ASIS PSP Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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PSP ASIS Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

Optimization of risk management techniques that remove the security problem by eliminating the risk is known as risk:

A. avoidance.
B. transfer.
C. reduction.
D. analysis.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In the field of risk management, various strategies are used to address and mitigate risks to ensure that a business or organization can achieve its objectives while minimizing potential downsides. The key strategies include risk avoidance, transfer, reduction, and analysis, each with its own distinct approach to handling risk. Let's break down the options and see why A. avoidance is the correct choice:

A. Avoidance: This is the most direct approach to risk management. Risk avoidance involves identifying and eliminating activities or conditions that expose the organization to risk in the first place. Essentially, the risk is completely removed by either altering processes, procedures, or eliminating the risky activity entirely. For example, a company might avoid storing sensitive data by using cloud services where data security is handled by a third-party provider, effectively removing the security risk associated with storing that data in-house. By avoiding the risk, the problem is eliminated entirely.
B. Transfer: Risk transfer involves shifting the responsibility for dealing with a risk to a third party, typically through mechanisms like insurance or outsourcing. For example, a company might transfer the financial risk of a data breach by purchasing cyber insurance. This does not eliminate the risk itself but rather moves the responsibility for managing it elsewhere. Transfer is a strategy that helps manage the consequences of risks rather than eliminating the risk entirely.
C. Reduction: Risk reduction involves taking steps to lessen the impact or probability of a risk occurring. This could include implementing security controls, such as firewalls, encryption, or access restrictions to reduce the likelihood of a breach. While risk reduction minimizes the potential damage or likelihood, it does not completely remove the risk. The risk still exists, but its impact is lessened.
D. Analysis: Risk analysis is the process of identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks. This is a fundamental part of the risk management process but does not directly eliminate the risk itself. Analysis helps in understanding the nature and scope of the risk, which then informs the strategy for managing it. However, analysis alone does not eliminate or avoid the risk.

In summary, A. avoidance is the correct answer because it involves the complete elimination of the risk by removing the underlying security problem or risky activity, thus optimizing the overall risk management approach by preventing the risk from even arising.

Question No 2:

A contractor that has installed a physical protection system should be required to repair, correct, or replace any defect for a minimum of:

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 24 months

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When a contractor installs a physical protection system, such as security or safety equipment, it is essential that the system functions correctly over time. A standard period during which the contractor is responsible for correcting any defects ensures that the system performs as expected and that any potential issues are addressed promptly. Let's review each of the options to understand the reasoning behind the correct answer:

A. 3 months: While 3 months might seem reasonable for some types of warranties or service agreements, it is generally considered too short for a physical protection system. Protection systems, especially those related to security, need to be reliable for a longer duration to ensure that any defects or failures are caught and corrected. Typically, contractors are required to provide warranties for a longer period to ensure the longevity of the system.
B. 6 months: A 6-month period could be an acceptable warranty for some products or systems. However, for a physical protection system, a longer time frame is usually required. The purpose of the warranty is to cover defects that may not become apparent immediately but might arise as the system undergoes normal wear and use over time. While 6 months could apply to some systems, it is not typically sufficient for this type of installation.
C. 12 months: A warranty or guarantee of 12 months (1 year) is commonly required for physical protection systems. This period allows the contractor to address defects or problems that may emerge after the installation has been completed and the system has been in use for a while. A 12-month period strikes a balance between ensuring the system functions correctly and providing enough time to detect and resolve any defects or failures that might occur under normal operating conditions. This is the most typical requirement in the industry and the correct choice.
D. 24 months: While a 24-month warranty or guarantee (2 years) could be ideal in some cases, it is generally not a minimum requirement for physical protection systems. Longer warranties can sometimes be offered by contractors for peace of mind or as a selling point, but most industry standards typically set the minimum period at 12 months. A 24-month period might be appropriate for more complex or high-value systems, but it is not a standard minimum.

In conclusion, C. 12 months is the correct answer, as it aligns with industry standards and best practices for ensuring the reliability and proper functioning of a physical protection system after installation. It provides enough time for the contractor to address any defects or issues that may arise in the system.

