Palo Alto Networks PCCSE Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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PCCSE Palo Alto Networks Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

Given a default deployment of Console, a customer needs to identify the alerted compliance checks that are set by default. Where should the customer navigate in Console?

A. Monitor > Compliance
B. Defend > Compliance
C. Manage > Compliance
D. Custom > Compliance

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In the context of managing compliance checks and alerts in a default deployment of Console, the customer would need to identify where the compliance-related information is available for monitoring purposes. Console typically offers a dedicated section for monitoring compliance checks, where alerted compliance issues are displayed.

Option A, Monitor > Compliance, is the correct choice. The "Monitor" section in Console is typically designed to handle ongoing observance of system activities, including any compliance checks that have been set up by default. In this section, the customer can find the list of alerts for compliance checks and monitor their status, including any default compliance rules that have been applied.

Option B, Defend > Compliance, would typically be associated with settings or features related to active defense mechanisms rather than monitoring compliance checks. This is not the section for identifying default compliance alerts, making B an incorrect choice.

Option C, Manage > Compliance, could be used for administrative tasks such as managing policies or configuring settings, but it's less likely to be the section where alerted compliance checks are visible. This makes C a less appropriate option compared to A.

Option D, Custom > Compliance, would likely be used for customized compliance rules or configurations that the user has personally defined. Since the customer needs to identify default compliance checks, this section is not the right place to find the pre-configured alerts, making D an incorrect choice.

In conclusion, A (Monitor > Compliance) is the appropriate navigation path, as it leads to the section where the customer can observe and identify alerted compliance checks that are set by default in the Console deployment.

Question No 2:

The development team wants to fail CI jobs where a specific CVE is contained within the image. How should the development team configure the pipeline or policy to produce this outcome?

A. Set the specific CVE exception as an option in Jenkins or twistcli.
B. Set the specific CVE exception as an option in Defender running the scan.
C. Set the specific CVE exception as an option using the magic string in the Console.
D. Set the specific CVE exception in Console’s CI policy.

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

In this scenario, the development team aims to configure a policy that will cause Continuous Integration (CI) jobs to fail when a specific Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is found within the image. This type of policy is typically managed in security scanning tools integrated into the CI/CD pipeline. To accomplish the goal of automatically failing jobs based on the presence of specific vulnerabilities, such as a CVE, the most effective approach is to configure the policy at the Console level, specifically within the CI policy.

Option D ("Set the specific CVE exception in Console’s CI policy") is the correct choice because it allows the team to configure the security scanning tool (like Azure Defender or other security platforms) to identify the specific CVE and enforce the policy to fail the CI jobs automatically when this CVE is detected in the image. This method directly ties into the CI/CD pipeline's policies and enforces the desired behavior seamlessly, without needing manual intervention.

Option A ("Set the specific CVE exception as an option in Jenkins or twistcli") refers to configuring Jenkins or the twistcli tool to manage CVE exceptions. While Jenkins can integrate with security tools for vulnerability scanning, the specific failure policy related to CVEs is typically handled by the security scanner's policy rather than at the Jenkins level. Thus, this option is less ideal because Jenkins does not directly control the policy for failing based on a specific CVE.

Option B ("Set the specific CVE exception as an option in Defender running the scan") implies configuring exceptions or rules directly within Defender. Although Defender can indeed be used to scan for vulnerabilities, the configuration of CI pipeline behaviors, like failing jobs, is more efficiently managed via the CI policy in the Console, not solely within Defender itself. While Defender can detect vulnerabilities, its integration with the broader CI/CD pipeline is usually managed at a higher level.

Option C ("Set the specific CVE exception as an option using the magic string in the Console") seems to suggest an advanced or automated method using a specific string or tag in the Console, but this is not the typical approach for managing CVE-based job failures in a CI pipeline. The "magic string" terminology might refer to a specific configuration or rule, but the proper way to configure policies for failing jobs based on CVEs is through a CI policy in the Console, as described in Option D.

Therefore, option D is the correct approach as it directly addresses the need to fail CI jobs when a specific CVE is detected by configuring this behavior in the Console’s CI policy.

