Fortinet NSE7_NST-7.2 Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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NSE7_NST-7.2 Fortinet Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

Consider the scenario where the server name indication (SNI) does not match either the common name (CN) or any of the subject alternative names (SAN) in the server certificate.

Which action will FortiGate take when using the default settings for SSL certificate inspection?

A. FortiGate closes the connection because this represents an invalid SSL/TLS configuration.
B. FortiGate uses the CN information from the Subject field in the server certificate.
C. FortiGate uses the first entry listed in the SAN field in the server certificate.
D. FortiGate uses the SNI from the user’s web browser.

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

When SSL certificate inspection is configured on a FortiGate device, it inspects the server certificate during the SSL handshake to verify its validity. The default behavior for SSL certificate inspection is to check whether the Common Name (CN) or Subject Alternative Name (SAN) matches the Server Name Indication (SNI) provided by the client. If there is a mismatch, FortiGate has a default action to handle this discrepancy.

Here’s why B is the correct answer:

B. FortiGate uses the CN information from the Subject field in the server certificate. This is the default action FortiGate takes when there is an SNI mismatch. If the SNI in the client’s request does not match the CN or SAN in the server certificate, FortiGate will use the CN value from the server certificate’s Subject field for the SSL inspection. The CN is typically used as a fallback mechanism when no valid SAN or matching SNI is found.

Now, let’s review why the other options are incorrect:

A. FortiGate closes the connection because this represents an invalid SSL/TLS configuration. This option is incorrect. While an SNI mismatch may seem like an issue, it does not automatically close the connection by default. FortiGate does not terminate the connection simply because of an SNI mismatch but instead falls back on using the CN or SAN from the server certificate.
C. FortiGate uses the first entry listed in the SAN field in the server certificate. This is also incorrect. FortiGate does not automatically choose the first SAN entry. If there’s a mismatch between the SNI and any of the SAN or CN entries, FortiGate defaults to using the CN from the Subject field, not the first SAN entry.
D. FortiGate uses the SNI from the user’s web browser. This is incorrect because FortiGate does not use the SNI provided by the client directly in cases of a mismatch. It relies on the CN in the certificate if there is no direct match, rather than trying to enforce the client’s SNI information.

In conclusion, B is the correct answer because, in the event of an SNI mismatch, FortiGate defaults to using the CN from the server certificate's Subject field for SSL inspection.

Question No 2:

FortiGate has already been configured with a firewall policy that allows all ICMP traffic to flow from port1 to port3.

Which changes must the administrator perform to ensure the server at 10.4.0.1/24 receives the echo reply from the laptop at 10.1.0.1/24?

A. Enable asymmetric routing under config system settings.
B. Modify the default gateway on the laptop from 10.1.0.2 to 10.2.0.2.
C. A firewall policy that allows all ICMP traffic from port3 to port1.
D. Change the configuration from strict RPF check mode to feasible RPF check mode.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

In this scenario, the issue is that the server at 10.4.0.1/24 is not receiving the echo reply from the laptop at 10.1.0.1/24, even though the firewall policy allows ICMP traffic from port1 to port3. To resolve this, the key is ensuring that the traffic can flow in both directions, from port1 to port3 for the request, and from port3 to port1 for the reply.

Let’s go through each option in detail:

Option A: Enable asymmetric routing under config system settings.

Asymmetric routing occurs when traffic enters and exits the network via different interfaces. Enabling asymmetric routing allows the firewall to allow traffic that does not follow the usual stateful flow. However, the main problem here is that ICMP reply packets from the server are not allowed back to the laptop. This does not specifically address the need for a firewall policy to allow traffic back from port3 to port1, which is the core of the issue.

Option B: Modify the default gateway on the laptop from 10.1.0.2 to 10.2.0.2.

This option changes the laptop's default gateway. While modifying the default gateway can impact routing, it is not directly related to the issue of the server receiving the echo reply. The laptop's gateway should be configured appropriately to route packets to the server, but the actual issue is more about the return traffic being blocked, which requires a specific firewall rule to allow the reply to flow back to port1.

Option C: A firewall policy that allows all ICMP traffic from port3 to port1.

This is the correct solution. The firewall policy in place allows ICMP traffic from port1 to port3, but there is no rule allowing the reply traffic from port3 back to port1. In this scenario, for the server at 10.4.0.1/24 to send the echo reply back to the laptop at 10.1.0.1/24, the administrator needs to add a firewall policy that allows all ICMP traffic from port3 to port1. This allows the ICMP echo reply to reach the laptop.

Option D: Change the configuration from strict RPF check mode to feasible RPF check mode.

Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) checks are used to prevent traffic from sources that are not in the routing table or from unauthorized paths. The strict RPF check mode ensures that packets must come from a path that matches the routing table. However, changing this configuration is not necessary in this case. The problem is related to missing firewall policy rules, not RPF checks. Therefore, modifying the RPF mode is unlikely to solve the problem.

