Veeam VMCE v12 Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

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VMCE v12 Veeam Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

A Scale-out Backup Repository with one local extent has been configured as follows.A daily VMware backup job retention is 31 days, keeping weekly GFS full backups for 14 weeks.

It is Mar, 20. A file from a backup that occurred the week of Jan, 1 must be recovered. Where is the data?

A. The performance tier
B. The data is no longer in the Scale-out Backup Repository
C. The capacity tier
D. The archive tier

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

In Veeam Backup & Replication, when a Scale-out Backup Repository (SOBR) is configured, it typically consists of multiple extents, including a performance tier and a capacity tier. The performance tier is where recent backup data is stored, providing fast access, while the capacity tier is used for long-term retention, especially for older backups that may be less frequently accessed.

Here's how to understand the scenario:

Retention Policy: The backup job is configured to keep daily backups for 31 days and weekly GFS (Grandfather-Father-Son) full backups for 14 weeks. This means:

Daily backups are kept for a 31-day period.

Weekly GFS full backups are kept for 14 weeks.

The backup in question is from the week of January 1.

Given that the backup retention is 31 days for daily backups, backups older than this (in this case, from early January) will no longer reside in the performance tier.Weekly GFS full backups are kept for 14 weeks, so a backup from the week of January 1 is likely stored in the capacity tier (since 14 weeks from January 1 is still within the retention period).The capacity tier is intended for long-term storage of backups that no longer fit in the performance tier due to the retention policy.
Therefore, the data from the backup that occurred the week of January 1 should be located in the capacity tier, as that’s where older backups are moved after the retention policy expires in the performance tier.

Question No 2:

Which Veeam feature will provide complete backup and recovery for an Oracle database in a photography company, where the core business operates from the Oracle database storing all company images?

A. Use the Veeam Explorer to identify and back up the database and logs daily along with the log backup set to a 15-minute interval.
B. Use the Veeam Plug-in for Oracle RMAN to back up the database daily and back up the archived redo logs at 15-minute intervals.
C. Use the Veeam Agent. Back up the entire server including the database with Consistent Server Backup feature.
D. Use the Veeam Plug-in for Oracle RMAN to back up the entire host server including the database and logs daily.

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

In the scenario described, the company requires complete backup and recovery for an Oracle database, where the database stores images that are continuously updated. Additionally, the company has a policy of protecting the database itself, which points to the need for a solution that not only backs up the database regularly but also backs up the logs for point-in-time recovery.

Let’s go through the options and evaluate the best solution:

Option A: Use the Veeam Explorer to identify and back up the database and logs daily along with the log backup set to a 15-minute interval.
While Veeam Explorer is a useful tool for recovering and managing individual database components and logs, it is not specifically a backup tool. It relies on other Veeam backup features to back up the system. Veeam Explorer allows for database restores but does not handle the continuous log backups at the needed interval. Thus, Option A does not provide the complete solution required for Oracle database protection and recovery, especially given the need for log backups every 15 minutes.

Option B: Use the Veeam Plug-in for Oracle RMAN to back up the database daily and back up the archived redo logs at 15-minute intervals.
The Veeam Plug-in for Oracle RMAN (Recovery Manager) is the most appropriate solution for this scenario. It is specifically designed to integrate with Oracle databases and leverage RMAN, Oracle’s built-in backup tool. This solution will ensure:

Complete backups of the database on a scheduled basis (e.g., daily).
Regular log backups at shorter intervals (such as every 15 minutes) to provide point-in-time recovery.
This solution is ideal for the situation described, as it protects both the database and its logs, meeting the company's policy for protecting its Oracle database. Therefore, Option B is the best choice.

Option C: Use the Veeam Agent. Back up the entire server including the database with Consistent Server Backup feature.
The Veeam Agent is suitable for backing up physical servers and entire systems, but it may not provide the level of integration or granularity required for databases like Oracle. Consistent Server Backup ensures that the entire server is backed up, but this does not focus specifically on Oracle database consistency or log-based recovery. The lack of integration with Oracle’s native backup and recovery mechanisms, like RMAN, could result in suboptimal recovery scenarios, particularly with databases that require transactional consistency. This option is less effective than Option B.

Option D: Use the Veeam Plug-in for Oracle RMAN to back up the entire host server including the database and logs daily.
This option could be suitable for a full backup of the server and its components, but it doesn’t provide the log backup intervals necessary for granular recovery in cases of frequent updates to the database (such as the 15-minute log backup requirement in the scenario). While this solution can back up the database and logs, it lacks the continuous log-based protection that Option B offers, making it a less complete solution compared to Option B.