Question No 3:

Which three types of classifications are available in the Data Security module? (Choose three.)

A. Personally identifiable information
B. Malicious IP
C. Compliance standard
D. Financial information
E. Malware

Correct answer: A, C, and D

Explanation:

In the Data Security module, classifications are typically used to categorize different types of sensitive data and other security-related concerns. These classifications help organizations identify and protect critical data assets according to specific privacy, compliance, and security requirements.

Let’s examine each option:

A. Personally identifiable information (PII):
Personally identifiable information is one of the most critical types of data to protect. It includes any data that can be used to identify a person, such as names, addresses, social security numbers, and other sensitive identifiers. In the Data Security module, PII is a fundamental classification because it is subject to various regulations such as GDPR, HIPAA, and CCPA, all of which mandate stringent handling and protection.

C. Compliance standard:
Compliance standards classify data according to various regulatory frameworks or industry standards that govern how certain types of data must be handled. These standards may include regulations such as PCI-DSS for payment card information, HIPAA for healthcare data, or GDPR for personal data protection in the European Union. Classifying data based on compliance requirements helps ensure that data is handled according to the necessary legal and regulatory frameworks.

D. Financial information:
Financial information is another important classification in the Data Security module. This type of data refers to any information related to financial transactions, accounts, or records, including credit card numbers, bank account details, or investment information. Financial data often requires enhanced protection due to its sensitivity and is subject to strict regulations and industry standards, such as PCI-DSS.

Now, let’s review why the other options are incorrect:

B. Malicious IP:
Malicious IP addresses generally refer to the identification of IP addresses associated with malicious activities, such as attacks or unauthorized access attempts. While security systems often track malicious IPs, they are typically categorized under threat intelligence or security monitoring, rather than a classification of data in the Data Security module. This is more about security events or monitoring rather than data classification.

E. Malware:
Malware refers to malicious software designed to disrupt or damage systems. While malware is critical to security, it is not typically a classification of data within the Data Security module. Instead, malware detection and response are usually part of broader security monitoring or threat prevention measures, not a category for data classification.

Therefore, the correct classifications available in the Data Security module are A, C, and D, as they directly relate to sensitive data categories that require protection under various privacy and compliance standards.

Question No 4:

A customer has a requirement to terminate any Container from image topSecret:latest when a process named ransomWare is executed. How should the administrator configure Prisma Cloud Compute to satisfy this requirement?

A. set the Container model to manual relearn and set the default runtime rule to block for process protection.
B. set the Container model to relearn and set the default runtime rule to prevent for process protection.
C. add a new runtime policy targeted at a specific Container name, add ransomWare process into the denied process list, and set the action to "prevent".
D. choose "copy into rule" for the Container, add a ransomWare process into the denied process list, and set the action to "block".

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

To meet the requirement of terminating any container running an image called topSecret:latest when a process named ransomWare is executed, Prisma Cloud Compute can be configured using a runtime policy that targets specific processes and containers. Here is a breakdown of the configuration needed to achieve this:

Option C: add a new runtime policy targeted at a specific Container name, add ransomWare process into the denied process list, and set the action to "prevent".
This option is the best approach because Prisma Cloud allows you to create specific runtime policies to protect containers based on process behavior. In this case, you can create a policy that:
Targets containers by their image name (in this case, topSecret:latest).
Adds the ransomWare process to the denied process list.
Configures the action to "prevent", which ensures that if ransomWare is detected, the process will be stopped and the container will be terminated. This meets the customer's requirement to halt any container with this image running the ransomWare process.

The other options are not ideal for the following reasons:

Option A: set the Container model to manual relearn and set the default runtime rule to block for process protection.
This option suggests manually relearning the container model, which might not be the most efficient way to deal with a specific process like ransomWare. The block action might stop the process but doesn't offer fine-grained control over preventing only certain malicious processes (like ransomWare), nor does it target specific containers by image name.
Option B: set the Container model to relearn and set the default runtime rule to prevent for process protection.
Although this option sets the action to prevent, it doesn’t offer the specificity needed for this use case. Setting a default runtime rule for process protection and choosing relearn is too broad, and it wouldn't be targeted specifically at the container running topSecret:latest and the ransomWare process. It is a less precise way of configuring the environment compared to the approach in option C.

