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RCDD BICSI Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

An ICT distribution designer receives a submitted product that does not match the one outlined in the contract documents due to a delay in shipping or manufacturing. 

The designer must decide what action to take. Which action should be taken?

A. Reject the submittal after verifying compliance with applicable standards.
B. Approve the submittal after asking about additional compensating warranty offerings.
C. Approve the submittal after verifying code compliance.
D. Approve the submittal after verifying all significant features of the originally specified product are met.

Answer: D

Explanation:

When a product submitted for approval is not exactly as specified in the contract documents, the ICT distribution designer must evaluate whether the proposed product meets the essential requirements of the project. This decision is crucial, especially when delays in shipping or manufacturing have caused the originally specified product to be unavailable.

In this scenario, the designer should approve the submittal after verifying all significant features of the originally specified product are met. This means that the submitted product must still meet the core functional and technical requirements outlined in the contract. It is essential to check that the product's capabilities and performance characteristics align closely with the specified product. For instance, if the original product had a particular feature, such as a specific bandwidth capacity or power efficiency, the substitute product must match or exceed those specifications to ensure system performance is not compromised.

Choosing A (rejecting the submittal) would be premature unless the substitute product does not meet key project requirements or standards. The designer must first verify the substitute's capabilities and ensure it complies with the contract specifications.

Option B, which involves approving the submittal after considering additional warranty offerings, is not the ideal course of action unless the warranty specifically compensates for any performance or technical differences between the original and the substitute product. A warranty is secondary to confirming that the product itself meets all specified requirements.

Option C, approving the submittal solely based on code compliance, could be insufficient. While it is important for the product to adhere to local building or industry codes, code compliance alone does not guarantee that the product will meet all the intended functional specifications of the originally specified product. The designer must take a more comprehensive approach by ensuring all critical features are matched, not just verifying code compliance.

Therefore, the most appropriate action is D: approving the submittal after thoroughly ensuring that the substitute product’s features align with those of the originally specified product. This ensures the project’s integrity, performance, and compliance with contractual and functional expectations.

Question No 2:

What is a simplified cone of protection for lightning strikes as it pertains to a structure (building, pole, etc.)?

A. 43 m (140 ft)
B. A base diameter equal to the height of the structure
C. A base radius equal to the height of the structure
D. 50% of the height of the structure in any direction

Answer: C

Explanation:

A "cone of protection" refers to the area surrounding a structure that is protected from lightning strikes by a lightning protection system. The simplified cone of protection is based on a theoretical model used to estimate the area that a lightning rod or similar system can shield from lightning strikes. The model assumes that lightning tends to strike the highest point in an area, so a lightning protection system (like a rod or pole) is designed to intercept this potential strike before it can hit other parts of the structure.

The simplest way to describe this cone of protection is by using the height of the structure to determine the radius of the protected area at ground level. This is where option C becomes relevant: a base radius equal to the height of the structure indicates that the protected area at the base of the structure forms a cone, and the radius of this cone is proportional to the structure’s height. For example, if the building or pole is 20 meters tall, the protected area at the ground level would extend out 20 meters in all directions.

Let’s break down the other options:

• A. 43 m (140 ft): This is an arbitrary measurement and does not align with the typical way of calculating a cone of protection. The radius is typically determined based on the structure's height, not a fixed distance.

• B. A base diameter equal to the height of the structure: This would mean the base of the cone is twice the height of the structure, which is not the standard rule for calculating the protection zone. The correct proportion is a base radius equal to the height, not the diameter.

• D. 50% of the height of the structure in any direction: This would imply that the radius of the protection area is only half of the height, which underestimates the protection area. The simplified cone of protection generally uses the full height to determine the protection radius, not a fraction.

In summary, a simplified cone of protection typically means the radius of the protected area at the ground level is equal to the height of the structure, and that’s why C is the correct answer.

Question No 3:

When determining the minimum number of 103 metric designator conduits (4 trade size) that should be specified by the ICT distribution designer for an underground entrance facility, which of the following is correct?

