Palo Alto Networks PCSAE Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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PCSAE Palo Alto Networks Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

Which two advanced attributes can be applied to incident fields when editing? (Choose two.)

A. Set a field trigger script
B. Associate to an incident type
C. Change field type
D. Change field name

Correct answer: B, C

Explanation:

When editing incident fields, there are several advanced attributes that can be applied, which are designed to enhance how the fields behave and interact within the incident management process. Among the options presented, the two correct attributes that can be applied are associating a field to an incident type and changing the field type.

Associating to an incident type (B) allows the field to be linked directly to a specific incident type. This means that the field will only be displayed or relevant to incidents of that particular type. This is especially useful when different incident types require different sets of data, making it easier to tailor the incident management process to various needs.
Changing the field type (C) refers to altering the type of data a field can hold, such as changing it from a text field to a dropdown list or from a date field to a choice field. This flexibility helps ensure that the field is suitable for capturing the appropriate type of information, allowing users to better manage and process incidents.

On the other hand, the other options are not advanced attributes related to editing incident fields:

Setting a field trigger script (A) is not typically an attribute applied directly to incident fields during editing. Field trigger scripts are more related to business rules or event-based scripts that act when certain conditions are met in the system.
Changing the field name (D) is usually a basic configuration change and not an advanced attribute. While you can change the name of a field, it is not considered an advanced option since it does not impact the underlying behavior or functionality of the field in the incident management process.

Thus, the two advanced attributes applicable to incident fields during editing are B and C.

Question No 2:

Given an incident with three files, how could the name of the second file be referenced?

A. ${Files.[2].Name}
B. ${Files.Name.[2]}
C. ${File.[1].Name}
D. ${File.Name.[1]}

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

When referencing specific items in a collection of files, the syntax used depends on the correct indexing and property reference format. In this case, the second file in the array of files needs to be accessed by its index, which starts from 0 in most programming languages.

Option A uses the correct syntax: ${Files.[2].Name}. This implies that "Files" is the collection or array of file objects, and by using the index [2], it refers to the third file (as indexing starts from 0). The property Name is then accessed from that file object.
Option B ${Files.Name.[2]} is incorrect because it places the index in the wrong position. The syntax would attempt to access the Name property first and then apply an index to that, which is not valid as the property Name itself isn’t an array.
Option C ${File.[1].Name} would incorrectly refer to the second file using a singular file object named "File" instead of a collection named "Files." The array indexing here is misapplied.
Option D ${File.Name.[1]} is also incorrect for similar reasons. It assumes the File object itself is an array, and tries to apply the index to the Name property, which isn’t valid.

Thus, A is the correct syntax to properly reference the name of the second file in an array of files.

Question No 3:

Which component can be part of a load balancing group?

A. Distributed database
B. D2 agent
C. Engine
D. Load balancing server

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

Load balancing is a technique used to distribute workloads across multiple resources, ensuring no single resource becomes overwhelmed and maximizing the efficiency and availability of services. In a load balancing setup, multiple servers or components are grouped together to share the traffic or workload.

A. Distributed database: A distributed database is typically designed for data storage and retrieval, rather than handling network traffic or distributing requests. Although a distributed database may work in environments where scalability and redundancy are needed, it isn't typically part of a load balancing group. A load balancer usually operates at a higher layer in the network, managing traffic between servers, while a distributed database handles data across different nodes.
B. D2 agent: A D2 agent is generally related to application or service management, especially for agents running on systems to manage or monitor them. It does not play a direct role in the load balancing process, which is about distributing traffic across resources. Therefore, it wouldn't be considered part of a load balancing group.
C. Engine: The term "engine" could refer to various components, such as an application engine or a processing engine, which can perform tasks related to specific applications or services. While engines can benefit from load balancing, they themselves are not typically the elements that are part of a load balancing group. The engines are often the services that are balanced, rather than the components responsible for distributing traffic.
D. Load balancing server: A load balancing server is a crucial component in a load balancing group. This server is specifically designed to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers or resources to ensure even workload distribution. It helps maximize the use of resources and ensures high availability and reliability of services by preventing any single server from becoming a bottleneck.