Option D: choose "copy into rule" for the Container, add a ransomWare process into the denied process list, and set the action to "block".
While this option addresses the process and sets the block action, it uses a less straightforward approach to defining runtime policies. The "copy into rule" concept is not the most appropriate for this type of requirement. Instead, a custom runtime policy (as in Option C) provides a more targeted and specific solution.

Thus, Option C is the correct choice as it allows the administrator to configure Prisma Cloud Compute to specifically target containers running the image topSecret:latest and terminate them when the ransomWare process is detected.

Question No 5:

Which statement is true about obtaining Console images for Prisma Cloud Compute Edition?

A. To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using basic auth: 1. Access registry.paloaltonetworks.com, and authenticate using ‘docker login’. 2. Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using ‘docker pull’.
B. To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using basic auth: 1. Access registry.twistlock.com, and authenticate using ‘docker login’. 2. Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using ‘docker pull’.
C. To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using URL auth: 1. Access registry-url-auth.twistlock.com, and authenticate using the user certificate. 2. Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using ‘docker pull’.
D. To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using URL auth: 1. Access registry-auth.twistlock.com, and authenticate using the user certificate. 2. Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using ‘docker pull’.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Prisma Cloud Compute Edition (formerly known as Twistlock) is a cloud-native security solution designed to secure containers, serverless applications, and cloud infrastructures. Retrieving Prisma Cloud Console images is a critical step in setting up the product, and several methods of authentication can be used, such as basic auth or URL-based auth. Let's go over each option to determine which statement is correct:

A. To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using basic auth: 1. Access registry.paloaltonetworks.com, and authenticate using ‘docker login’. 2. Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using ‘docker pull’.
This statement is correct. Prisma Cloud images, including the Console images, are typically hosted on registry.paloaltonetworks.com. The recommended method for authenticating and pulling these images is using basic authentication through Docker's login mechanism (docker login), followed by retrieving the images with the docker pull command. This aligns with Prisma Cloud's image retrieval process and registry.
B. To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using basic auth: 1. Access registry.twistlock.com, and authenticate using ‘docker login’. 2. Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using ‘docker pull’.
This option is incorrect because the registry URL in this option, registry.twistlock.com, is no longer valid for Prisma Cloud Console images. The official registry is now hosted under registry.paloaltonetworks.com.
C. To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using URL auth: 1. Access registry-url-auth.twistlock.com, and authenticate using the user certificate. 2. Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using ‘docker pull’.
This option is incorrect because it references a URL-based authentication process that does not correspond with the typical retrieval process for Prisma Cloud images. The URL mentioned here, registry-url-auth.twistlock.com, is not part of the official registry for Prisma Cloud Compute Edition.
D. To retrieve Prisma Cloud Console images using URL auth: 1. Access registry-auth.twistlock.com, and authenticate using the user certificate. 2. Retrieve the Prisma Cloud Console images using ‘docker pull’.
This option is also incorrect because it refers to an outdated registry and authentication method. The URL-based authentication with a user certificate is not the standard way for Prisma Cloud image retrieval. The correct method involves basic authentication through registry.paloaltonetworks.com.

In conclusion, A is the correct answer as it correctly identifies the registry, authentication method, and the process for pulling Prisma Cloud Console images.

Question No 6:

Which two statements are true about the differences between build and run config policies? (Choose two.)

A. Run and Network policies belong to the configuration policy set.
B. Build and Audit Events policies belong to the configuration policy set.
C. Run policies monitor resources, and check for potential issues after these cloud resources are deployed.
D. Build policies enable you to check for security misconfigurations in the IaC templates and ensure that these issues do not get into production.
E. Run policies monitor network activities in your environment, and check for potential issues during runtime.

Correct Answers: C and D

Explanation:

Build and run config policies play different roles in ensuring that cloud environments remain secure and optimized. Understanding the difference is key to applying the right policies at different stages of the cloud lifecycle.

