Netskope NSK200 Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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NSK200 Netskope Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

What are the three event types accessible via Netskope's REST API v2?

A application
B alert
C client
D infrastructure
E user

Answer: A, B, E

Explanation:

Netskope's REST API v2 provides access to specific event types that help users track and manage cloud security events. These event types allow for monitoring and responding to various activities across the network. Let's break down the options:

A. application: This event type relates to the monitoring of application activity within the network. It captures events associated with applications used within the organization, such as cloud services, and is important for identifying which applications are being accessed and how they are interacting with your environment. This is one of the event types accessible via the API.
B. alert: Alerts are triggered based on predefined conditions or thresholds within the security framework. The REST API allows access to these alerts to track potentially suspicious or abnormal activities. Access to this event type helps security teams quickly identify and respond to threats.
C. client: This event type deals with activities from client-side interactions. However, it is not one of the event types accessible via Netskope's REST API v2.
D. infrastructure: Infrastructure-related events focus on system-level events within the network's infrastructure. Although infrastructure events are important for broader system monitoring, they are not one of the event types directly accessible through the API.
E. user: User events are related to activities by specific users within the environment. These events are critical for understanding user behavior and identifying potential insider threats or risky activities. The REST API gives users access to these types of events, making it essential for monitoring user interactions with cloud services.

In summary, the correct event types accessible via Netskope's REST API v2 are A, B, and E. These event types focus on tracking application activities, alerts, and user interactions within the cloud environment. The C and D options do not pertain to the event types provided by the API. Access to these event types enables security professionals to better monitor and control their cloud security environment.

Question No 2:

What should be added to ensure that users cannot log in to their personal Google account while using the corporate collaboration suite?

A. Google Gmail app
B. User Constraint
C. DLP profile
D. Device classification

Explanation:

To ensure that users cannot log in to their personal Google account while using the corporate collaboration suite, the best approach would involve restricting access based on specific user constraints. These constraints can be applied to manage and control login activities effectively, preventing access to unauthorized services like personal Google accounts.

A. Google Gmail app is not the correct choice in this scenario because it is specific to a particular application and would not directly address the issue of restricting personal logins across the entire Google suite. Adding the Gmail app would only be relevant if the issue was specifically with email services, which is not the case here.

B. User Constraint is the most appropriate option. By applying user constraints, administrators can enforce rules to restrict certain types of access. For example, these constraints can block users from logging in with personal accounts on the corporate Google platform. User constraints can limit login attempts or enforce multi-factor authentication and are effective in ensuring users can only access corporate services, aligning with the company's policy.

C. DLP profile (Data Loss Prevention) focuses on protecting sensitive information and preventing data breaches. While useful for monitoring and securing corporate data, it does not specifically address login restrictions or personal account access. A DLP profile would be useful for tracking activities within corporate accounts, but it wouldn't stop users from logging into personal Google accounts.

D. Device classification helps in managing devices and ensuring that only compliant devices are granted access to corporate resources. Although this can be part of an overall security strategy, it doesn't directly address the problem of restricting access to personal Google accounts.

In summary, B. User Constraint is the correct answer because it enables the enforcement of policies to block unauthorized personal logins, ensuring compliance with the corporate policy.

Question No 3:

Which two settings are causing the inability to access the Web server over SSL when the Netskope client is enabled? (Choose two.)

A. SSL pinned certificates are blocked.
B. Untrusted root certificates are blocked.
C. Incomplete certificate trust chains are blocked.
D. Self-signed server certificates are blocked.

Correct answer: B, D

Explanation:

When deploying SSL certificates for secure web communications, it is crucial that the certificate chain is valid and trusted by the client system. In this scenario, the issue occurs when the Netskope client, which inspects traffic for security reasons, is enabled. The inability to access the web server over SSL is due to the blocking of certain types of certificates by the Netskope configuration.