Question No 3:

During a security survey, the largest portion of field work involves:

A. evaluating or drawing conclusions
B. analyzing hidden qualities, causes, or effects
C. verifying accuracy or validity of data collected
D. gathering data and accumulating evidence

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

A security survey is a crucial process used to assess and improve the security posture of an organization, facility, or system. During this survey, fieldwork involves collecting data, analyzing vulnerabilities, and determining potential threats. However, the largest portion of this process typically revolves around gathering data and accumulating evidence, which is fundamental for making informed decisions and drawing conclusions about the security measures that need to be implemented or improved.

Let’s look at each of the options in detail:

Evaluating or drawing conclusions (Option A) is an important part of any security survey, but it is usually performed after data has been collected. Drawing conclusions is a cognitive process that takes place once sufficient evidence is gathered. While conclusions and evaluations help shape the final recommendations and report, they are not the bulk of the fieldwork. Evaluation relies on data that has already been gathered, analyzed, and interpreted, meaning this stage happens later in the process.
Analyzing hidden qualities, causes, or effects (Option B) is an important part of understanding security issues but does not constitute the majority of fieldwork in a security survey. Analyzing data might include identifying security gaps, vulnerabilities, and hidden risks, but this activity is based on the information that has been gathered in earlier stages. While this step is essential for understanding the full scope of security challenges, it is not the largest portion of fieldwork, as gathering data typically takes more time.
Verifying accuracy or validity of data collected (Option C) is critical for ensuring that the information used in decision-making is reliable. However, verification comes after the data has been gathered. It involves reviewing, cross-checking, and confirming the accuracy of the information, but this process generally happens once the bulk of the data collection has already taken place. While important for ensuring the quality of data, verification does not take up as much time as the data collection itself.
Gathering data and accumulating evidence (Option D) is the correct answer because it forms the foundation of the entire security survey. This step involves collecting all relevant data, such as physical security inspections, system checks, interviews, and observations, which are critical for identifying vulnerabilities, threats, and risks. The bulk of fieldwork during a security survey is spent gathering information from various sources (e.g., reviewing security protocols, inspecting physical premises, evaluating technology infrastructure) to accumulate evidence of potential security weaknesses.

In conclusion, the largest portion of fieldwork in a security survey is gathering data and accumulating evidence because without comprehensive and accurate data, it would be impossible to evaluate, verify, or draw conclusions about the security measures in place. This foundational step ensures that subsequent analysis and evaluations are based on reliable and robust evidence.

Question No 4:

A project management team wants to use the best recognized way of understanding the true costs of a security system bid. Their best choice from the following list of methods is:

A. operating cost
B. procurement cost
C. installation cost
D. life-cycle cost

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When evaluating the true costs of a security system bid, the best approach is to consider the life-cycle cost. This method takes into account all the costs associated with the system throughout its entire life span, from initial procurement to eventual disposal or replacement.

D. Life-cycle cost refers to the total cost of owning and operating an asset or system over its entire life, including initial acquisition, installation, maintenance, upgrades, and disposal costs. By using the life-cycle cost approach, the project management team can gain a comprehensive understanding of the financial implications of the security system, considering both short-term and long-term expenses. This method helps ensure that the project team doesn’t overlook hidden costs, such as maintenance or upgrades, that can significantly affect the overall financial picture.

Now, let's examine why the other options are less suitable:

A. Operating cost: Operating costs refer to the ongoing expenses associated with running the system, such as energy usage, labor, and consumables. While important, operating costs are just one part of the total cost picture. They do not include the initial acquisition, installation, or long-term maintenance costs. Therefore, relying only on operating costs would give an incomplete view of the total investment required.
B. Procurement cost: Procurement costs include the expenses related to purchasing the security system, such as the purchase price, shipping, and vendor fees. However, procurement costs are just the upfront costs, and they don’t account for the long-term expenses of running, maintaining, or replacing the system. Thus, procurement cost alone wouldn’t provide an accurate or comprehensive understanding of the true costs.
C. Installation cost: Installation costs refer specifically to the expenses incurred in setting up the security system. These costs cover labor, materials, and equipment needed to get the system operational. However, installation costs only represent a portion of the total cost. They don’t address long-term expenses related to maintenance, upgrades, or eventual replacement.

In conclusion, life-cycle cost (D) is the most comprehensive method for evaluating the true costs of a security system bid, as it takes into account both the initial and ongoing expenses throughout the asset's life. This approach gives the project management team a clearer and more accurate picture of the overall financial commitment involved in the security system project.

