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SPLK-5001 Splunk Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

Which Enterprise Security framework provides a mechanism for running preconfigured actions within the Splunk platform or integrating with external applications?

A. Asset and Identity
B. Notable Event
C. Threat Intelligence
D. Adaptive Response

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Adaptive Response framework within Splunk Enterprise Security offers a powerful mechanism for integrating preconfigured actions either within the Splunk platform or with external applications. This functionality is designed to automate security workflows and provide real-time, actionable responses based on notable events or data identified within Splunk.

This framework allows users to define automated responses to certain triggers, thereby enabling the system to take predefined actions when specific criteria are met. These actions could range from updating a threat intelligence source to triggering an external system such as a firewall or a blocking mechanism to mitigate threats. The ability to integrate with external applications extends the flexibility and versatility of security operations, enhancing the overall effectiveness of an organization’s security posture.

The Adaptive Response framework is especially important in a modern security environment, where speed and automation are critical. Instead of manually intervening in every security event, which can be time-consuming and error-prone, this framework allows for a predefined, automated response, saving time and resources while minimizing human error.

Here’s why the other options are not the correct answer:

• A. Asset and Identity: This framework primarily focuses on managing and tracking assets and identities across your infrastructure, ensuring that security policies can be applied to them, but it does not provide a mechanism for automating responses in the way that Adaptive Response does.

• B. Notable Event: While notable events are important for identifying security incidents, they are more related to the process of flagging and managing significant security events rather than providing a framework for automated responses.

• C. Threat Intelligence: This framework focuses on integrating external threat intelligence sources to enhance security awareness, but it does not offer the same kind of automated response mechanism as Adaptive Response.

Therefore, D is the correct answer because it directly relates to the automation of responses within the Splunk platform and through external applications.

Question No 2:

Which feature of Splunk Enterprise Security enables industry frameworks like CIS Critical Security Controls, MITRE ATT&CK, and the Lockheed Martin Cyber Kill Chain® to be mapped to Correlation Search results?

A. Annotations
B. Playbooks
C. Comments
D. Enrichments

Answer: A

Explanation:

Splunk Enterprise Security (ES) includes a powerful set of features designed to streamline and enhance security operations. One such feature is Annotations, which play a key role in associating security frameworks with the results of correlation searches. This allows organizations to map industry-standard frameworks such as CIS Critical Security Controls, MITRE ATT&CK, and the Lockheed Martin Cyber Kill Chain® to the data retrieved from Splunk's correlation searches. By using annotations, security teams can gain insights into which phases of a cyberattack, as defined by these frameworks, are represented in their environment. This capability helps to provide context and ensure that detections are aligned with widely recognized methodologies in cybersecurity.

The key reason Annotations is the correct answer is that it allows for the direct mapping of these frameworks to specific data points within Splunk, giving teams a clearer understanding of how certain activities, behaviors, or alerts fit within these established security models. This contextualization is critical for improving incident response and threat hunting efforts.

Let's review the other options:

• B. Playbooks: Playbooks in Splunk ES are a part of the incident response process, guiding users through predefined steps to resolve security incidents. While they can help automate responses, they do not directly map industry frameworks to correlation search results.

• C. Comments: Comments are often used in Splunk to provide notes or explanations about specific search results or configurations. However, they do not offer the structured framework integration that annotations provide.

• D. Enrichments: Enrichments enhance security data by adding additional context, such as threat intelligence feeds, but they are not specifically designed for mapping industry frameworks to search results.

Thus, Annotations are the feature that allows the direct mapping of industry frameworks to correlation search results, making them the correct choice.

Question No 3:

Which of the following is the primary benefit of using the CIM in Splunk?

A. It allows for easier correlation of data from different sources.
B. It improves the performance of search queries on raw data.
C. It enables the use of advanced machine learning algorithms.
D. It automatically detects and blocks cyber threats.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Common Information Model (CIM) in Splunk is a framework designed to standardize how data is structured and represented within the platform. The primary benefit of using the CIM is its ability to facilitate the correlation of data from multiple sources. By standardizing the way event data is categorized and tagged, the CIM enables easier integration and comparison of data from different log sources, applications, and systems. This is crucial for organizations dealing with large, diverse datasets, as it ensures that data from different technology stacks can be easily aligned for analysis, visualization, and reporting.