In summary, the load balancing server is the core component in a load balancing group, responsible for distributing network traffic across other servers or components. It ensures efficient traffic management and resource utilization.

Question No 4:

Which method accesses a field called `˜User Mail' in a playbook?

A. ${incident.usermail}
B. ${incident.User Mail}
C. ${incident.UserMail}
D. ${usermail}

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

When working with playbooks, specifically in the context of automation platforms like Demisto or similar tools, fields are typically accessed using dot notation and proper field names.

First, let's break down the options:

A. ${incident.usermail}: This option is incorrect because the field name "usermail" does not exactly match the "User Mail" field. In many systems, spaces in field names are typically replaced with camel case (e.g., userMail or UserMail) or no spaces at all.
B. ${incident.User Mail}: This is not a correct method. Field names with spaces, such as "User Mail," typically do not work directly in this format unless the tool specifically allows it. In most automation platforms, spaces are not used in field references.
C. ${incident.UserMail}: This is the correct method. In this notation, UserMail is the exact field name used in the system. Typically, fields that are created or referenced in playbooks follow the camelCase or PascalCase formatting, where spaces are removed and capitalization helps distinguish between words.
D. ${usermail}: This option is not correct because it assumes that "usermail" is a global variable or field, but the correct way to reference fields in most playbooks is through their specific object (like incident) followed by the field name. Simply using ${usermail} would not access the field correctly unless it’s a globally defined variable, which is uncommon in most playbooks.

In summary, option C correctly accesses the field by using the proper formatting for camelCase or PascalCase conventions that are commonly used in field names. Therefore, ${incident.UserMail} is the right choice.

Question No 5:

How can a SOC manager create a dashboard that meets the requirement of sharing it with other team members?

A. Manually share the dashboard through user emails
B. Dashboard is shared to all XSOAR users
C. Propagate the dashboard based on SAML authentication
D. Dashboard is shared to all XSOAR users in a selected role

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

When creating a dashboard that is meant to be shared with other team members, the SOC (Security Operations Center) manager needs a method that is scalable and efficient for a larger group of users. The most effective way to share the dashboard with a specific set of users is by sharing it to all users who belong to a selected role. This approach ensures that all individuals who fall under a particular role in the system can access the dashboard without needing to manually manage each individual user.

Let's break down the options:

A. Manually share the dashboard through user emails: While this option allows the manager to share the dashboard with specific users by email, it is not efficient for a larger group. Manually sharing with each individual requires effort and can lead to errors or omissions. This approach also does not offer scalability or flexibility for future additions of team members.
B. Dashboard is shared to all XSOAR users: Sharing the dashboard to all XSOAR users is not always ideal because it includes everyone in the system, regardless of their role or relevance to the dashboard. This could lead to unauthorized or unnecessary access for people who do not need to view it. It's a blanket approach and does not account for roles or permissions.
C. Propagate the dashboard based on SAML authentication: SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) authentication is a protocol used for managing single sign-on (SSO) access, not directly related to the sharing of dashboards. While SAML can streamline user access, it does not inherently control or propagate specific dashboard access. The focus here is on authentication rather than sharing content like dashboards.
D. Dashboard is shared to all XSOAR users in a selected role: This option is the most efficient and secure method for sharing the dashboard. By selecting specific roles, the SOC manager ensures that only the relevant team members—those with a designated role—can access the dashboard. This allows for a more granular level of access control while maintaining ease of management. It's scalable and ensures that only those with the appropriate permissions will see the dashboard.

In conclusion, option D is the best choice as it allows for efficient, role-based sharing of the dashboard, ensuring that the right users have access to the relevant information without exposing it to unnecessary individuals.

Question No 6:

Which two methods will allow data to be saved in incident fields within a playbook? (Choose two.)