In conclusion, Option B provides the most suitable solution for ensuring both daily database backups and 15-minute archived redo log backups, enabling both full and point-in-time recovery of the Oracle database. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Question No 3:

Which two environments can Veeam Agents back up? (Choose two.)

A. FreeBSD

B. Ubuntu

C. IBM iSeries

D. iOS

E. Windows Server

Answer: B, E

Explanation:

Veeam Agents are designed to back up a variety of environments, primarily focused on server and endpoint systems. Veeam provides specific backup solutions for physical machines, cloud-based systems, and virtual environments. Let’s go over each option to identify which two environments Veeam Agents can back up.

A. FreeBSD: As of the latest updates, Veeam does not support backup for FreeBSD. Veeam's focus has primarily been on mainstream operating systems like Windows and Linux distributions. FreeBSD is not one of the supported environments for Veeam Agents.

B. Ubuntu: Veeam does support backing up Linux environments, including Ubuntu. Ubuntu is a popular Linux distribution, and Veeam provides backup solutions for it, allowing backup of both servers and endpoints running Ubuntu.

C. IBM iSeries: IBM's iSeries (also known as AS/400) is a family of midrange computer systems that run on IBM’s proprietary OS, IBM i. Veeam does not support backup for IBM iSeries systems as part of its agent-based backup solutions. Therefore, this option is not applicable.

D. iOS: Veeam does not provide support for backing up iOS devices (iPhones or iPads). While Veeam focuses on protecting servers and endpoints, mobile devices running iOS are not part of the supported platforms for their backup solutions.

E. Windows Server: Veeam provides robust backup solutions for Windows Server environments. Veeam Agents support backup of physical and virtual Windows Server systems, which are common targets for enterprise-level backup solutions.

Conclusion: Veeam Agents support backup for both Ubuntu (a Linux distribution) and Windows Server environments. Therefore, the correct answers are B and E.

Question No 4:

What two actions should the engineer take to change the environment to meet the new regulatory requirements?

A. Enable Immutability on the NAS
B. Add 24 monthly GFS restore points to the backup job
C. Configure a Scale-Out Backup Repository with NAS and Amazon S3
D. Move the backups from the NAS to a Linux Hardened Repository
E. Enable immutability in Amazon S3

Correct Answers: A and E

Explanation:

To meet the new regulatory requirements outlined in the question, the engineer needs to ensure that backups cannot be deleted or modified during the retention period and that there are sufficient restore points in place to comply with the 3-2-1 rule, which emphasizes having three copies of data (two on different media and one off-site), two backup types (local and off-site), and one copy off-site for disaster recovery.

Let's review the new regulatory requirements:

3-2-1 Rule: This requires keeping three copies of data — two on different storage media and one off-site.
Prevent the most recent 31 days of backup files from being deleted or modified.
Keep one copy of a monthly restore point around for 2 years.

A. Enable Immutability on the NAS

Immutability ensures that backup files cannot be deleted or modified for a certain retention period. This feature is essential to meet the requirement of preventing modification or deletion of the most recent 31 days of backups. By enabling immutability on the NAS, you ensure that the local backup repository cannot have its recent backups altered or deleted for a specified period. This action would help meet the second regulatory requirement. Therefore, A is the correct choice.

B. Add 24 monthly GFS restore points to the backup job

The backup job is currently set to keep only 31 days of restore points. However, the requirement states that the business needs to keep one copy of a monthly restore point around for 2 years. To meet this requirement, you would need to modify the backup job to keep at least 24 monthly restore points (one per month for the next 2 years). While this is relevant to the regulatory requirements, it does not directly address the immutability or protection needed. It is a necessary step but not as critical for the specific regulatory needs as the other choices. Therefore, B is not as strong a choice compared to the immutability actions.

C. Configure a Scale-Out Backup Repository with NAS and Amazon S3

A Scale-Out Backup Repository is used to combine multiple storage locations, like a NAS and cloud storage (e.g., Amazon S3), to enhance storage scalability and redundancy. While this approach could be useful for flexibility and redundancy, it does not specifically address the immutability requirement or ensure that backups cannot be modified or deleted within the required retention periods. The current setup with NAS and Amazon S3 repositories is likely sufficient for the backup storage needs. Therefore, C is not the best choice for meeting the regulatory requirements.