The main issue is that the echo reply from the server is not allowed to return to the laptop, which is addressed by creating a firewall policy that allows ICMP traffic from port3 to port1. Therefore, Option C: A firewall policy that allows all ICMP traffic from port3 to port1 is the correct solution.

Question No 3:

If the default settings are in place, what can you conclude about the conserve mode shown in the exhibit?

A. FortiGate is currently blocking new sessions that require flow-based or proxy-based content inspection.
B. FortiGate is currently blocking all new sessions regardless of the content inspection requirements or configuration settings because of high memory use.
C. FortiGate is currently allowing new sessions that require flow-based or proxy-based content inspection but is not performing inspection on those sessions.
D. FortiGate is currently allowing new sessions that require flow-based content inspection and blocking sessions that require proxy-based content inspection.

Answer: B. FortiGate is currently blocking all new sessions regardless of the content inspection requirements or configuration settings because of high memory use.

Explanation:

Conserve mode on FortiGate devices is a mechanism triggered when the system detects that it is running low on resources, specifically memory. When the system enters conserve mode, it may block new sessions in order to prevent further degradation of performance. This is done to prioritize existing sessions and ensure the device remains stable under resource constraints.

Option A is not entirely correct because it specifies the blocking of new sessions based on inspection types, but conserve mode typically blocks all new sessions rather than just those requiring flow-based or proxy-based inspection.
Option B is correct because it describes the default behavior in conserve mode, which is to block new sessions due to high memory use, ensuring the system does not overload and maintains performance for existing sessions.
Option C is not correct because in conserve mode, the system does not allow new sessions, and no inspections are performed.
Option D is incorrect because both flow-based and proxy-based sessions may be blocked in conserve mode.

Thus, B is the correct answer, as it accurately reflects the behavior of conserve mode under high memory use.

Question No 4:

The correct answer depends on the context of the session and FortiGate’s security inspection process. Here's a breakdown of the options:

A. FortiGate forwarded this session without any inspection.
This statement suggests that FortiGate did not inspect the session, which is unlikely unless it's a session that is not subject to any security profiles or inspection policies. FortiGate usually performs some form of inspection unless explicitly configured not to.

B. FortiGate is performing a security profile inspection using the CPU.
This is a valid possibility, as FortiGate uses its CPU for inspecting sessions when security profiles, such as antivirus, web filtering, or application control, are applied. However, without more specific context regarding CPU usage or security profiles applied, it's hard to confirm this statement definitively.

C. FortiGate redirected the client to the captive portal to authenticate, so that a correct policy match could be made.
This is a very likely scenario if the context involves a captive portal for user authentication, particularly in cases where the session needs to be authenticated before applying security policies. If the session hasn’t been authenticated, FortiGate may redirect the client to a captive portal, where users can authenticate and then a policy match is made.

D. FortiGate applied only IPS inspection to this session.
This option is specific to IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) inspection. If IPS is the only profile applied to the session, this could be correct. However, if other security profiles like antivirus or web filtering are applied, FortiGate will perform additional inspections beyond just IPS.

Answer: C. FortiGate redirected the client to the captive portal to authenticate, so that a correct policy match could be made.

Explanation:

When a session involves a captive portal, FortiGate typically redirects the client to authenticate before continuing. This ensures that proper policy matching (such as user identity, access level, etc.) can be applied once the user is authenticated. This is common in scenarios where user identity or session details are required for correct policy enforcement.

Question No 5:

Which statement about IKE and IKE NAT-T is true?

A. IKE is used to encapsulate ESP traffic in some situations, and IKE NAT-T is used only when the local FortiGate is using NAT on the IPsec interface.
B. IKE is the standard implementation for IKEv1 and IKE NAT-T is an extension added in IKEv2.
C. They each use their own IP protocol number.
D. They both use UDP as their transport protocol and the port number is configurable.

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

IKE (Internet Key Exchange) and IKE NAT-T (NAT Traversal) are critical components in IPsec VPNs, particularly when dealing with the traversal of NAT (Network Address Translation) devices. Let's break down each of the options and why D is correct.

D. They both use UDP as their transport protocol and the port number is configurable:
This is the correct statement. Both IKE and IKE NAT-T use UDP (User Datagram Protocol) for transport, and the default ports for these protocols are 500 for IKE and 4500 for NAT-T. However, the port numbers can be configured depending on the specific needs of the network or firewall policies. IKE uses UDP port 500 by default for negotiation, and IKE NAT-T (used when NAT is detected between peers) typically uses UDP port 4500. Since both protocols rely on UDP and have configurable port numbers, this statement is accurate.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. IKE is used to encapsulate ESP traffic in some situations, and IKE NAT-T is used only when the local FortiGate is using NAT on the IPsec interface:
This statement is misleading. IKE itself is used for the negotiation of IPsec keys and is not used to encapsulate ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) traffic. IKE NAT-T is used to allow IKE traffic to traverse NAT devices by encapsulating the IKE traffic in UDP, but it’s not specifically tied to situations where NAT is used on the IPsec interface alone. The purpose of NAT-T is to enable IKE packets to be sent through NAT devices by encapsulating them in UDP, not just when NAT is used on the IPsec interface.