Untrusted Root Certificates Are Blocked (B):

One of the most common reasons SSL connections fail is due to the root certificate not being trusted. In the case of self-signed certificates, they are not signed by a recognized trusted certificate authority (CA), meaning that the root certificate used to sign the self-signed certificate is not automatically trusted by the client systems or security tools like Netskope. Netskope’s default configuration likely blocks such untrusted root certificates from being accepted, which causes SSL connection failures. This blockage ensures that potentially insecure or unverified certificates do not pose a security risk.

Self-Signed Server Certificates Are Blocked (D):

Self-signed certificates, which are often used in development or testing environments, are also considered untrusted because they are not signed by a recognized certificate authority (CA). Netskope’s default security configuration can block self-signed certificates, assuming they are insecure since they do not go through the same vetting process as certificates issued by trusted authorities. Blocking these certificates prevents man-in-the-middle attacks and ensures only certificates from trusted CAs are used for SSL/TLS communication.

SSL Pinned Certificates Are Blocked (A):

SSL pinning is a security feature where the client verifies that the server’s certificate matches a known, pre-configured certificate or public key. However, this scenario does not specifically mention SSL pinning as being enabled, nor does it imply that pinning would be interfering with self-signed certificates. Therefore, blocking SSL-pinned certificates is not the cause of the issue described in this context.

Incomplete Certificate Trust Chains Are Blocked (C):

Incomplete certificate chains occur when an intermediate certificate is missing, and the trust chain cannot be fully verified. While this is a potential SSL issue, it is not the root cause here. The primary issue stems from the self-signed nature of the server certificate and the untrusted root certificate, not an incomplete chain. Therefore, this is not the main reason the Netskope client is blocking the connection.

In conclusion, the primary causes of this issue are B. Untrusted root certificates are blocked and D. Self-signed server certificates are blocked, as these settings prevent the Netskope client from accepting the self-signed SSL certificates used by the web server.

Question No 4:

An engineering firm is using Netskope DLP to identify and block sensitive documents, including schematics and drawings. Recently, they noticed that when these documents are blocked, certain employees may be taking screenshots and uploading them. They want to prevent any screenshots from being uploaded.

Which feature would you use to satisfy this requirement?

A. exact data match (EDM)
B. document fingerprinting
C. ML image classifier
D. optical character recognition (OCR)

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

In this scenario, the engineering firm needs to address the issue of sensitive documents being shared via screenshots. Since screenshots are images, traditional data leak prevention (DLP) solutions that focus on matching text or files may not identify or block them. The most suitable solution for blocking screenshots is using ML image classifier, which leverages machine learning to detect and classify image content. This technology can scan images (including screenshots) for sensitive data like text, logos, or schematics, and prevent their upload if they contain sensitive information.

Now let’s break down why other options are not as effective for this scenario:

A. exact data match (EDM): EDM is designed to match exact sequences of data (such as Social Security numbers or account numbers) against a database. While EDM is excellent for identifying specific patterns or data points, it cannot effectively identify sensitive content embedded in images, such as screenshots. Therefore, EDM would not be able to detect sensitive information in a screenshot.

B. document fingerprinting: Document fingerprinting creates a unique "signature" of a document based on its content, allowing DLP systems to recognize and block identical documents. However, this method works with static files, not dynamic content like screenshots. If an employee captures a screenshot of a blocked document and uploads it, fingerprinting would not be effective because the screenshot is an image, not the original document.

D. optical character recognition (OCR): OCR technology can extract text from images, making it useful for identifying text-based content in screenshots. However, OCR alone may not be sufficient for detecting sensitive visual content that doesn't include identifiable text. It also requires that the text in the screenshot is clear and legible, which may not always be the case. While OCR could potentially assist in this scenario, ML image classifier would be the more robust and reliable solution for identifying and blocking sensitive content within images.

In conclusion, the ML image classifier is the best choice because it leverages machine learning to detect sensitive content in images, such as screenshots of sensitive documents, making it the most effective way to address the firm's needs.