D. Move the backups from the NAS to a Linux Hardened Repository

A Linux Hardened Repository is a backup repository designed for better protection, especially against ransomware or malicious activity. While this is a more secure solution for backing up data, the current setup (NAS + Amazon S3) already fulfills the requirements for retention and off-site backup. Moving to a Linux Hardened Repository would provide additional security but does not directly address the immutability or regulatory requirements for preventing backup modification or deletion. Therefore, D is not a necessary change to meet the specified requirements.

E. Enable immutability in Amazon S3

Enabling immutability on Amazon S3 will prevent the deletion or modification of backup files stored in Amazon S3, which is critical for ensuring that monthly backup copies and other data cannot be tampered with or deleted. Immutability in Amazon S3 provides the off-site protection needed for the regulatory requirement that specifies keeping one copy of a monthly restore point for 2 years. This action will ensure that the backup copies stored in Amazon S3 comply with the retention policy and cannot be altered or deleted during the specified retention period. Therefore, E is a correct choice.

A. Enable Immutability on the NAS ensures that the backups stored on the NAS cannot be deleted or modified.
E. Enable immutability in Amazon S3 ensures that backup copies stored in Amazon S3 cannot be deleted or modified, providing off-site protection.

These two actions directly address the regulatory requirements for backup security and retention. Therefore, the correct answers are A and E.

Question No 5:

A Veeam engineer creates a Scale-Out Backup Repository (SOBR) that uses AWS S3 as the Performance Tier. The backup job is configured to “Keep monthly full backups for: 12 months.” The engineer wants the backups to move to Glacier after 90 days.

What should the engineer do first to achieve this goal?

A. Create a Vault in S3 Glacier
B. Add AWS S3 as a Capacity Tier before they can use Glacier
C. Add an Archive Tier with the appropriate Bucket from S3
D. Reconfigure the SOBR to use block storage as the Performance Tier

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

To achieve the goal of moving backups to Glacier after 90 days, the engineer should configure an Archive Tier in the Scale-Out Backup Repository (SOBR). The Archive Tier in Veeam is specifically designed to offload backups to low-cost storage, such as AWS Glacier. When you configure an Archive Tier, Veeam automatically moves the data to Glacier after the specified retention period (in this case, 90 days).

Here’s a breakdown of the other options:

Option A (Create a Vault in S3 Glacier) is not the correct step. While Glacier uses vaults for storage, creating a vault itself does not directly integrate with Veeam's SOBR configuration. Veeam integrates with S3 Glacier using the Archive Tier, not by manually creating a vault.

Option B (Add AWS S3 as a Capacity Tier before they can use Glacier) is not entirely correct in this context. The Capacity Tier is designed for offloading data to standard S3 storage, and while it is a necessary part of the SOBR configuration, it does not directly manage Glacier. For Glacier to be used, the Archive Tier must be added, which is distinct from the Capacity Tier.

Option D (Reconfigure the SOBR to use block storage as the Performance Tier) is unrelated to the goal of moving data to Glacier. Block storage, such as local disks or SSDs, is typically used as a Performance Tier in a SOBR, but this configuration has no bearing on using Glacier, which requires the Archive Tier for data offload.

In summary, to achieve the goal of automatically moving backups to Glacier after 90 days, the engineer should add an Archive Tier with the appropriate S3 Glacier bucket. This will allow the backups to move to Glacier after the specified period, ensuring cost-effective long-term storage.

Question No 6:

What describes an RPO?

A. To confirm at what point a backup should be migrated to Object Storage
B. To clarify how many restore points need to be recovered at the same time
C. To determine the maximum length of time a workload or application can be down
D. To confirm the data loss tolerance of a Business Unit or Organization

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is a key concept in disaster recovery and business continuity planning. It is a metric that helps organizations define the tolerance for data loss in the event of a system failure, outage, or disaster. The RPO is critical for determining how often backups should be taken to ensure that data loss does not exceed the organization's acceptable level. Let’s break down the options:

Option A: To confirm at what point a backup should be migrated to Object Storage

This option pertains to data storage management and the migration of backup data to Object Storage, which is a specific storage solution. While backups can be stored in Object Storage, this is not related to RPO, which focuses on data loss tolerance and not the physical location or migration of backups. Therefore, A is not the correct answer.

Option B: To clarify how many restore points need to be recovered at the same time

This option talks about the number of restore points that should be recovered, which refers more to restore operations rather than the concept of data loss tolerance. RPO does not dictate how many restore points are necessary; instead, it defines how much data loss is acceptable. Hence, B is not an accurate description of RPO.