B. IKE is the standard implementation for IKEv1 and IKE NAT-T is an extension added in IKEv2:
This is incorrect. IKE NAT-T is not a feature that was introduced in IKEv2 but is instead a part of IKEv1. NAT-T was originally designed to handle IKEv1 traffic through NAT devices. While IKEv2 does include improved features, NAT-T itself was already part of IKEv1. It is not an extension added only in IKEv2.

C. They each use their own IP protocol number:
This is incorrect. Both IKE and IKE NAT-T use UDP as their transport protocol. IKE typically uses UDP port 500, while IKE NAT-T uses UDP port 4500, but they do not have distinct IP protocol numbers. IP protocol numbers are more commonly associated with protocols like ESP (IP protocol number 50) or AH (IP protocol number 51).

In summary, the correct answer is D, as both IKE and IKE NAT-T use UDP as the transport protocol, and the port numbers are configurable depending on network requirements.

Question No 6:

If the HA ID for the primary device is 0, what happens if the primary fails and the secondary becomes the primary?

A. The session will be removed from the session table of the secondary device because of the presence of allowed error packets, which will force the client to restart the session with the server.
B. The session state is preserved but the kernel will need to re-evaluate the session because NAT was applied.
C. Traffic for this session continues to be permitted on the new primary device after failover, without requiring the client to restart the session with the server.
D. The secondary device has this session synchronized; however, because application control is applied, the session is marked dirty and has to be re-evaluated after failover.

The correct answer is C.

Explanation:

When dealing with High Availability (HA) configurations, especially in scenarios involving a failover from a primary device to a secondary device, session handling and traffic continuity are key concerns.

A (The session will be removed from the session table of the secondary device because of the presence of allowed error packets, which will force the client to restart the session with the server): In most HA systems, the secondary device maintains synchronization with the primary device to handle failover efficiently. However, this answer focuses on error packets causing the session to be removed, which doesn't accurately reflect the typical behavior of session persistence in most HA environments.
B (The session state is preserved but the kernel will need to re-evaluate the session because NAT was applied): NAT sessions can sometimes be more complex to preserve during failover, and while the session state may be preserved, re-evaluating the session can indeed be required if NAT or other transformations were involved. However, this would depend on the specific HA implementation and how state synchronization is handled.
C (Traffic for this session continues to be permitted on the new primary device after failover, without requiring the client to restart the session with the server): This is the ideal scenario for HA configurations. In a well-designed HA setup, the session state is typically synchronized between devices, allowing traffic to continue uninterrupted after failover. There should be no need for the client to restart the session, ensuring a seamless transition.
D (The secondary device has this session synchronized; however, because application control is applied, the session is marked dirty and has to be re-evaluated after failover): Application control features can sometimes cause the session to be marked as "dirty," meaning it must be re-evaluated upon failover to ensure that the security policies or application-layer processing is correctly applied. This is a more accurate reflection of what can happen in some environments where application control affects session handling.

The most common behavior in well-configured HA environments, especially when failover occurs, is that the session continues seamlessly, with minimal impact to the client or session state.

Thus, the correct answer is C.

Question No 7:

Which three conditions are required for two FortiGate devices to form an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)

A. OSPF link costs match.
B. OSPF interface priority settings are unique.
C. OSPF interface network types match.
D. Authentication settings match.
E. OSPF router IDs are unique.

Answer: C, D, E

Explanation:

For two FortiGate devices to establish an OSPF adjacency, several conditions must be met. These include matching OSPF settings for network type, authentication, and router ID uniqueness. Let’s examine each option and its relevance:

C. OSPF interface network types match: This is a critical requirement for OSPF adjacency formation. The network type on both sides of the OSPF interface must match for the devices to form a valid adjacency. For example, if one side is configured for point-to-point and the other side is configured for broadcast, the adjacency will not be formed.
D. Authentication settings match: Authentication is an optional but often used feature in OSPF to secure routing updates. If authentication is configured, the settings (authentication method, password, etc.) must match on both sides for the adjacency to be established.
E. OSPF router IDs are unique: OSPF router IDs must be unique within the OSPF autonomous system. This is necessary because the router ID identifies the device within the OSPF network, and duplicate IDs would cause conflicts and prevent the formation of adjacencies.

