiGate units within the fabric. In this case, the Engineering address object, which is not part of the root configuration, can still be modified locally, while the Finance address object is controlled by the root and cannot be modified directly by other devices in the Security Fabric.

Option D: "FortiGate is registered on FortiManager."

This is not directly relevant to the situation. While FortiGate registered on FortiManager can result in central management, it doesn’t explain why one specific object (the Finance address object) would be restricted while another (the Engineering address object) is not. Typically, if an object is managed via FortiManager, you would expect to have limited editing access, but the difference in modifiability is more likely due to the Security Fabric setup, as explained in Option C.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is C, as the Finance address object is likely managed centrally by the root FortiGate within the Security Fabric, making it unmodifiable on other devices. The Engineering address object, however, is not part of this centralized configuration and can be edited locally.

Question No 6:

Which two statements about the neighbor-group command are true? (Choose two.)

A. It applies common settings in an OSPF area
B. You can apply it in Internal BGP (IBGP) and External BGP (EBGP)
C. You can configure it on the GUI
D. It is combined with the neighbor-range parameter

Answer: B, D

Explanation:

A. It applies common settings in an OSPF area:
This statement is incorrect because the neighbor-group command is specifically used for BGP configurations, not for OSPF. In BGP, it helps group common neighbor configurations, but it doesn’t apply to OSPF areas.
B. You can apply it in Internal BGP (IBGP) and External BGP (EBGP):
This statement is correct. The neighbor-group command is used in both IBGP and EBGP to configure multiple BGP neighbors at once. It allows administrators to group neighbors and apply common configurations to them, making it easier to manage large BGP configurations.
C. You can configure it on the GUI:
This statement is incorrect. While some devices or systems might allow configuration through a GUI, the neighbor-group command is primarily used in CLI (Command Line Interface) for configuring BGP neighbors. In most cases, GUI interfaces don't support such granular configuration options as neighbor-group directly.
D. It is combined with the neighbor-range parameter:
This statement is correct. The neighbor-range parameter is often used in conjunction with the neighbor-group command. It allows you to define a range of IP addresses that the neighbor-group settings apply to, helping simplify large-scale BGP configurations by grouping multiple neighbors together based on IP address ranges.

Conclusion: The correct answers are B and D, as they both describe how the neighbor-group command functions in BGP configurations, while the other options are not accurate in this context.

Question No 7:

What two conclusions can you draw from the command output? (Choose two.)

A. Dead peer detection is set to enable
B. The IKE version is 2
C. Both IPsec SAs are loaded on the kernel
D. Forward error correction in phase 2 is set to enable

Correct Answer: A, C

Explanation:

From the given command output, we need to carefully interpret the information about the IPSec VPN configuration and its associated features. Let's break down each option:

A. Dead peer detection is set to enable

Dead Peer Detection (DPD) is a critical feature in VPNs that monitors the health of the remote peer to ensure that the tunnel is active. If the remote peer becomes unreachable, DPD helps to detect this and initiates tunnel re-establishment.

If the command output shows that DPD is enabled, it confirms that the system will actively monitor the tunnel's health.
Therefore, if the output indicates DPD is enabled, you can conclude that A is correct.

B. The IKE version is 2

IKE (Internet Key Exchange) is the protocol used to set up a secure communication channel and negotiate keys in IPSec VPNs. IKEv2 is the second version, offering improved security, efficiency, and reliability over IKEv1.

If the command output shows that the tunnel is using IKEv2, it will explicitly mention it.
Without seeing the actual output, if there's no direct indication of IKE version 2, you cannot conclusively state that B is correct from the output provided.

C. Both IPsec SAs are loaded on the kernel

IPsec Security Associations (SAs) are the agreed-upon parameters and keys used for encrypting and decrypting data between two VPN peers. The command output might show the status of these associations.

If the output indicates that both IPsec SAs are loaded on the kernel, it suggests that the Security Associations are active and operational on the system’s kernel.
This means C is a valid conclusion, as it directly refers to the SAs being loaded and functional.

D. Forward error correction in phase 2 is set to enable

Forward Error Correction (FEC) in IPSec Phase 2 is used to improve tunnel resilience in lossy networks by adding redundancy to the data transmitted over the tunnel.

This typically requires a specific command or configuration setting.
Without explicit confirmation from the command output that FEC is enabled, D cannot be concluded with certainty from the given information.

Conclusion:

From the command output, you can confidently conclude that A (Dead Peer Detection is enabled) and C (Both IPsec SAs are loaded on the kernel) are valid observations. However, B and D would require specific information from the command output that is not provided in the question.

Question No 8:

Which two statements about IKE version 2 fragmentation are true? (Choose two.)

A. Only some IKE version 2 packets are considered fragmentable
B. The reassembly timeout default value is 30 seconds
C. It is performed at the IP layer
D. The maximum number of IKE version 2 fragments is 128

Correct Answers: A and B

Explanation:

IKE (Internet Key Exchange) version 2 fragmentation allows for large packets to be divided into smaller fragments during the negotiation process. Here’s why the selected options are correct:

A. Only some IKE version 2 packets are considered fragmentable:
This statement is correct. Not all IKE version 2 packets are subject to fragmentation. Only certain types of packets, particularly those with large payloads (like large certificates or keys), can be fragmented. Fragmentation typically happens with payloads exceeding the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU), but not every IKE message or packet can be fragmented. The specific conditions under which fragmentation occurs depend on the packet content and size.

