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PEGAPCSSA87V1 Pegasystems Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question 1

On which type of rule can you configure edit validate rules?

A. Properties
B. Flow actions
C. Activities
D. Case types

Answer: A

Explanation:
In Pega, Edit Validate rules are used to enforce format-level validation on input values provided by users. These rules check whether the data entered in a particular field (property) conforms to specific formats, such as ensuring a ZIP code has five digits, an email address follows the correct syntax, or a Social Security Number is valid.

Option A, Properties, is the correct answer because Edit Validate rules are directly associated with property rules. A property rule defines a single data element (for example, .Email or .ZipCode), and you can attach an Edit Validate rule to it to validate the format of the value entered into that property. This type of validation is triggered when the user submits a form, and if the value does not pass the validation check, an error message is displayed to the user.

Option B, Flow actions, is incorrect. While flow actions can be used to guide users through forms and allow validations through Validate rules or post-processing logic, they do not directly support configuring Edit Validate rules. Instead, flow actions are more focused on orchestrating user interaction and controlling transitions between assignments.

Option C, Activities, are general-purpose rules used for procedural processing, such as setting values, performing calculations, or invoking other rules. While activities can call validation logic (including Edit Validate rules), they are not the rules on which Edit Validate rules are configured. Instead, they might just invoke them as part of processing.

Option D, Case types, define the overall lifecycle and structure of a case (workflow) in Pega, including stages, steps, and processes. They orchestrate how work is done across the system but are not where field-level validation logic is directly configured. Validation at the case level is generally performed through validation rules or stage entry/exit criteria, not Edit Validate rules.

To further understand the purpose of Edit Validate rules, consider that they are implemented using Java and often use regular expressions or specific formatting logic. When you associate such a rule with a property, it helps enforce strict formatting constraints early in the data input process, which improves data integrity and reduces the need for downstream error handling.

In conclusion, the only rule type on which Edit Validate rules are configured directly is A, Property rules, making it the correct answer.

Question 2

When designing reports with multiple data sources, in which two ways is an association rule different from a class join? (Choose two.)

A. You can join multiple classes with class joins, while you cannot join multiple classes with associations.
B. Anyone with the appropriate permissions can use associations when creating reports in the User portal.
C. Class joins are unique to each report. Associations are reusable in any report.
D. A class join is required to add a filter condition to your report.

Answer: B, C

Explanation:
When working with complex reports that draw data from multiple sources, especially in platforms like ServiceNow or other enterprise service management tools, understanding the difference between associations and class joins is essential for efficient and scalable report building.

Option B is correct. Associations, once defined by administrators or users with the appropriate permissions, are available to other users who also have the proper access. This makes associations extremely helpful for self-service reporting, as they allow users in the User portal to leverage pre-defined relationships between data tables (classes) without needing to understand the technical structure of the database. In contrast, class joins are typically defined within the scope of a specific report and are not reusable by other reports or users unless recreated.

Option C is also correct. Class joins are generally built as part of an individual report; they are local to that report and do not persist beyond it. This means if a user needs the same data relationship in another report, the class join must be rebuilt. Associations, on the other hand, are created once and stored at a system or platform level, making them reusable across multiple reports. This not only improves efficiency but also ensures consistency in how data relationships are handled.

Let’s examine the incorrect options:

Option A is incorrect. It is not true that class joins can join multiple classes while associations cannot. Both class joins and associations are capable of handling complex relationships between multiple tables, depending on the capabilities of the reporting platform. However, associations tend to be more scalable and user-friendly due to their predefined nature.

Option D is also incorrect. A class join is not required to add a filter condition to a report. Filters can be applied to individual data sources or tables directly, regardless of whether a class join has been defined. Joins (either class joins or associations) are necessary when you need to combine data from multiple sources, but filters can exist independently to narrow the data being pulled.

In summary, the two primary differences that set associations apart from class joins are their reusability and their accessibility to users in environments like the User portal. Associations simplify reporting for non-technical users and help maintain consistency across reports by offering centralized, pre-defined links between data sets. Class joins, while powerful, are limited to individual reports and are more suited for custom, one-off data relationships.

Question 3

An application contains the class group MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work. There are two classes derived from Work- class:
MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff
MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-Expense
If a report is created in the MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work class group, what instances will the report return?