A. 2 Conduits
B. 3 Conduits
C. 4 Conduits
D. 6 Conduits

Answer: B

Explanation:

When sizing an underground entrance facility, one of the key considerations is ensuring there are sufficient conduits to handle the necessary cables and to allow for future expansion or upgrades. The term "103 metric designator" refers to a conduit size that is widely used in ICT (Information and Communications Technology) installations, and "4 trade size" denotes a specific dimension of conduit, typically 4 inches in diameter.

In this scenario, the ICT distribution designer needs to ensure that there is enough space for both the current infrastructure and potential future requirements. The conduit count is based on several factors, including the number of cables expected to pass through, the type of installation, and the need for future scalability or redundancy.

The minimum number of conduits specified for an underground entrance facility is typically guided by standards and best practices that prioritize both immediate and future needs. The answer is B (3 conduits) because this allows for at least two separate paths for cables, which is critical for redundancy and the flexibility to accommodate upgrades without requiring additional excavation or disruption to the facility. The extra conduit allows for future cable additions or repairs without affecting the integrity of the primary system.

Choosing A (2 conduits) would typically be insufficient, as it doesn't account for the necessary redundancy or room for expansion. C (4 conduits) might be more than what is necessary for a minimum configuration, especially if the facility is intended to be scalable in smaller increments, while D (6 conduits) would be an overestimate unless the facility requires extensive cabling capacity or is expected to handle multiple complex systems simultaneously.

In summary, 3 conduits strike a balance between ensuring adequate capacity for the current setup and allowing room for growth. This configuration follows established design guidelines aimed at providing both practicality and flexibility for future ICT infrastructure needs.

Question No 4:

What category of transmission performance can 66-style connecting blocks support with certain designs?

A. Category 3
B. Category 5
C. Category 5e
D. Category 6
E. Category 6A

Answer: C

Explanation:

66-style connecting blocks, commonly used in older telephone and networking applications, can support different categories of transmission performance depending on the design and quality of the components used. When considering Category 5e (Category 5 enhanced), these blocks are generally considered sufficient to handle the performance required for modern network infrastructures.

The Category 5e standard was developed to improve upon the original Category 5 specifications, providing better performance with reduced crosstalk and other signal interference. The blocks can handle the transmission frequencies and data rates needed for most general networking tasks, such as Gigabit Ethernet.

1. Category 3: This is an older standard, primarily used for telephone lines and early data transmission. It only supports up to 10 Mbps Ethernet speeds, which is far below the current standards. 66-style blocks are not typically used to support Category 3 performance in modern setups due to the advent of better, higher-performance systems.

2. Category 5: This standard was widely used in networking but has been largely superseded by Category 5e. Although 66-style blocks might be able to support Category 5 performance in some cases, it is more common to associate them with Category 5e due to the improvements in the standard.

3. Category 5e: This standard supports Gigabit Ethernet (1 Gbps) and is capable of handling data transmission at frequencies up to 100 MHz. 66-style blocks can indeed support Category 5e transmission with the right design, making it a suitable choice for modern networking installations.

4. Category 6: This is a higher category that supports 10 Gigabit Ethernet over shorter distances and operates at frequencies up to 250 MHz. While 66-style blocks can potentially support Category 6 performance, it is less common to use these blocks for Category 6 installations, as Category 6 often involves more advanced cabling and components designed for higher speeds.

5. Category 6A: This standard supports 10 Gigabit Ethernet over longer distances and operates at frequencies up to 500 MHz. 66-style blocks are not typically used for Category 6A transmission, as this standard demands specialized equipment designed to maintain the integrity of high-speed signals over longer distances.

In summary, while 66-style connecting blocks can support higher transmission categories in specific configurations, Category 5e is the most common and practical choice for reliable performance, especially in modern network setups. This is why the correct answer is C, as it strikes a balance between compatibility with modern Ethernet standards and the capabilities of 66-style blocks.

Question No 5:

Open RFI’s should be reviewed on a __________ basis.

A. daily
B. bi-weekly
C. weekly
D. bi-monthly

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

When managing open RFIs (Request for Information), it’s important to review them regularly to ensure that no request is left unresolved or stagnant. RFIs are critical in the communication process between stakeholders, contractors, and suppliers, especially in industries like construction and engineering, where timely information is essential for project progress. The frequency of review helps to keep the project on track, prevent delays, and ensure all parties are aligned.