A is the correct answer because the CIM makes it easier to correlate data. When data from various sources follows the same standardized format, it is more straightforward to match patterns, identify trends, and create meaningful relationships between otherwise disparate datasets. For instance, security teams can correlate logs from firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and other network devices in a meaningful way, allowing them to identify threats across their infrastructure with greater accuracy.

The other options do not correctly reflect the main purpose of the CIM:

• B: While the CIM organizes data, it does not directly improve the performance of search queries. Performance improvements typically depend on indexing, data storage techniques, and optimization strategies, not solely on the data model itself.

• C: The CIM itself does not enable machine learning algorithms, though it may make data more suitable for machine learning models. However, machine learning capabilities depend on Splunk's ML Toolkit and not directly on the CIM.

• D: The CIM does not automatically detect or block cyber threats. Detection and blocking of threats in Splunk typically rely on specific security monitoring apps and custom detection rules. The CIM is more concerned with data structure rather than cybersecurity actions like blocking threats.

In summary, the Common Information Model in Splunk helps in the correlation of data across different sources, providing an essential benefit in terms of analysis, security monitoring, and troubleshooting.

Question No 4:

Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) are methods or behaviors utilized by attackers. In which framework are these categorized?

A. NIST 800-53
B. ISO 27000
C. CIS18
D. MITRE ATT&CK

Answer: D

Explanation:

Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) are core elements in understanding how cyber adversaries operate and are categorized within the MITRE ATT&CK framework. MITRE ATT&CK stands for Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge, and it provides a comprehensive knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations of cyber attacks. It is widely used by cybersecurity professionals to track adversary behavior and to develop detection and response strategies.

• Tactics represent the adversary's overall goal or mission during an attack, such as initial access or data exfiltration.

• Techniques are the specific methods used to achieve those goals, such as phishing or exploiting vulnerabilities.

• Procedures refer to the more detailed steps or tools employed by adversaries when executing a technique, such as the use of a specific malware or command-and-control infrastructure.

The MITRE ATT&CK framework is instrumental in the world of cybersecurity, providing organizations with a common language to describe adversarial actions, helping to develop defenses, identify gaps, and improve incident response.

The other options—A. NIST 800-53, B. ISO 27000, and C. CIS18—are also important frameworks in cybersecurity, but they serve different purposes:

• A. NIST 800-53 focuses on security and privacy controls for federal information systems and organizations in the U.S. It is designed to help with risk management and securing information systems.

• B. ISO 27000 is a family of standards focused on information security management systems (ISMS) and provides guidelines for establishing, maintaining, and improving security practices within organizations.

• C. CIS18 refers to the Center for Internet Security's Critical Security Controls, which are a set of best practices for cyber defense.

Question No 5:

A threat hunter executed a hunt based on the following hypothesis:
As an actor, I want to plant rundll32 for proxy execution of malicious code and leverage Cobalt Strike for Command and Control.
Relevant logs and artifacts such as Sysmon, netflow, IDS alerts, and EDR logs were searched, and the hunter is confident in the conclusion that Cobalt Strike is not present in the company’s environment.

Which of the following best describes the outcome of this threat hunt?

A. The threat hunt was successful because the hypothesis was not proven.
B. The threat hunt failed because the hypothesis was not proven.
C. The threat hunt failed because no malicious activity was identified.
D. The threat hunt was successful in providing strong evidence that the tactic and tool is not present in the environment.

Answer: D

Explanation:

In threat hunting, the main goal is to validate hypotheses about potential malicious activity within an organization's environment. A threat hunter will look for signs of tools, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) that adversaries might use. In this case, the hypothesis was specifically focused on the use of rundll32 for proxy execution and the potential presence of Cobalt Strike, a well-known Command and Control (C2) tool often used by advanced persistent threats.

The hunter conducted an in-depth search using multiple data sources such as Sysmon logs, netflow data, IDS alerts, and EDR logs. They concluded with high confidence that Cobalt Strike was not present in the company's environment. This suggests that the hypothesis was rigorously tested and refuted based on available evidence.

Although the hypothesis was not proven (i.e., the expected malicious activity did not occur), this does not imply failure. In fact, a critical aspect of threat hunting is disproving hypotheses, as this provides valuable insights into what is not present in the environment, which can be just as important as identifying threats. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the hunt was successful in confirming that Cobalt Strike is not part of the environment.