A. Instances of all Work- derived classes
B. Instances of MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff and MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-Expense, unless they are stored in different database tables
C. Instances of MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff and MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-Expense
D. Only instances of MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work

Answer: C

Explanation:
In Pega, a class group is a mechanism used to organize related work types under a common umbrella so that they can share a common work pool (i.e., share a database table for their instances). When a report is created on the class group level—such as MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work—it is designed to retrieve data from all of its child classes, as long as those classes share the same class group and, therefore, the same underlying database table.

In this case, MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work is the class group, and both MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff and MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-Expense are derived from it. If these classes are part of the same class group (which is the case here, since they follow the naming convention and inherit from the class group), they all store their instances in the same database table.

Therefore, a report created in the class group MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work will retrieve instances from both MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff and MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-Expense, as they are considered part of the same class hierarchy and storage scope.

Let’s examine the incorrect options:

• A, which says "Instances of all Work- derived classes," is incorrect because the report will only access instances in the class group and its subclasses—not every class derived from Work-. Pega's reporting scope is limited to the class group and its branches.

• B says "unless they are stored in different database tables." While this condition technically affects reporting, in this question the assumption is that these classes are part of the same class group (and thus use the same table). Since there is no mention of differing tables, we should assume they use the same one. So this conditional makes B less accurate than C.

• D is incorrect because MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work is just the class group and typically does not hold direct instances itself. Its purpose is to organize other classes (TimeOff, Expense, etc.) which hold the actual work objects.

Hence, the most accurate and complete answer is C: a report on MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work will return instances of both MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff and MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-Expense.

Question 4

A Fulfillment report needs to list the user ID of the employee who packages the items to ship in an Order case. The report provides information from the MyCo-Orders-Work-Ship and Data-Admin-Operator-ID classes. 

Which two options independently satisfy the report requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a class join on the Fulfillment report definition to join operator information to each case.
B. Add the user ID to the Fulfillment report definition as a parameter.
C. Specify both classes on the Pages & Classes tab on the Fulfillment report definition.
D. Use an association rule to join operator information to each case to populate the Fulfillment report.

Answer: A, D

Explanation:
In this scenario, the report must extract and display the user ID of the employee (or operator) responsible for packaging items in an order case. The report pulls data from two classes: MyCo-Orders-Work-Ship, which represents the shipping work, and Data-Admin-Operator-ID, which contains user profile information. To successfully generate a report with details from both classes, there must be a defined relationship between them. Two independent and correct ways to achieve this are through class joins and association rules.

Option A is correct. Using a class join allows you to link the primary class (MyCo-Orders-Work-Ship) with a secondary class (Data-Admin-Operator-ID) based on a common key, such as the user ID or operator ID. When you configure the join in the report definition, it effectively merges the two data sets so that you can pull attributes (like user ID) from the operator class and display them alongside fields from the shipping work class. This is a standard and flexible way of accessing related data across classes within a single report.

Option D is also correct. An association rule creates a reusable relationship between two classes and simplifies the process of pulling in data from the related class. Once the association is defined, it can be referenced in multiple reports or used by business users to extract cross-class data without needing to manually set up joins each time. For this use case, creating an association between MyCo-Orders-Work-Ship and Data-Admin-Operator-ID based on the packaging employee’s operator ID would allow the report to automatically include the necessary user information.

Let’s now analyze the incorrect options:

Option B is incorrect. A parameter in a report is a value that can be passed into the report to filter or limit data, not to retrieve and display fields from another class. Parameters do not establish a relationship between data sets and therefore cannot be used to fetch the user ID from the operator class. It wouldn’t allow the Fulfillment report to display fields from Data-Admin-Operator-ID.

Option C is incorrect. While the Pages & Classes tab in a rule form (typically in activities or flows) allows you to define classes for referencing objects in more complex logic, it does not apply in the context of reports for defining data relationships. In report definitions, data joins or associations must be explicitly configured using the appropriate report tools—just declaring two classes does not enable access to fields from both.

In conclusion, the two correct and independent ways to access the user ID from the Data-Admin-Operator-ID class and display it in the Fulfillment report are to either configure a class join or define and use an association rule. Both approaches effectively connect the necessary classes and make the required user information available in the report.

Question 5

Which three items are generated and displayed in the compliance score of an application? (Choose three.)