In most project management scenarios, weekly reviews of open RFIs are preferred. Reviewing them weekly allows for a consistent and proactive approach to addressing inquiries. This schedule provides enough time for the RFI responses to be processed, while still keeping the project timeline intact. A weekly review cycle ensures that all RFIs are monitored closely, with attention given to any that require escalation or immediate action.

The daily review might seem like a good option because it would ensure that RFIs are resolved quickly. However, this can be excessive and time-consuming, particularly in larger projects where a high volume of RFIs might exist. A daily review could lead to unnecessary over-monitoring and could be less efficient.

On the other hand, reviewing RFIs on a bi-weekly or bi-monthly basis would generally be too infrequent. For complex projects, a bi-weekly or bi-monthly review might allow RFIs to pile up without timely resolution, causing delays and affecting the project schedule. The weekly review cycle strikes a balance, ensuring both prompt responses and an efficient workflow.

By reviewing RFIs on a weekly basis, project managers can stay ahead of any potential issues and keep the process moving smoothly. This also helps in managing expectations with stakeholders and maintaining momentum in the project.

Question No 6:

Which two of the following actions are applicable during a project’s closeout process? (Choose two.)

A. Communicate discrepancies to responsible parties.
B. Begin testing of installed infrastructure.
C. Evaluate the surroundings of the project and report back to the communications distribution professional of these findings.
D. Hire legal counsel for representation.
E. Create schedule for completion of punch list.

Answer: A, E

Explanation:

The closeout process of a project is a critical phase where the project team ensures that all aspects are finalized, and any remaining tasks are completed. The closeout process also involves reviewing the work done, confirming it aligns with the contract documents, and addressing any discrepancies or punch list items before the project is officially completed.

A. Communicate discrepancies to responsible parties:
One of the essential tasks during the closeout phase is to identify and communicate any discrepancies in the project deliverables. This could include issues related to specifications, installations, or any deviations from the agreed-upon design. Discrepancies must be documented and communicated to the responsible parties, such as contractors or suppliers, so they can be resolved. This helps to ensure that the final product meets all contractual and functional expectations.

E. Create schedule for completion of punch list:
A punch list is a list of minor tasks or corrections that need to be completed before the project is considered fully finished. This list often includes small repairs, adjustments, or checks that are not major but still require attention to meet the project's specifications. Creating a schedule for the completion of the punch list is essential to ensure that these tasks are completed in a timely manner and that the project can be formally closed out.

B. Begin testing of installed infrastructure:
Testing of installed infrastructure usually happens earlier in the project, not during the closeout process. It is part of the quality assurance and commissioning phases, where the systems are tested for functionality before the project is deemed complete. Testing during closeout would generally involve final system checks and verification, but it is not a primary task during this phase.

C. Evaluate the surroundings of the project and report back to the communications distribution professional of these findings:
This action is more related to the initial stages of a project, especially during site surveys or environmental assessments. During the closeout process, the focus is on ensuring that all deliverables are completed and any outstanding issues are addressed, rather than on evaluating the surroundings.

D. Hire legal counsel for representation:
Hiring legal counsel is not typically a task during the closeout process unless there is a legal dispute or issue that needs to be resolved. Legal counsel may have been involved earlier in the project for contract negotiations or during disputes, but it is not a routine part of the closeout phase.

Question No 7:

Telecommunications cabling (e.g., voice, data, video, security, audio, control) can be damaged during the construction phases of rough-in, drywall installation, and during the siding of the exterior. For these reasons, telecommunications cabling shall be acceptance tested.Acceptance testing includes visual examination and verification of all cabling and qualification of copper cabling for data cabling or certification of copper or optical fiber cabling for data cabling. 

Verification testing is generally performed in which two of the following steps? (Choose two.)