Now, let’s review why the other options are less relevant:

A. OSPF link costs match: The OSPF link cost is a metric that influences path selection, not adjacency formation. While matching link costs might affect which route is preferred, it does not impact the ability to form an adjacency. OSPF devices can still form an adjacency even if the link costs differ, as long as the other necessary conditions are met.
B. OSPF interface priority settings are unique: The interface priority affects the selection of the Designated Router (DR) in multi-access networks, but it does not prevent the formation of an OSPF adjacency. The priority is used to break ties when selecting the DR and Backup DR but is not a required condition for the adjacency itself.

In conclusion, the three essential conditions for two FortiGate devices to form an OSPF adjacency are that the interface network types must match, authentication settings must match, and router IDs must be unique. Therefore, the correct answers are C, D, and E.

Question No 8:

If the priority on route ID 2 were changed from 10 to 0, what would happen to traffic matching that user session?

A. The session would be deleted, and the client would need to start a new session.
B. The session would remain in the session table, but its traffic would now egress from both port1 and port2.
C. The session would remain in the session table, and its traffic would egress from port2.
D. The session would remain in the session table, and its traffic would egress from port1.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

When the priority of a route in a routing table changes, such as from 10 to 0, it affects how the FortiGate firewall determines the best route for outgoing traffic. Routes are selected based on priority, and if the priority of a route changes, it could cause a shift in which route is considered the most preferred.

Here’s a detailed breakdown of what happens in this case:

A. The session would be deleted, and the client would need to start a new session.
This is incorrect. Changing the priority of a route does not cause an immediate session deletion. The session remains in the session table unless it is manually deleted or expires due to inactivity. The session continues, but the traffic egress path changes according to the new route priority.
B. The session would remain in the session table, but its traffic would now egress from both port1 and port2.
This is incorrect. The traffic for the session will not simultaneously egress from both ports unless specifically configured for load balancing or multipath routing. Route priority only determines which route is selected, not an automatic splitting of traffic.
C. The session would remain in the session table, and its traffic would egress from port2.
This is correct. When the priority of a route changes to a lower value, causing it to become the preferred route, the FortiGate will adjust the traffic flow to use the new preferred route. If route ID 2 with the new priority (0) is now the best route, the session's traffic will start egressing from the interface associated with that route, which in this case is port2.
D. The session would remain in the session table, and its traffic would egress from port1.
This is incorrect. Since the priority change to route ID 2 makes it the preferred route, traffic will now exit through port2, not port1. Port1 would only remain the egress point if it had the higher priority (lower numerical value).

Thus, the correct answer is C, as it accurately reflects that the session remains in the session table, and traffic is routed according to the new, lower-priority route, leading to egress from port2.

Question No 9:

What three conclusions can you draw from these log entries? (Choose three.)

A. Remote registry is not running on the workstation.
B. The FortiGate firmware version is not compatible with that of the collector agent.
C. DNS resolution is unable to resolve the workstation name.
D. The user’s status shows as “not verified” in the collector agent.
E. A firewall is blocking traffic to port 139 and 445.

Correct answer: A, C, E

Explanation:

In analyzing these log entries, several conclusions can be drawn based on common network and security issues that might be recorded in the logs. Let’s break down the options:

A. Remote registry is not running on the workstation: Remote registry is a service that allows remote management of Windows machines. If the log entries indicate that connections to the workstation fail due to remote registry services not being available, then it’s reasonable to conclude that this service isn’t running on the workstation. This could prevent certain remote management operations from being executed properly.
B. The FortiGate firmware version is not compatible with that of the collector agent: While firmware compatibility issues can occur, there is no direct indication of firmware version mismatches solely based on log entries unless explicit errors related to version incompatibilities are recorded. This conclusion is not likely unless specifically stated in the logs.
C. DNS resolution is unable to resolve the workstation name: DNS resolution issues typically appear in logs when the system tries to resolve a hostname but is unable to connect to the DNS server or resolve the name. If the log indicates that the workstation name couldn’t be resolved, this would suggest that DNS is not functioning correctly for this particular name or that the name is incorrect.
D. The user’s status shows as “not verified” in the collector agent: This could be a potential conclusion if the logs include entries indicating that the collector agent is failing to verify the user's status. However, the “not verified” status is more likely related to authentication or authorization issues rather than a direct cause of connectivity failure, so this is less relevant unless indicated specifically by the logs.
E. A firewall is blocking traffic to port 139 and 445: Ports 139 and 445 are commonly used for Windows file sharing and remote management (e.g., SMB protocol). If there are issues with accessing these ports on the workstation, such as from a firewall, the log might indicate that these ports are blocked, preventing proper communication. If the logs show network-related failures involving these ports, this would be a reasonable conclusion.

In conclusion, A, C, and E are the most likely conclusions based on typical network and security issues that are recorded in logs.