Question No 5:

You are on the Malware Incident page, and a virus was detected by the Netskope Heuristics Engine. The security team has confirmed the virus was a test data file, and you want to allow the security team to use this file.

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Click the "Add To File Filter" button to add the IOC to a file list.
B. Contact the CrowdStrike administrator to have the file marked as safe.
C. Click the "Lookup VirusTotal" button to verify if this IOC is a false positive.
D. Create a malware detection profile and update the file hash list with the IOC.

Correct answer: A, C

Explanation:

When managing malware incidents detected by Netskope's Heuristics Engine, it is crucial to confirm whether the file is legitimate or if it was incorrectly flagged as a virus. Given the context, two specific steps are appropriate for handling the situation.

A: Adding the Indicator of Compromise (IOC) to a file filter is a key action. By using the "Add To File Filter" button, you can include the IOC in a file list, allowing the security team to review and whitelist the file if deemed safe. This step ensures that future detections of the same file do not trigger unnecessary alerts, streamlining the workflow for your security team and preventing the file from being flagged again.

C: Verifying whether the IOC is a false positive by using VirusTotal is an important step in understanding the file's safety. VirusTotal aggregates results from multiple antivirus engines, providing a broader perspective on the file's reputation. By clicking the "Lookup VirusTotal" button, you can quickly confirm whether the file has been flagged by other engines as well. If it is identified as a false positive, you can proceed to approve the file for use by the security team.

B: While contacting the CrowdStrike administrator might be part of a broader security strategy, it is not the immediate or most relevant action in this case. The file was already flagged by the Netskope engine, and addressing this through the internal processes (such as adding the file to a filter or verifying via VirusTotal) is more efficient than waiting for an external team to mark it as safe.

D: Creating a malware detection profile and updating the file hash list with the IOC could be a longer-term solution for future incidents, but it is not the immediate step to take here. You are focused on allowing the use of this specific file, and the more direct action would be to adjust the file filter or confirm its safety via VirusTotal.

Question No 6:

Which object would be selected when creating a Malware Detection profile?

A. DLP profile
B. File profile
C. Domain profile
D. User profile

Answer: B

Explanation:

When creating a Malware Detection profile, the correct object to select would be the File profile. Malware detection focuses primarily on identifying and mitigating threats associated with files, whether they are incoming or outgoing. A File profile enables the detection of potentially malicious files based on their signatures, behavior, or characteristics, and is essential for identifying threats at the file level. This profile can be configured to scan files across various network locations and examine their content for suspicious patterns indicative of malware.

A DLP profile (A) pertains to Data Loss Prevention, which is designed to prevent the unauthorized sharing or leakage of sensitive information. While this is an important security aspect, it does not focus on malware detection and is not the appropriate choice when setting up a malware detection profile.

A Domain profile (C) is typically used to monitor network traffic associated with specific domains, but it is not directly concerned with malware detection. Malware is more often detected in files, not just domain-level activity.

A User profile (D) tracks and monitors user activity across a network but does not specifically deal with the detection of malware. Although user behavior might help in identifying potential threats, the profile itself is more focused on user-based monitoring than on detecting malware.

Therefore, the File profile is the correct selection for creating a Malware Detection profile, as it is specifically designed to address the detection and analysis of malicious files within a network environment.

Question No 7:

You want to secure Microsoft Exchange and Gmail SMTP traffic for DLP using Netskope. Which statement is true about this scenario when using the Netskope client?

A. Netskope can inspect outbound SMTP traffic for Microsoft Exchange and Gmail.
B. Enable Cloud Firewall to inspect inbound SMTP traffic for Microsoft Exchange and Gmail.
C. Netskope can inspect inbound and outbound SMTP traffic for Microsoft Exchange and Gmail.
D. Enable REST API v2 to inspect inbound SMTP traffic for Microsoft Exchange and Gmail.