A. setFields
B. Field mapping
C. setIncident
D. Layout inline editing

Correct answer: B, C

Explanation:

When working with playbooks in incident management systems, there are different methods to save data to incident fields. These methods are essential for automating and streamlining the process of updating and saving information within the incident. Among the options provided, Field mapping and setIncident are the two methods that allow data to be saved into incident fields within a playbook.

Field mapping (B) is a powerful feature that links specific fields in the playbook to the corresponding fields in the incident. When an incident is created or updated, data entered into the playbook can be mapped to the relevant incident fields automatically. This ensures that the information in the playbook is transferred to the appropriate places within the incident without manual intervention. Field mapping is commonly used in workflows where the data captured in one system (the playbook) needs to be reflected in another system (the incident record). It enhances efficiency by automating data flow between systems and reducing the potential for errors.

setIncident (C) is another method used to save data to incident fields. This method involves explicitly setting or updating the incident fields within the playbook. It is typically used in automated playbooks where certain values are predefined or calculated within the playbook itself, and those values need to be transferred into the incident fields. By using the setIncident method, playbooks can update specific fields, such as incident description, priority, or status, as part of the workflow. This method helps ensure that all the necessary data is captured and maintained in the incident, even if it is generated or modified as part of the playbook process.

The other options are less relevant to saving data into incident fields:

setFields (A) is not typically used as a standalone method for saving data into incident fields within playbooks. While it might be used in some scripting contexts, it is not considered a primary method for saving incident data within a playbook. setFields might be used in specific scenarios or custom scripts, but field mapping and setIncident are more standard and commonly used methods.

Layout inline editing (D) refers to the ability to edit data directly within the interface of the playbook or incident layout. While this allows users to interactively modify incident data, it does not specifically refer to a method used in a playbook to save data automatically. Layout inline editing is more of a user interface feature, whereas field mapping and setIncident are backend methods for automating data saving and ensuring consistency.

Therefore, the two methods that allow data to be saved in incident fields within a playbook are B and C.

Question No 7:

Which built-in automation/command can be used to change an incident's type?

A. setIncident
B. Set
C. GetFieldsByIncidentType
D. modifyIncidentFields

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

When working with automation or commands related to incident management, it's important to identify the appropriate function or command that allows for modifying the incident's properties, such as its type. In the context of incident management tools or systems, each of the given options serves different purposes, and understanding their functions is key to selecting the right one for changing an incident’s type.

Option A (setIncident) is the correct choice. The setIncident command is typically used to update various fields or attributes of an incident, including its type. This function is commonly used in incident management platforms where users need to automate changes to the incident record, such as altering the incident type based on specific criteria or during certain phases of the incident's lifecycle. This command is designed to apply changes to the incident and can include various parameters, such as incident type, status, priority, and others.
Option B (Set) is too generic and lacks specificity. While "Set" may refer to setting various properties, it does not explicitly indicate that it can change the incident’s type. In many systems, a command named simply Set could be used for a variety of different purposes, but it would not be sufficient to ensure the correct operation of changing an incident’s type specifically.
Option C (GetFieldsByIncidentType) is incorrect because this command is typically used to retrieve information or fields associated with a particular incident type. It is more focused on retrieving data rather than modifying it. This command would not be used for changing the incident type, as its purpose is to fetch fields related to an incident of a given type, not to modify the incident itself.
Option D (modifyIncidentFields) could seem like a plausible choice, as it sounds related to altering incident attributes. However, this command is often used to modify specific fields within an incident, but not necessarily to change the type of the incident. While it may be able to modify various fields, the more precise function for changing the type is typically setIncident.

Thus, A (setIncident) is the correct choice because it is specifically designed to update an incident’s type along with other attributes in incident management systems.

Question No 8:

How can an engineer implement automatic playbook start without requiring the user to click the 'investigate' button?