A. Post the acceptance of the construction contract once the Project Manager has approved this phase
B. Prior to the installation of insulation and drywall
C. Prior to the installation of the cable tray system for spurs, points that would or could damage the cable infrastructure
D. During the trim-out stage of the cabling after painting
E. Post the implementation of the construction

Answer: B, C

Explanation:

Verification testing is a crucial part of ensuring that telecommunications cabling is installed correctly and will function as expected. It involves checking the cabling system before it becomes difficult to access or possibly damaged during later phases of construction. Typically, verification testing is performed to ensure that the cabling installation meets specifications before further work that could obstruct or compromise the system.

Let's analyze the choices:

• A. Post the acceptance of the construction contract once the Project Manager has approved this phase: This step refers to project approval and doesn't directly relate to the verification of cabling before or during the installation process. Acceptance testing generally takes place before or during the construction, not after the contract is finalized.

• B. Prior to the installation of insulation and drywall: This is one of the key stages for verification testing. During this phase, the cabling is exposed and accessible, making it easier to check and ensure everything is correctly installed before it becomes concealed by insulation or drywall. Any errors or issues found during this step can be corrected without causing major disruptions later.
  C. Prior to the installation of the cable tray system for spurs, points that would or could damage the cable infrastructure: Verification testing is also important before installing systems such as cable trays, which could potentially damage or obstruct the cabling infrastructure. Ensuring that the cabling is properly installed and free from defects before these systems are put in place helps avoid complications during the rest of the construction.

• D. During the trim-out stage of the cabling after painting: The trim-out stage occurs later in the construction process, typically when finishing touches like painting and final adjustments are being made. By this point, the cabling may already be difficult to access and inspect thoroughly, which is why verification testing is performed earlier in the process, such as before insulation or drywall is installed.

• E. Post the implementation of the construction: Like option A, this involves a phase after the construction is completed. Verification testing is ideally conducted during the construction process before major finishes are applied to avoid unnecessary damage to the cabling system.

In conclusion, the most effective and ideal times to perform verification testing are B (prior to the installation of insulation and drywall) and C (prior to the installation of the cable tray system), as these steps ensure that cabling is properly checked before it becomes hidden or vulnerable to damage in later stages of construction.

Question No 8:

To properly size and provide accurate cost estimates for a communications distribution horizontal pathway that will include BAS system infrastructure, what should the designer provide for every BAS outlet or device based on the total floor area?

A. 9.30 m² (100 ft²)
B. 23.20 m² (250 ft²)
C. 91.40 m² (300 ft²)
D. 152.40 m² (500 ft²)

Answer: B

Explanation:

When designing a communications distribution horizontal pathway, particularly for systems like Building Automation Systems (BAS), the designer must account for the infrastructure required to support the system across the entire facility. The critical factor here is understanding how much floor area is associated with each outlet or device connected to the system.

The correct answer, B (23.20 m² or 250 ft²), reflects the standard recommendation for calculating how much area should be allocated per BAS outlet or device in terms of the communications distribution pathway. This figure helps ensure that there is adequate capacity for the cabling, routing, and other necessary infrastructure to reach every BAS device or outlet. By estimating this area for each outlet or device, the designer can provide a more accurate estimate for the materials, labor, and other costs associated with laying down the infrastructure.

The rationale behind this calculation is to ensure that there is sufficient pathway space to handle the wiring and connectivity for BAS devices without excessive congestion. 23.20 m² (250 ft²) is often considered a reasonable allocation that balances cost-efficiency with performance, taking into account the average density of BAS outlets and devices in a typical facility layout.

Option A (9.30 m² or 100 ft²) would likely be too small of an area to provide enough space for the pathways, potentially leading to congestion or difficulty in accommodating the necessary infrastructure. On the other hand, C (91.40 m² or 300 ft²) and D (152.40 m² or 500 ft²) are unnecessarily large allocations that could result in overestimating the required materials and thus inflating costs without providing significant additional benefit for most typical installations.

Therefore, B strikes the right balance between being realistic for typical installations while ensuring that the system remains scalable and manageable, offering both cost-efficiency and adequate capacity for future growth or changes in the BAS infrastructure. This area provides enough space to route the cabling and other infrastructure while preventing it from becoming overcrowded or unduly expensive.

Question No 9:

What is the process of limiting fire and smoke using fire-resistive barriers?