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

In this scenario, you're looking to secure Microsoft Exchange and Gmail SMTP traffic for Data Loss Prevention (DLP) using Netskope. Netskope is known for its cloud security solutions, which provide detailed monitoring and control over network traffic, particularly focusing on SaaS applications, cloud services, and web traffic.

The key factor in this case is the SMTP traffic inspection. Netskope can inspect outbound SMTP traffic for services such as Microsoft Exchange and Gmail when using the Netskope client. The Netskope client acts as a conduit for monitoring, enabling the inspection of traffic, including emails sent from these platforms, which is crucial for DLP purposes. This helps prevent sensitive information from being leaked externally via email.

Now, let’s break down the options:

A. Netskope can inspect outbound SMTP traffic for Microsoft Exchange and Gmail.
This statement is correct because Netskope can inspect outbound SMTP traffic to prevent the accidental or malicious sharing of sensitive data through email. When configuring Netskope for DLP, it can scan emails and attachments sent from email clients like Microsoft Exchange or Gmail to detect sensitive information and enforce security policies.

B. Enable Cloud Firewall to inspect inbound SMTP traffic for Microsoft Exchange and Gmail.
This option is incorrect because Cloud Firewall in Netskope typically focuses on controlling traffic to and from cloud applications or web destinations, rather than directly inspecting inbound SMTP traffic. Additionally, inbound traffic isn't typically handled by the Netskope client in the same way that outbound traffic is.

C. Netskope can inspect inbound and outbound SMTP traffic for Microsoft Exchange and Gmail.
While Netskope excels at inspecting outbound traffic, inbound SMTP traffic (especially for Gmail or Microsoft Exchange) is usually not part of the Netskope client’s capabilities. It primarily inspects outbound traffic for data leakage prevention, making this statement partially true but not fully aligned with the client's primary functionality.

D. Enable REST API v2 to inspect inbound SMTP traffic for Microsoft Exchange and Gmail.
This option is incorrect because REST API v2 is typically used for integration and management of cloud services and applications, not for SMTP traffic inspection. It would not be used for monitoring inbound SMTP traffic specifically.

Therefore, the correct answer is A, as Netskope is able to monitor and secure outbound SMTP traffic to prevent data leakage in Microsoft Exchange and Gmail.

Question No 8:

In a scenario where quarantined files are triggered by a DLP policy, which statement is true?

A. The files are stored remotely in your data center assigned in the Quarantine profile.
B. The files are stored in the Netskope data center assigned in the Quarantine profile.
C. The files are stored in the Cloud provider assigned in the Quarantine profile.
D. The files are stored on the administrator console PC assigned in the Quarantine profile.

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

When a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policy triggers a quarantine action, the quarantined files must be securely stored in a manner that ensures both safety and compliance with security protocols. Among the options, B is the correct statement, as the files are stored in the Netskope data center, which is specifically designated for handling such quarantined files when managed through their platform. This allows the organization to isolate sensitive data that violates policy without risking exposure or mishandling by end-users or administrators.

The other options refer to storage locations that are either not relevant to this process or would not ensure the appropriate level of security for quarantined files. Let’s break down why the other options are incorrect:

A. The files being stored in your data center would imply that the security platform is storing quarantined files locally, which can pose risks to the overall security infrastructure. Storing quarantined files in a local data center would typically require additional security measures, and it would also limit the scalability and flexibility provided by a cloud solution like Netskope.
C. Storing files in the Cloud provider assigned in the Quarantine profile is not the correct answer because the policy specifically references the use of a dedicated cloud service provider associated with the DLP solution, which is typically an integrated part of the platform rather than a generic cloud provider.
D. The administrator console PC being responsible for storing quarantined files is not a valid solution for this scenario, as it would create a significant security risk. Storing quarantined files on a local administrator machine is not a scalable or secure practice, especially considering the sensitivity of such files.

Therefore, B is the best answer, as it describes the most secure and compliant method for handling quarantined files under a DLP policy in the context of Netskope’s solution.