Question No 5:

What bid practice involves reviewing qualifications, checking references, and interviewing staff?

A. Staffing plan analysis
B. Contract award
C. Vendor selection
D. Pre-bid conference

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The process of reviewing qualifications, checking references, and interviewing staff is typically associated with Vendor Selection in the context of bidding practices. During the vendor selection phase, a company or organization evaluates potential vendors to determine which one is most qualified to meet the project requirements. This step is crucial in ensuring that the chosen vendor not only has the technical and financial capabilities but also the right personnel to carry out the project successfully.

Here’s a detailed explanation of why C. Vendor selection is the correct answer, and why the other options are not:

C. Vendor Selection: Vendor selection is the stage in the procurement process where an organization identifies and evaluates potential vendors who have submitted bids or proposals. This stage typically includes reviewing the vendors' qualifications, checking references, and conducting interviews to assess whether the vendor has the necessary skills, experience, and resources to fulfill the contract requirements. It also involves evaluating the vendor's past performance, reputation, and ability to provide the required services or products. By conducting these evaluations, the organization ensures that the selected vendor is a good fit for the project, thus minimizing risks and ensuring quality.
A. Staffing plan analysis: Staffing plan analysis is the process of assessing the human resources required for a project or operation. This includes determining the number of employees, their skills, and how they will be organized within the project. While staffing plan analysis may involve evaluating team members, it is not directly related to the evaluation of vendors or the review of external candidates. It focuses more on internal resources rather than external vendor selection.
B. Contract award: The contract award is the final decision in the procurement process, where the selected vendor is formally chosen to carry out the project or provide the goods and services. However, this stage occurs after vendor selection. At this point, the qualifications, references, and staff interviews have already been assessed, and the award is given to the vendor who has been deemed the best fit. The contract award stage involves the formal signing of the contract, not the evaluation process.
D. Pre-bid conference: A pre-bid conference is an event held before the submission of bids to provide potential vendors with additional information about the project. It allows bidders to ask questions, clarify requirements, and ensure they understand the project's expectations. The pre-bid conference is an informational meeting rather than a process for evaluating vendors. It typically happens before the vendor selection phase, so it does not involve reviewing qualifications, checking references, or interviewing staff.

In conclusion, Vendor Selection is the correct bid practice because it directly involves evaluating potential vendors through methods such as reviewing qualifications, checking references, and interviewing key personnel. This is a critical step in ensuring that the chosen vendor can effectively deliver the required goods or services.

Question No 6:

A type of outdoor lamp that passes electricity through a gas enclosed in a glass tube to produce 40 to 80 lumens per watt of light is known as a/an:

A. incandescent lamp
B. metal-halide lamp
C. halogen lamp
D. fluorescent lamp

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The question is referring to a type of outdoor lighting where electricity is passed through a gas enclosed in a glass tube to produce light. This description aligns most closely with metal-halide lamps, which are a specific type of gas discharge lamp. In metal-halide lamps, an electrical current passes through a gaseous mixture, often containing metals like mercury, iodine, and other halides, inside a glass tube. This process produces bright, white light with a higher lumen output compared to other types of lighting, and they typically range between 40 to 80 lumens per watt, as mentioned in the question.

Now, let’s break down the other options:

A. Incandescent lamp: Incandescent lamps work by passing an electrical current through a filament (usually made of tungsten) that heats up and emits light. This process is different from passing electricity through a gas, and incandescent lamps typically have much lower energy efficiency, producing around 10 to 17 lumens per watt, which is much less efficient than metal-halide lamps. Therefore, incandescent lamps do not fit the description in the question.
C. Halogen lamp: Halogen lamps are a type of incandescent lamp, but they use a halogen gas inside the bulb to extend the life of the filament and improve efficiency slightly. Halogen lamps also produce light through heating a filament, not by passing electricity through gas as in the case of metal-halide lamps. Their efficiency is generally better than standard incandescent bulbs but still falls short compared to metal-halide lamps in terms of lumen output.
D. Fluorescent lamp: Fluorescent lamps work by passing electricity through a gas (usually mercury vapor) inside a glass tube, which emits ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light then strikes a phosphor coating inside the tube, which emits visible light. Fluorescent lamps do operate using a gas discharge, but they are more common for indoor lighting and typically have a different range of efficiency, usually producing 35 to 100 lumens per watt. They are more efficient than incandescent or halogen lamps, but still not typically used for outdoor lighting as often as metal-halide lamps.