A. Rules with warnings in the application
B. Pega Platform core rules used in the application
C. Rules with unjustified warnings in the application
D. Unweighted compliance score
E. Percentage of compliant rules in the application

Answer: A, C, E

Explanation:
The compliance score in Pega is a metric used to assess the quality and best-practice adherence of an application. It gives developers and architects insight into the overall health of the application with respect to rule warnings, adherence to guardrails, and maintainability. This score is especially important when working in environments where standards compliance is critical, such as regulated industries.

Three major components that contribute to this compliance score include:

A. Rules with warnings in the application – This item is included because rule warnings serve as indicators of potential issues. These warnings can be generated when guardrails (Pega’s development best practices) are not followed. The presence of such warnings typically lowers the overall compliance score, as they signify deviations from best practices that may lead to maintainability or performance issues.

C. Rules with unjustified warnings in the application – Warnings that are present but not justified are considered more severe. Pega allows developers to provide justifications for rule warnings where necessary. If a warning is not justified, it negatively impacts the compliance score more than a warning that has been reviewed and justified. This helps encourage developers to consciously address and document exceptions.

E. Percentage of compliant rules in the application – This is a direct metric that contributes to the score. It reflects how many of the application’s rules adhere to guardrails and do not generate warnings. A higher percentage indicates better compliance with Pega development best practices and results in a higher score.

Let’s examine the incorrect options:

B. Pega Platform core rules used in the application – This is not a factor in compliance scoring. Core rules are part of the platform and not something developers typically modify. The compliance score is about custom development quality, not about how many core rules are being used.

D. Unweighted compliance score – The term “unweighted compliance score” is not typically a separate metric that is displayed in Pega’s compliance score report. The actual compliance score is a weighted measure that takes into account the severity and justification of warnings, as well as the total number of rules and compliant rules. So this option is either inaccurate or irrelevant to what is actually presented to users.

Therefore, the correct three items that are generated and displayed as part of an application’s compliance score are: A, C, and E.

Question 6

A user reports that an application takes five seconds to complete a step and present the next step in a process. Which tool allows you to gather and analyze performance data for the form submission?

A. Tracer
B. Database Trace
C. Performance Analyzer (PAL)
D. Performance Profiler

Answer: C

Explanation:
When a user experiences noticeable latency or slow performance—such as taking five seconds to load the next step in a process—it is crucial to identify and analyze what is causing the delay. In the context of Pega (as the question implies by referencing form submissions and steps in a process), multiple tools exist to assist with performance diagnostics, and each serves a unique purpose. The correct tool in this scenario is the Performance Analyzer (PAL).

The Performance Analyzer (PAL) is specifically designed to monitor and collect performance statistics for individual requestors. It records metrics such as CPU usage, database time, number of database interactions, rule resolution times, and more. PAL allows developers and administrators to capture snapshots of system performance at key points (e.g., before and after a step runs) and then examine those snapshots to determine where performance bottlenecks may exist. This makes PAL highly suitable for analyzing user-perceived delays in processing form submissions and transitions between steps in a process.

Option A — Tracer is a powerful diagnostic tool used to trace the execution of rules, data transforms, and activities in detail. While Tracer is excellent for debugging logic and understanding rule execution paths, it is not designed to collect performance statistics like CPU time or system resource utilization. Tracer is helpful for correctness but not ideal for performance measurement.

Option B — Database Trace focuses specifically on tracking database interactions. It logs the exact SQL queries made, the time taken, and any performance bottlenecks in the database layer. While it is useful for identifying slow queries or inefficient data access, it is narrower in scope than PAL and would not provide a holistic view of all factors contributing to a five-second delay.

Option D — Performance Profiler provides visibility into the performance of individual rules executed during processing. It gives a breakdown of execution time spent on rules like activities, data transforms, and when rules. While helpful for rule-level profiling, it does not capture as broad a range of performance metrics as PAL, such as overall requestor-level statistics or database calls not tied to individual rules.

In summary, Performance Analyzer (PAL) is the most appropriate tool to gather and analyze comprehensive performance data when diagnosing delays in application responsiveness, especially for user-reported issues like slow form submissions or transitions between process steps. PAL allows targeted performance snapshots, making it the best choice for the described scenario.

Question 7

Which statement describes the appropriate use of the Purge/Archive wizard to address application performance?

A. Delete any properties exposed in table columns from the BLOB.
B. Remove unused rules caches maintained on the system.
C. Delete stored SQL procedures that have been updated.
D. Remove old cases from the respective database table.