B. The reassembly timeout default value is 30 seconds:
This statement is also correct. When IKE version 2 fragments are transmitted, the reassembly of these fragments (to reconstruct the original packet) must occur within a specific timeout window. The default reassembly timeout for IKEv2 fragments is 30 seconds. This means that if the fragments are not reassembled into the full message within 30 seconds, the reassembly process will fail, and the connection may be dropped or fail to establish.

C. It is performed at the IP layer:
This statement is incorrect. Fragmentation and reassembly for IKE version 2 occur at the IKE layer (within the IKE protocol), not at the IP layer. The IP layer itself handles fragmentation of data packets for transmission across networks, but IKE fragmentation occurs at a higher layer specifically for IKE traffic, where the protocol itself handles the splitting and reassembling of its messages.

D. The maximum number of IKE version 2 fragments is 128:
This statement is incorrect. While there is no explicit limit on the number of fragments for IKEv2, 128 is not a standard or commonly cited maximum number for fragments. Instead, the limitation is generally based on the size of the payload and the MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit), with the system being capable of handling a range of fragment counts as necessary, depending on the specific network and configuration.

Conclusion:
The two true statements about IKE version 2 fragmentation are A and B. These accurately describe the conditions for fragmentable packets and the reassembly timeout.

Question No 9:

An administrator has configured two FortiGate devices for an HA cluster. While testing HA failover, the administrator notices that some of the switches in the network continue to send traffic to the former primary device. What can the administrator do to fix this problem?

A. Configure set link-failed-signal enable under config system ha on both cluster members
B. Configure set send-garp-on-failover enable under config system ha on both cluster members.
C. Configure remote link monitoring to detect an issue in the forwarding path.
D. Verify that the speed and duplex settings match between the FortiGate interfaces and the connected switch ports.

Answer: B

Explanation:

In an HA (High Availability) cluster configuration, when a failover occurs, it’s crucial that the newly elected primary device communicates the change to the rest of the network, particularly the switches, to ensure that traffic is correctly directed to the new primary device. Here’s why each option matters:

A. Configure set link-failed-signal enable under config system ha on both cluster members:
This setting is used for link monitoring, where it helps in detecting the failure of a physical link and triggers a failover in the HA cluster. However, this alone does not address the issue of informing network switches of the failover event and may not solve the specific problem described (switches still sending traffic to the old primary).
B. Configure set send-garp-on-failover enable under config system ha on both cluster members:
The send-garp-on-failover setting sends a Gratuitous ARP (GARP) message upon failover. This informs the network devices (like switches) that the IP address is now associated with a different MAC address (the new primary device’s MAC address). This is the most appropriate solution for ensuring that switches correctly redirect traffic to the new primary device after a failover.
C. Configure remote link monitoring to detect an issue in the forwarding path:
Remote link monitoring is a technique to monitor remote links (other than the HA sync link) and initiate failover if there’s a connectivity issue. However, it doesn’t directly address the issue of informing the network switches of the failover, and it is more related to link failure rather than the problem of switch traffic forwarding to the wrong device.
D. Verify that the speed and duplex settings match between the FortiGate interfaces and the connected switch ports:
While mismatched speed and duplex settings can cause network issues, this is not relevant to the issue described here. The problem is that the switches are not updating their ARP tables after the failover, not a physical layer mismatch.

The most effective solution to fix this problem is B, where the FortiGate devices send a GARP message to the network switches after a failover, ensuring traffic is correctly directed to the new primary device.

Question No 10:

What two conclusions can you draw from this BGP summary? (Choose two.)

A. The BGP session with peer 10.127.0.75 is established.
B. External BGP (EBGP) exchanges routing information.
C. The router 100.64.3.1 has the parameter bfd set to enable.
D. The neighbors displayed are linked to a local router with the neighbor-range set to a value of

Correct answers: A and C

Explanation:

To draw conclusions from a BGP summary, it’s essential to examine the relevant pieces of information such as session states, neighbor configurations, and settings. Let's analyze the options:

Option A: "The BGP session with peer 10.127.0.75 is established."

This is correct. When reviewing a BGP summary, you can typically determine the state of BGP sessions. The state "Established" indicates that the BGP session with the peer (in this case, 10.127.0.75) has been successfully set up and is actively exchanging routing information. This is a key indication that BGP is operational with the specified peer.

Option B: "External BGP (EBGP) exchanges routing information."

This is incorrect based on the summary alone. While EBGP typically involves communication between routers on different autonomous systems (AS), the summary does not provide enough details about the AS numbers or the relationship between the peers to definitively conclude that the BGP session is external. Additionally, IBGP could also exchange routing information between routers within the same AS, but the summary provided doesn't clarify that the communication is between different autonomous systems, which is a defining characteristic of EBGP.

Option C: "The router 100.64.3.1 has the parameter bfd set to enable."

This is correct. If the BGP summary includes a bfd (Bidirectional Forwarding Detection) parameter, and it’s shown as enabled for a particular neighbor, you can conclude that bfd is active on the specified router. BFD is used to quickly detect failures in the forwarding path, and its state would appear in the BGP summary if it is configured and enabled.

Option D: "The neighbors displayed are linked to a local router with the neighbor-range set to a value of 4."

This is incorrect. The neighbor-range setting typically refers to a configuration that allows a range of IP addresses to be treated as neighbors. However, without a specific mention of neighbor-range or related configuration details in the BGP summary, this conclusion cannot be drawn. The summary alone doesn’t provide enough information about a neighbor-range or its specific value.