A. Suppression
B. Prevention
C. Compartmentation
D. Detection

Answer: C

Explanation:

The process of limiting fire and smoke using fire-resistive barriers is known as compartmentation. This is a key concept in fire protection and safety, where buildings are divided into smaller, isolated sections or compartments that help contain the spread of fire and smoke. These barriers, which include fire-rated walls, floors, and doors, are designed to resist the passage of fire and smoke for a certain period, providing time for occupants to evacuate and for emergency responders to control the fire.

1. Compartmentation: The goal of compartmentation is to slow down or stop the spread of fire and smoke throughout a building. By dividing a structure into smaller sections using fire-resistant barriers, the fire is confined to one area, preventing it from spreading to other parts of the building. This approach improves life safety, property protection, and firefighting operations. Fire-resistant barriers are typically constructed from materials that are rated to withstand fire for a specific amount of time, such as concrete, fire-rated drywall, or steel.

2. Suppression: Fire suppression refers to the active measures taken to extinguish a fire once it has started. This includes systems like sprinklers, fire extinguishers, and foam systems. While suppression helps to put out fires, compartmentation is the preventive strategy that limits the fire's movement by containing it within a designated area.

3. Prevention: Fire prevention involves measures to reduce the likelihood of a fire occurring in the first place. This can include strategies like eliminating fire hazards, proper storage of flammable materials, and regular maintenance of electrical systems. However, prevention does not directly deal with containing a fire once it has started, which is the purpose of compartmentation.

4. Detection: Fire detection refers to systems that identify the presence of fire early so that appropriate action can be taken. Common examples include smoke detectors and heat sensors. While detection is crucial for triggering alarm systems and initiating evacuation procedures, it does not specifically address the containment of fire and smoke, which is the focus of compartmentation.

In conclusion, compartmentation is the process of using fire-resistive barriers to limit the spread of fire and smoke. By subdividing a building into smaller sections, it helps to protect human life, property, and assets during a fire event. This process is essential in maintaining a safe evacuation route and reducing the overall damage caused by the fire. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Question No 10:

An ICT distribution designer is providing labeling for a data center room number 2A, located on the second floor having 10 rows of cabinets. 

Which of the following identifiers/labels would the designer attach to the bonding and grounding conductor between the first cabinet in the 6th row and the data center ground bar?

A. 2A/R601.1
B. 2A-SBB/R601.1
C. 2/R6
D. TEF1/R601.1

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

In data centers, proper labeling and identification of all electrical components, including bonding and grounding conductors, is critical for safety, maintenance, and troubleshooting. Labeling ensures that electrical systems are easily traceable, and can help technicians identify the correct connections quickly, especially in large facilities with complex infrastructure.

The question asks for the label to be attached to the bonding and grounding conductor between the first cabinet in the 6th row and the data center ground bar. Bonding and grounding conductors connect equipment to the electrical ground, which is a key aspect of maintaining safety in the event of an electrical fault. Proper labeling helps ensure that all connections are properly identified, making maintenance and inspections easier.

Now, let’s break down the labeling options provided:

• A. 2A/R601.1 – This label indicates the room number and a reference to a specific rule or code (likely related to the grounding or bonding standard). However, this label does not specify the bonding and grounding conductor explicitly, which is required by the question.

• B. 2A-SBB/R601.1 – This label is the correct one, as it specifies the room number 2A, the row identifier SBB (which likely refers to the Specific Bonding Bar, the location where the conductor is connected), and the reference to the relevant code, R601.1. This label provides the most precise and informative identifier for the conductor and its associated ground bar.

• C. 2/R6 – This is a less descriptive label. It indicates the second room (2) and row 6 (R6), but it does not provide enough information to specify the nature of the bonding and grounding conductor, nor does it provide any code reference, which would be necessary for compliance.

• D. TEF1/R601.1 – This label mentions TEF1, which could be a different system or component identifier unrelated to the bonding and grounding conductor for the 6th row, making this label incorrect for the given situation.

In summary, B is the most appropriate choice because it provides detailed information about the room, specific bonding bar, and the relevant reference code, which ensures proper identification of the bonding and grounding conductor between the specified cabinets and ground bar.