Thus, the correct answer is B, metal-halide lamp, as it fits the description of producing 40 to 80 lumens per watt of light through electricity passing through a gas enclosed in a glass tube.

Question No 7:

Which of the following sensors detects heat over different background levels?

A. Visible
B. Passive infrared
C. Electric field
D. Microwave

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

To understand which sensor detects heat over different background levels, we need to consider the specific properties and functions of each sensor type listed in the options. Let's break down each one:

A. Visible: Visible sensors, such as those found in standard cameras or optical systems, detect light within the visible spectrum (typically from around 400 to 700 nanometers). These sensors can capture light that reflects off surfaces, but they do not specifically detect heat. Therefore, visible sensors are not designed to detect heat differences or temperature variations, making them unsuitable for detecting heat over different background levels.
B. Passive infrared: Passive infrared (PIR) sensors are designed to detect infrared radiation, which is emitted by all objects based on their temperature. These sensors are sensitive to the heat radiating from objects, and they can detect changes in heat levels over different backgrounds. PIR sensors are especially useful in applications like motion detection and thermal imaging because they are designed to identify temperature variations caused by living beings (which emit infrared radiation) or other heat-producing objects. The key point here is that PIR sensors detect heat differences, making them the correct choice for this question.
C. Electric field: Electric field sensors detect variations in electric fields, often used for detecting the presence of objects or measuring distances in certain applications. However, these sensors are not used to detect heat, and they do not respond to thermal variations or infrared radiation. Therefore, electric field sensors are not suitable for detecting heat differences over backgrounds.
D. Microwave: Microwave sensors use electromagnetic waves to detect objects and measure distances. These sensors work by emitting microwaves and analyzing the reflected waves to determine the presence of objects. While microwave sensors can be used for motion detection or radar-based systems, they do not specialize in detecting heat over different background levels. Instead, they are typically used for sensing distance or motion, not for temperature variations or infrared radiation.

Thus, the correct answer is B, Passive infrared (PIR) sensors. These sensors detect the heat emitted by objects and are capable of differentiating between various heat levels over different backgrounds, making them ideal for applications where detecting temperature changes is essential, such as in motion detectors, thermal cameras, or security systems.

Question No 8:

Which of the following advantages do contactless smart cards offer?

A. Smart card readers require no external power.
B. They are more cost-effective than other technologies.
C. They have a longer read range than proximity cards.
D. Encryption presents an obstacle to compromising the code.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Contactless smart cards offer several advantages, particularly in terms of convenience, security, and efficiency in various applications, such as access control, payments, and identification. Here’s an explanation of each option:

A is incorrect because smart card readers require external power to function. Although contactless smart cards themselves have an embedded chip that is powered by the reader during interaction, the reader still requires an external power source to emit the radio frequency signal and to power its own functions. Therefore, this is not an advantage of contactless smart cards.

B is incorrect because contactless smart cards are not necessarily more cost-effective than other technologies. In fact, contactless smart cards can be more expensive to produce than some traditional technologies like magnetic stripe cards or simple proximity cards. While the cost has decreased over time as technology has advanced, contactless cards often involve more sophisticated technology, such as embedded chips and antennas, which can increase manufacturing costs.

C is correct because contactless smart cards generally have a longer read range than proximity cards. Contactless cards typically communicate via radio frequency (RF) and can be read from a greater distance compared to proximity cards, which may have a shorter range. The increased range makes contactless smart cards more convenient, as they can be read from a longer distance without needing precise alignment with the reader. This is particularly advantageous in environments where ease of access or speed is essential, such as in transit systems or secure entry points.

D is incorrect because while encryption adds a layer of security, it does not necessarily present an obstacle to compromising the code. In fact, encryption can be broken if the security protocols or keys are weak or if there are vulnerabilities in the implementation. However, encryption does enhance the overall security of contactless smart cards, making it more difficult for unauthorized parties to intercept or manipulate the data. While it doesn't make the code impossible to compromise, it significantly strengthens the card's protection against unauthorized access.

In conclusion, C is the correct answer because contactless smart cards do indeed offer a longer read range than proximity cards, which enhances their usability and convenience.