A. Add the playbook to the integration's settings
B. Select 'Run playbook automatically' from the incident type settings
C. Add the !startinvestigation automation to the beginning of the playbook
D. Select 'Run playbook automatically' from the integration settings

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

In security operations or incident management systems, playbooks are used to automate responses to incidents. Typically, a user may need to manually trigger a playbook by clicking a button, like the "investigate" button. However, there are times when engineers may want these playbooks to run automatically based on specific triggers without requiring user intervention. There are different ways to implement automatic playbook execution depending on the configuration of the system.

A. Add the playbook to the integration's settings: While adding a playbook to the integration settings can make the playbook available for use with a particular integration, it does not ensure automatic execution. Playbooks usually require further configuration to run automatically, such as defining triggers or selecting settings that determine when the playbook should be executed. This option does not directly address the need to trigger playbooks automatically.
B. Select 'Run playbook automatically' from the incident type settings: This option is the correct way to set up a playbook to run automatically. By selecting the "Run playbook automatically" option within the incident type settings, you ensure that the playbook is triggered as soon as the incident of the specified type occurs. This bypasses the need for manual intervention, allowing the playbook to start without requiring a user to click the "investigate" button. This setting helps streamline incident response and automate the workflow.
C. Add the !startinvestigation automation to the beginning of the playbook: While this automation might help to start the investigation process within the playbook, it does not automate the triggering of the playbook itself. The playbook would still need to be started manually or be triggered by some other means. Adding automation at the start of the playbook would not eliminate the need for user interaction to begin the playbook.
D. Select 'Run playbook automatically' from the integration settings: This option may seem similar to option B, but the integration settings typically control how integrations interact with the platform, such as configuring API keys or linking data sources. While important, this setting does not directly control whether a playbook runs automatically based on incident types. The "Run playbook automatically" setting in the incident type settings (option B) is the more appropriate place to control automatic execution.

In conclusion, B is the best option for automating the playbook start based on incident type settings, ensuring the playbook runs as soon as the incident is triggered.

Question No 9:

Which two causes may be occurring if an integration test is working, but the integration is not fetching incidents? (Choose two.)

A. The 'Fetches Incidents' option may not have been enabled
B. There are no new events from the external service
C. The first fetch should be manually triggered to start the fetching process
D. It can take up to 1-hour before incidents are initially fetched

Correct answers: A, B

Explanation:

When an integration test is successful but the integration fails to fetch incidents, there are several potential causes that could explain this behavior. Let's explore each option and determine why certain causes are more likely than others.

A. The 'Fetches Incidents' option may not have been enabled: This is a possible cause. If the 'Fetches Incidents' option is not enabled, the integration will not automatically pull incidents from the external service, even though the test might succeed. Integration tests typically simulate successful connectivity or communication but do not always verify whether the fetching mechanism is properly configured. If this option is turned off, the integration will not fetch any incidents, making this a valid cause.
B. There are no new events from the external service: This is another potential cause. If there are no new events or incidents coming from the external service, the integration will not fetch anything, regardless of how well the test works. The test might verify that the connection is established and operational, but if no new data is available from the external service, no incidents will be fetched. This is a common reason why integrations fail to retrieve incidents after a successful test.
C. The first fetch should be manually triggered to start the fetching process: This is unlikely to be the cause. In most systems, once the integration is properly set up and configured, incident fetching should happen automatically based on the configuration (such as fetching intervals). While it's possible that manual triggers are required in some configurations, this is generally not the case for most integrations. Therefore, this is not typically a cause of the issue.
D. It can take up to 1-hour before incidents are initially fetched: While it's true that there may be a delay before incidents are initially fetched, this is generally not the root cause of the problem. Most integrations fetch incidents at regular intervals, but the first fetch should typically occur much sooner, and the delay is usually not as long as an hour. If the integration test is successful and the fetch is enabled, incidents should start coming in quickly. So, while delays can happen, they are unlikely to be the primary cause in this scenario.

In summary, A and B are the most likely causes. The fetch option may not be enabled, or there may simply be no new incidents to retrieve from the external service. Therefore, it's essential to check both the configuration and the availability of new events to resolve the issue.