Option A might seem tempting, as the hypothesis wasn't proven; however, disproving a hypothesis does not equate to failure, as the absence of evidence can be just as significant in cybersecurity. Option B also fails because the lack of a proven hypothesis doesn't signify a failure—it could lead to more focused future hunts. Option C doesn't fit because it incorrectly assumes no malicious activity was found, but the key takeaway is the absence of Cobalt Strike rather than the complete lack of activity.

Thus, option D most accurately reflects the outcome, as it emphasizes that the threat hunt succeeded in providing strong evidence that the tactic and tool (Cobalt Strike) were not present, which adds clarity and helps refine the defense posture.

Question No 6:

An analyst observes that one of their servers is sending a significantly higher amount of traffic than usual, measured in gigabytes, to a specific external system. However, there is no corresponding rise in incoming traffic. 

What kind of threat actor activity could this indicate?

A. Data exfiltration
B. Network reconnaissance
C. Data infiltration
D. Lateral movement

Answer: A

Explanation:

In this scenario, the abnormal behavior of the server—sending a large amount of outgoing traffic to a specific external system—suggests a potential attempt to transfer data from the internal network to an external location. This is a key characteristic of data exfiltration, a process in which threat actors extract sensitive information from a target network without authorization. Data exfiltration can be achieved through various methods, including the use of malware, compromised credentials, or direct access to internal systems. The fact that there is no increase in incoming traffic may further suggest that the goal of the attack is to extract data rather than to infiltrate or manipulate the system.

On the other hand, network reconnaissance (option B) typically involves scanning or probing the network to gather information about its structure or weaknesses. While reconnaissance can result in increased traffic, it does not typically involve the large-scale data transfers associated with the behavior described in the question.

Data infiltration (option C) refers to the process of threat actors introducing malicious data or files into a system. However, the focus here is on outgoing traffic rather than incoming, meaning the activity doesn't align with infiltration.

Finally, lateral movement (option D) occurs when attackers move between systems within the internal network, typically to escalate privileges or gain further access. Lateral movement is often characterized by internal traffic between systems, not the large-scale outbound data transfers observed in this case.

Thus, based on the details provided—specifically the unusually high outgoing traffic—data exfiltration (option A) is the most likely threat actor activity represented.

Question No 7:

In which phase of the Continuous Monitoring cycle are suggestions and improvements typically made?

A. Define and Predict
B. Establish and Architect
C. Analyze and Report
D. Implement and Collect

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Continuous Monitoring cycle is an ongoing process aimed at improving operations and achieving better outcomes over time. Within this cycle, different phases focus on various aspects of monitoring, such as defining objectives, collecting data, analyzing it, and reporting findings.

The phase where suggestions and improvements are most typically made is the Analyze and Report phase. This phase involves the thorough analysis of data gathered during the monitoring process. The information collected is examined for trends, anomalies, and patterns that could signal areas for improvement. After the analysis, the findings are often compiled into reports, which are then used to propose necessary changes, optimizations, or interventions. These suggestions are based on the insights gained from monitoring and help guide the next steps in refining processes or systems.

• A. Define and Predict: This phase focuses on setting objectives and anticipating future outcomes, rather than analyzing past data or suggesting improvements.

• B. Establish and Architect: This phase deals with the foundational setup of systems and frameworks for monitoring, not the assessment of data for improvements.

• D. Implement and Collect: In this phase, data is gathered and systems are put into action. While it is an essential part of the cycle, it is not the phase for making suggestions based on analysis.

Thus, the Analyze and Report phase is the key phase where data is reviewed and improvements are typically recommended based on the insights derived from the monitoring process.

Question No 8:

An analyst is unsure if all the potential data sources at her company are being fully utilized by Splunk and Enterprise Security. 

Which of the following could she recommend using to analyze the available data types and their potential security uses?

A. Splunk ITSI
B. Splunk Security Essentials
C. Splunk SOAR
D. Splunk Intelligence Management

Answer: B

Explanation:

To evaluate the data types available and explore their potential uses in security, the analyst should suggest using Splunk Security Essentials. This tool is specifically designed to help users assess their current security posture, understand the data they have available, and make the most of it. Security Essentials provides a curated collection of security content, use cases, and guides on how to leverage Splunk for various security scenarios. It assists analysts in identifying the best ways to utilize existing data sources for effective threat detection and response.