Question No 9:

Obtaining insurance to mitigate the consequences of a potential loss is an example of risk:

A. elimination
B. assumption
C. transference
D. avoidance

Answer: C

Explanation:

When managing risks in both business and personal contexts, there are several strategies that can be employed to deal with potential threats. These strategies generally fall into categories such as risk elimination, assumption, transference, and avoidance. Let’s examine each of these strategies and how they relate to the action of obtaining insurance.

A. Elimination refers to the process of completely removing a risk by altering the course of action or eliminating the exposure to the hazard. This could involve stopping a certain practice or discontinuing a process altogether to ensure that no risk is present. However, obtaining insurance does not eliminate the risk itself; it simply provides a way to deal with the consequences should the risk occur. Therefore, elimination does not apply in this context.
B. Assumption means accepting the risk and its potential consequences, often because the likelihood of occurrence is minimal or the cost of mitigating the risk is higher than dealing with its aftermath. In the case of risk assumption, the individual or organization takes on the risk directly without seeking external measures like insurance. However, obtaining insurance is a proactive strategy to mitigate risk rather than just accepting it. Therefore, assumption is not the correct term here.
C. Transference is the strategy of shifting the financial impact or consequences of a risk to another party. This is typically done through mechanisms like insurance, contracts, or outsourcing. By purchasing insurance, an individual or business transfers the potential financial burden of a loss (such as property damage, health issues, or liability claims) to the insurance company. This allows the insured party to avoid bearing the full financial cost of a loss. The key feature of this strategy is the shift of responsibility for the risk, which makes transference the correct answer.
D. Avoidance involves taking steps to completely prevent the risk from occurring in the first place. This could involve choosing not to engage in a particular activity or making changes that prevent the possibility of a loss. While avoiding the activity that generates risk could reduce exposure, obtaining insurance does not prevent the risk from happening but instead addresses the consequences after the fact. Thus, avoidance is not applicable here.

In conclusion, when obtaining insurance to mitigate the consequences of a potential loss, the appropriate risk management strategy is transference. This strategy involves shifting the financial responsibility of the risk to another party, typically an insurance company, which assumes the financial consequences should the risk eventuate. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Question No 10:

Which categories of threat are commonly used to classify the hazards that security seeks to protect against?

A. Human and systemic
B. Man-made and natural
C. Internal and external
D. Direct and indirect

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

When discussing security, hazards are typically divided into two broad categories of threats: man-made and natural. These categories help distinguish between risks that are created by human actions and those that occur due to natural events. Understanding these categories is essential for developing appropriate security strategies, as they each present different types of challenges and require specific prevention and mitigation measures.

Breakdown of the Categories:

A. Human and systemic: While this classification could make sense in certain contexts (for example, identifying human factors or systemic vulnerabilities), it is not the most common framework for dividing security threats. Security concerns generally focus on the distinction between threats that arise from human activities and those that result from natural occurrences, rather than making a distinction between "human" and "systemic" factors.
B. Man-made and natural: This is the most widely accepted classification. Man-made hazards refer to threats that originate from human actions, such as cyberattacks, terrorism, or industrial accidents. Natural hazards include events such as earthquakes, floods, hurricanes, or wildfires. Security protocols often need to address both types of risks with different approaches, tools, and planning strategies. For example, a natural disaster response might focus on evacuation and resource management, while man-made threats might involve surveillance, defense strategies, and countermeasures.
C. Internal and external: This classification is often used in the context of internal and external threats to an organization or system, focusing on the origin of the threat. Internal threats come from within the organization (e.g., disgruntled employees, insider attacks), while external threats come from outside (e.g., hackers, external criminals). While this is a relevant classification for certain security issues, it is not as broad or universally applicable as the man-made and natural distinction.
D. Direct and indirect: This distinction addresses the nature of the impact or cause of the threat rather than the source. Direct threats are those that immediately affect the system (e.g., a cyberattack or a physical breach), while indirect threats may have secondary effects (e.g., a long-term supply chain disruption caused by a natural disaster). Though this is a useful way of thinking about impacts, it doesn't serve as a primary way to categorize hazards in security.

Thus, B. Man-made and natural is the most accurate and commonly used framework for classifying the primary threats that security systems aim to protect against, covering both the human-driven and naturally occurring risks that could harm an organization or society.