C. Run policies monitor resources, and check for potential issues after these cloud resources are deployed: Run policies are active during the runtime of cloud resources. They continuously monitor deployed resources to identify any issues, such as misconfigurations, security vulnerabilities, or performance problems. These policies are designed to ensure that, even after deployment, cloud resources remain compliant and secure.
D. Build policies enable you to check for security misconfigurations in the IaC templates and ensure that these issues do not get into production: Build policies are focused on the pre-deployment stage, ensuring that infrastructure-as-code (IaC) templates, like Terraform or CloudFormation, do not contain security vulnerabilities or configuration errors before they are used to deploy cloud resources. This helps prevent problematic configurations from being pushed to production.

The other options are not correct for the following reasons:

A. Run and Network policies belong to the configuration policy set: This statement is inaccurate because the distinction between build and run policies does not relate directly to network policies. Network policies are separate and focus on monitoring network traffic and behavior, not deployment phases. They aren't grouped under "configuration policy set" in the same way as build and run policies.
B. Build and Audit Events policies belong to the configuration policy set: Audit Events policies are used for monitoring activity logs, which are different from the build policies that check for misconfigurations in IaC templates. They don't fall under the same category as build policies.
E. Run policies monitor network activities in your environment, and check for potential issues during runtime: While this statement seems relevant to runtime monitoring, it confuses run policies with network monitoring. Run policies are more focused on general resource monitoring and security, not specifically network activities. Monitoring network activities is more accurately associated with network-specific policies.

Thus, the correct answers are C and D, which correctly describe the monitoring and prevention roles of build and run policies.

Question No 7:

What will be the effect if the security team chooses to Relearn on this image after determining the anomalies are false positives?

A. The model is deleted, and Defender will relearn for 24 hours.
B. The anomalies detected will automatically be added to the model.
C. The model is deleted and returns to the initial learning state.
D. The model is retained, and any new behavior observed during the new learning period will be added to the existing model.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In this context, when the security team chooses to Relearn on the image, it effectively resets the machine learning model that is being used to detect anomalies. This process removes the previous learned behaviors, including the false positives identified by the incident response team, and starts fresh from the initial state.

Here’s why C is the correct answer:

Relearn essentially means deleting the current model and reverting to the initial learning state. This allows the system to start over, disregarding any previous learning or anomalies that may have been incorrectly incorporated into the model.
This is useful when false positives have been detected, as it ensures that the model is not influenced by those incorrect detections. It allows the system to rebuild its model based on new, accurate behavior patterns, ensuring that the security system is functioning optimally and learning from actual threats.

Now, let's review the other options:

A. The model is deleted, and Defender will relearn for 24 hours.
This is incorrect because, while Relearn does delete the model, it does not specifically enforce a 24-hour relearning period. The learning process typically continues as the system observes new data, but it is not constrained to a fixed 24-hour period.

B. The anomalies detected will automatically be added to the model.
This is not correct. If the security team chooses to Relearn, the anomalies, including false positives, will not be automatically added to the model. In fact, Relearn would remove the previous model, including any incorrect detections, and start fresh.

D. The model is retained, and any new behavior observed during the new learning period will be added to the existing model.
This is also incorrect. Relearn results in deleting the current model, not retaining it. After the relearning process begins, the system starts from scratch rather than retaining the existing model.

In summary, C is correct because Relearn deletes the existing model and returns the system to its initial learning state, allowing it to start fresh and avoid the impact of previous false positives.

Question No 8:

A customer does not want alerts to be generated from network traffic that originates from trusted internal networks. Which setting should you use to meet this customer's request?

A. Trusted Login IP Addresses
B. Anomaly Trusted List
C. Trusted Alert IP Addresses
D. Enterprise Alert Disposition

Answer: C

Explanation:

In scenarios where a customer wishes to prevent alerts from being triggered based on network traffic from trusted internal networks, it is crucial to configure a mechanism that identifies these trusted networks and excludes their traffic from generating alerts.