Question No 9:

You are experiencing issues with fetching user and group information periodically from the domain controller and posting that information to your tenant instance in the Netskope cloud.

What would you investigate first in this situation?

A. On-Premises Loc Parser
B. Directory Importer
C. DNS Connector
D. AD Connector

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

In this situation, the first component you should investigate is the Directory Importer, as it is responsible for syncing user and group information from your domain controller to your tenant instance in the Netskope cloud. The Directory Importer ensures that the appropriate user and group data is fetched periodically, and if there are issues with this process, it could lead to the kind of problem you're describing.

Here’s why each component is important and how it relates to the issue:

A. On-Premises Loc Parser: The On-Premises Loc Parser is typically involved in parsing location data and interpreting network traffic or user activity logs for monitoring and policy enforcement. While important for some use cases, it is not directly responsible for syncing user and group data from the domain controller to the cloud, so it is less likely to be the source of the issue.
B. Directory Importer: This is the correct answer because the Directory Importer is directly responsible for periodically fetching user and group information from the on-premises Active Directory (AD) or domain controller and importing that data into Netskope's cloud environment. If the information isn't being properly synced, issues with the Directory Importer (such as configuration errors, connectivity problems, or authentication failures) could be the root cause. You should start by checking the configuration and logs of the Directory Importer to identify any issues that might be preventing successful synchronization.
C. DNS Connector: The DNS Connector is generally used to manage and facilitate DNS-related interactions within the environment. While it can impact communication between different network services or systems, it is unlikely to be the cause of issues related to fetching user and group information from the domain controller.
D. AD Connector: The AD Connector is used to integrate your directory services with Netskope’s cloud platform. However, in this case, the Directory Importer is the component directly responsible for importing user and group data. The AD Connector ensures general integration but does not handle the periodic fetching of specific user/group data as the Directory Importer does.

Thus, the Directory Importer is the component you should investigate first to resolve the issue of syncing user and group information.

Question No 10:

What could explain why the Netskope client for user Clarke remains in a disabled state after being installed, according to the logs from the nsADImporterLog.log?

A. The client was not installed with administrative privileges.
B. The Active Directory user is not synchronized to the Netskope tenant.
C. This is normal: it might take up to an hour to be enabled.
D. The client traffic is decrypted by a network security device.

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

The key to solving this issue lies in understanding what the logs in the nsADImporterLog.log are indicating. From the exhibit, it appears that the problem might be related to the synchronization of the Active Directory (AD) user to the Netskope tenant. If the user Clarke's account has not yet been synchronized properly between Active Directory and the Netskope tenant, the client would not be able to activate and would remain in a disabled state.

In many cases, when integrating with Netskope, synchronization with Active Directory is essential to map users and devices to the correct policies and configurations. The absence of this synchronization could explain why the client is not being enabled for use — as the system might be waiting for the correct synchronization before activating the client fully.

A. The client was not installed with administrative privileges:
While administrative privileges are crucial for installing software in many cases, the logs do not suggest a failure that would occur due to lack of these privileges. Typically, if this were the issue, you would see errors related to access control or permission failures, which are not the focus here. Thus, this option is less likely to be the cause of the disabled state.

C. This is normal: it might take up to an hour to be enabled:
Although it is possible for systems to have delays in activation or enabling, an hour-long delay for the client to remain disabled does not typically match the behavior you're seeing based on the logs. Delays might occur, but this problem points to an underlying issue with synchronization, which suggests it’s not just a simple delay.

D. The client traffic is decrypted by a network security device:
This option refers to a scenario where traffic decryption by a security device might cause issues, but it doesn't directly correlate to the client being disabled. If traffic decryption were an issue, it might interfere with traffic routing or inspection, but the logs don't show a problem with how traffic is handled. Instead, they focus on synchronization, making this option less likely.

Thus, the most probable cause for the client's disabled state is the lack of proper synchronization between the Active Directory user and the Netskope tenant, as indicated by the logs.