Here’s why the other options are not as appropriate:

• A. Splunk ITSI (IT Service Intelligence): While ITSI is powerful for monitoring and visualizing IT service health, it's primarily focused on the health of business services, applications, and infrastructure. It’s not designed to provide a comprehensive view of security data sources or their specific use cases. Therefore, it's less suited for identifying how security data might be utilized.

• C. Splunk SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response): Splunk SOAR is focused on automating and orchestrating security workflows. While it can improve incident response and efficiency, it's not primarily designed for analyzing available data sources and understanding their security applications.

• D. Splunk Intelligence Management: This tool is used to manage and operationalize threat intelligence, but it doesn't focus on evaluating the breadth of data sources available within an organization. It is more about integrating external intelligence into the security workflow rather than analyzing internal data sources.

Thus, Splunk Security Essentials is the most appropriate tool for the analyst to suggest. It is specifically designed to help security teams make better use of available data and improve security monitoring by offering insights into the data types they have.

Question No 9:

Why should an executable run from C:\Windows\Temp be investigated further?

A. Temp directories aren’t owned by any particular user, making it difficult to track the process owner when files are executed.
B. Temp directories are flagged as non-executable, meaning that no files stored within can be executed, and this executable was run from that directory.
C. Temp directories contain the system page file and the virtual memory file, meaning the attacker can use their malware to read the in-memory values of running programs.
D. Temp directories are world writable thus allowing attackers a place to drop, stage, and execute malware on a system without needing to worry about file permissions.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Temp directories, like C:\Windows\Temp, are typically used by applications and the operating system to store temporary files needed during the execution of tasks. While this usage is legitimate, it can also present a security risk when attackers exploit these directories to stage or execute malicious code.

One of the major concerns is that temp directories are often world writable. This means that files can be easily created, modified, or executed by any user or process with the appropriate privileges. Since these directories don't usually have strict access controls, they are an attractive location for attackers to drop malware. They can easily store malicious executables there without having to worry about file permission restrictions that might apply to other system directories, such as Program Files or System32. This allows the attacker to execute the malware on the compromised system.

Option A is inaccurate because temp directories are typically owned by the system or administrators, and the execution of files from them does not prevent tracking the process owner. Option B is incorrect because temp directories are not typically flagged as non-executable, and modern operating systems do not inherently block executables from running from such directories unless explicitly configured to do so. Option C is misleading as the system page and virtual memory files do not reside in temp directories, and the ability to read in-memory values of running programs typically involves other attack techniques, not executing files from temp directories.

Thus, the correct reason for further investigation is that temp directories are world writable, providing a location for attackers to stage and execute malware without needing to bypass strict file permissions.

Question No 10:

Where can an analyst visualize threat objects across their environment and chronological risk events for a Risk Object in Incident Review?

A. Running the Risk Analysis Adaptive Response action within the Notable Event.
B. Via a workflow action for the Risk Investigation dashboard.
C. Via the Risk Analysis dashboard under the Security Intelligence tab in Enterprise Security.
D. Clicking the risk event count to open the Risk Event Timeline.

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

To effectively visualize threat objects across the environment and analyze chronological risk events for a Risk Object in the Incident Review process, the analyst would use the Risk Event Timeline. This timeline provides a visual representation of all the risk events associated with a specific Risk Object, allowing the analyst to track the sequence and context of each event. The timeline view is essential for understanding the chronology of security events, making it easier for the analyst to analyze patterns and determine the potential impact of a risk object in the broader security landscape.

While the Risk Analysis dashboard under the Security Intelligence tab (option C) offers a broad overview of risks and events, it does not provide the specific chronological visualization of individual risk events as found in the Risk Event Timeline. The other options, such as running a Risk Analysis Adaptive Response action (option A) or utilizing a workflow action for the Risk Investigation dashboard (option B), are focused on different aspects of security response and do not directly address the need to visualize risk event timelines in Incident Review.

The ability to view the risk event count and open the associated Risk Event Timeline is therefore the most appropriate solution for visualizing both threat objects across the environment and their chronological risk events, facilitating a comprehensive incident review.