Let's analyze each option:

Option A: Trusted Login IP Addresses: This setting typically applies to user authentication or login scenarios, where certain IP addresses are deemed "trusted" for accessing services or applications. However, this does not address network traffic specifically, nor does it exclude alerts based on traffic originating from trusted internal networks. Therefore, it does not meet the customer's request.
Option B: Anomaly Trusted List: The Anomaly Trusted List might include IPs or traffic sources that are recognized as typical or non-threatening based on historical behavior, but it is primarily designed for anomaly detection. While it could help in some specific use cases, it is not directly intended for excluding network traffic from trusted internal networks from generating alerts. This setting is more relevant to detecting abnormal behavior rather than excluding trusted traffic.
Option C: Trusted Alert IP Addresses: This setting is designed specifically to address the customer's concern. By configuring a list of Trusted Alert IP Addresses, the system can identify traffic originating from trusted internal networks and prevent alerts from being generated when such traffic is detected. Essentially, this setting ensures that network traffic from these trusted IPs is not flagged as suspicious, thus meeting the customer's requirement to exclude trusted internal network traffic from triggering alerts.
Option D: Enterprise Alert Disposition: This option refers to the management of the disposition or categorization of alerts within the enterprise alerting system. While this might involve setting rules or conditions for alerts, it does not directly address the specific issue of excluding trusted internal network traffic from generating alerts. This setting would not be the most appropriate for the customer’s request.

The most suitable option for preventing alerts from being triggered by network traffic originating from trusted internal networks is Trusted Alert IP Addresses (option C), as it allows you to explicitly exclude trusted network traffic from generating alerts. This ensures that only traffic from untrusted or potentially suspicious sources will trigger alerts.

Question No 9:

Which pages in Prisma Cloud Compute can the SecOps lead use to investigate the runtime aspects of a potential data exfiltration attack, as identified by the DevOps lead?

A. The SecOps lead should investigate the attack using Vulnerability Explorer and Runtime Radar.
B. The SecOps lead should use Incident Explorer and Compliance Explorer.
C. The SecOps lead should use the Incident Explorer page and Monitor > Events > Container Audits.
D. The SecOps lead should review the vulnerability scans in the CI/CD process to determine blame.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

To investigate the runtime aspects of a potential data exfiltration attempt, the SecOps lead needs to focus on real-time system activities, events, and incidents within Prisma Cloud Compute. Let’s break down the options:

A. Vulnerability Explorer and Runtime Radar:
While Vulnerability Explorer helps identify vulnerabilities in container images and workloads, it doesn't directly assist in investigating real-time, runtime activities such as data exfiltration attempts. Runtime Radar provides insights into the runtime state of your containers and workloads, but it typically highlights runtime behavior like suspicious processes, misconfigurations, or vulnerabilities, not necessarily tracking specific incidents like data exfiltration. This option isn’t optimal because it doesn’t focus directly on event logging and monitoring at runtime for exfiltration activities.

B. Incident Explorer and Compliance Explorer:
Incident Explorer is a useful page for investigating specific security incidents, and it will help SecOps identify suspicious activities tied to potential breaches. However, Compliance Explorer primarily focuses on compliance-related checks and configurations, which is not the most relevant for investigating runtime exfiltration attempts. While Incident Explorer is a valid tool, Compliance Explorer does not directly address the investigation of runtime attacks.

C. Incident Explorer page and Monitor > Events > Container Audits:
This option is the best fit for the situation. The Incident Explorer page allows SecOps to track and investigate incidents, such as suspicious activities or alerts related to potential data exfiltration. Monitor > Events > Container Audits provides granular, detailed logs of container-level activities, including actions that may be part of a data exfiltration attempt. By using both tools, SecOps can investigate any unusual behavior and correlate logs with incidents, helping them identify if data is being exfiltrated or if suspicious activity is occurring.

D. Reviewing vulnerability scans in the CI/CD process:
This option addresses static analysis of vulnerabilities during the build process and does not deal with runtime or active attacks. While vulnerability scans are important for ensuring containers are secure from known vulnerabilities before deployment, they don't offer real-time investigation capabilities for runtime exfiltration or suspicious behavior.

Thus, the most effective method for SecOps to investigate the runtime aspects of a potential data exfiltration attempt is C, which leverages Incident Explorer and Monitor > Events > Container Audits to provide real-time insights into container activities and security incidents.