Correct Answer : D

Explanation:
The Purge/Archive wizard in Pega is a utility specifically designed to help manage the volume of data stored in the system—especially work objects or cases—which can directly impact system performance over time. As an application is used, it accumulates a large number of completed or obsolete cases that may no longer be relevant to ongoing operations but continue to consume storage space and system resources. These old records can slow down database queries, report generation, and other operations.

Option D, "Remove old cases from the respective database table," accurately reflects the core function of the Purge/Archive wizard. It allows system administrators to define criteria (such as case status and age) to identify and then remove (purge) or store externally (archive) old case records from the primary work tables. By doing so, the system reduces the size of active data sets, which improves application performance, particularly in environments with high case volumes or long-running applications.

The purge operation deletes the records from the database after optionally archiving them, while the archive operation stores them in a separate location so they can be retrieved later if needed. This process is essential for maintaining performance and meeting data retention policies.

Now let’s examine the incorrect options:

A. "Delete any properties exposed in table columns from the BLOB." – This does not describe a function of the Purge/Archive wizard. Exposed columns (also known as optimized properties) are stored in their own database columns for indexing or reporting purposes, and managing them is done through optimization or de-optimization procedures, not via the Purge/Archive wizard.

B. "Remove unused rules caches maintained on the system." – While cache management can be relevant to performance, it is unrelated to the Purge/Archive wizard. Pega manages caches through its internal cache management tools or during system maintenance/restart procedures, not with this wizard.

C. "Delete stored SQL procedures that have been updated." – Stored procedures are database-side code, and managing them is the responsibility of DBAs or system scripts, not something the Purge/Archive wizard in Pega handles.

In summary, the only statement that accurately describes what the Purge/Archive wizard is used for in Pega—especially as it relates to improving performance—is D: removing old cases from the database. This cleanup reduces clutter, improves response time, and helps keep the system optimized.

Question 8

An application contains a rule with an Apply to: class of TGB-HRApps-Work-Review in a locked ruleset. There is a higher unlocked ruleset. 

How do you prevent the application from using the rule in TGB-HRApps-Work-Review?

A. Save a new version of the rule, applied to TGB, and set the availability of the rule to Final.
B. Save a new version of the rule, applied to TGB-HRApps-Work-Review, and set the availability of the rule to Not Available.
C. Save a new version of the rule, applied to TGB-HRApps-Work-Review, and set the availability of the rule to Blocked.
D. Save a new version of the rule, applied to TGB-HRApps-Work-Review, and set the availability of the rule to Withdrawn.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In Pega, when you need to prevent an application from using a rule that exists in a locked ruleset, you cannot delete or directly modify that rule since the ruleset is locked. However, you can override its behavior by creating a new version of the rule in a higher ruleset in the ruleset stack and use the Availability setting to control whether that rule is used.

To stop a rule from being used, the most appropriate availability setting is Withdrawn, but this must be done in the same class as the original rule. The withdrawn rule tells the system to stop rule resolution from continuing lower in the stack for rules of the same name and class, effectively withdrawing that rule and any others with the same name and class from resolution, even if they are in a locked ruleset.

Let’s look at each option:

A. Saving a rule in the TGB class and setting it to Final would make the rule final at a more generic level, but it does not affect the specific rule in TGB-HRApps-Work-Review. Final prevents subclass overrides, but the rule in question is already in the subclass. This won't prevent the rule from executing.

B. Saving a new version with availability Not Available in the same class seems like a good idea, but Not Available only prevents that specific rule version from being used. It does not stop the system from resolving to a lower ruleset version of the rule.

C. Blocked makes a rule completely unavailable and throws a runtime error if the rule is called. This may be appropriate in rare situations, but it leads to errors and is not used just to bypass a rule. It's more of a fail-safe to block deprecated or dangerous logic—not for gracefully skipping over a rule.

D. Withdrawn is the correct choice. When you save a rule with the same name and class as the original and set the availability to Withdrawn, Pega skips all lower versions of the rule in that class, including those in locked rulesets. This is exactly what you want: to suppress the use of a rule in a locked ruleset without generating errors or affecting rules in other classes.

In summary, the correct and safest way to prevent the application from using the rule in the locked ruleset is to withdraw it by saving a new version of the rule with the same class and name in a higher, unlocked ruleset and set the availability to Withdrawn. This disables the rule without affecting application stability or generating runtime errors.