Option C: To determine the maximum length of time a workload or application can be down

This option refers to the maximum downtime of a workload or application, which aligns more with RTO (Recovery Time Objective) rather than RPO. RTO deals with how quickly an organization needs to restore functionality after a disaster or failure, whereas RPO deals with how much data loss is acceptable during that downtime. Therefore, C is a description of RTO, not RPO.

Option D: To confirm the data loss tolerance of a Business Unit or Organization

This is the correct definition of RPO. RPO (Recovery Point Objective) defines the maximum amount of data loss that an organization can tolerate. It determines how frequently backups should be made to minimize data loss. For example, if the RPO is set to 1 hour, it means the business can tolerate losing up to 1 hour's worth of data in case of a disaster, and backups should be taken at least every hour to meet this requirement. This is exactly what D describes, making it the correct answer.

In summary, RPO is all about the data loss tolerance of an organization, which is clearly described in option D.

Question No 7:

What should the engineer do to perform all functions without needing to access the backup server locally or over remote desktop?

A. Use SSH to connect to the Veeam Backup & Replication server.
B. Install the required Veeam Explorers locally.
C. Install the Veeam console on the engineer's desktop.
D. Use Enterprise Manager to connect to the Veeam Backup & Replication server.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In this scenario, the engineer needs to perform all functions related to Veeam Backup & Replication without directly accessing the backup server via local access or remote desktop. Let’s review each option to determine the most suitable solution:

Option A: Use SSH to connect to the Veeam Backup & Replication server
SSH (Secure Shell) is a method commonly used to remotely access a server’s command line interface. However, Veeam Backup & Replication primarily relies on a GUI for configuration and management tasks, which cannot be fully managed or controlled over SSH. SSH would allow access to the server at a basic level, but it would not provide a comprehensive solution for all functions. Therefore, A is incorrect.

Option B: Install the required Veeam Explorers locally
Veeam Explorers are tools used to restore specific types of data from backups, such as Veeam Explorer for Microsoft Exchange, SQL Server, Active Directory, etc. While these tools are useful for restoring specific types of data, they are not designed to give full management access to Veeam Backup & Replication. The engineer would still require access to the main backup server to perform other administrative tasks, such as creating and managing jobs. Therefore, B is incorrect.

Option C: Install the Veeam console on the engineer's desktop
Installing the Veeam console on the engineer's desktop allows them to manage the Veeam Backup & Replication server remotely. This option provides the engineer with the full graphical user interface (GUI) for managing backups, creating jobs, monitoring, and performing restores, all without needing to access the backup server locally or via remote desktop. However, this requires installing the Veeam Backup & Replication console on the engineer’s desktop, which might not be the most efficient way if there's a more centralized management solution available. Therefore, C is a valid option, but not the most efficient.

Option D: Use Enterprise Manager to connect to the Veeam Backup & Replication server
Veeam Enterprise Manager is a web-based application that allows administrators to manage Veeam Backup & Replication remotely without needing access to the backup server locally or via remote desktop. This solution is designed for centralized management and provides a web interface that enables the engineer to perform all functions, including backup management, restores, monitoring, and more, from any device with a web browser. This is the most efficient and suitable option for performing all necessary functions remotely. Therefore, D is correct.
To perform all functions related to Veeam Backup & Replication without needing direct access to the backup server, the engineer should use Veeam Enterprise Manager, which provides a web-based interface for centralized management. This is the most streamlined and flexible solution.

Question No 8:

What option is required to properly back up Microsoft Exchange 2016 databases configured with regular database availability groups (DAGs) when using Veeam Agent for Microsoft Windows?

A. Standalone server
B. Advanced Exchange Backup
C. Exchange Processing
D. Failover Cluster

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When backing up Microsoft Exchange 2016, particularly in environments where Database Availability Groups (DAGs) are used, it's important to use the correct Veeam backup processing option to ensure that the Exchange databases are backed up and protected properly.

Option C, Exchange Processing, is the correct choice. In Veeam, Exchange Processing is a feature that allows for the application-aware backup of Microsoft Exchange databases, including those within a DAG configuration. Veeam uses this option to ensure that the backup captures the Exchange transaction logs and the databases in a consistent state, enabling proper backup and recovery of Exchange data. This feature is specifically designed to handle the complexities of Exchange DAGs, where multiple copies of the database might exist across different servers.

Here's a breakdown of the other options:

Option A, Standalone server, is not the correct choice because this option typically refers to backing up a single server without considering the specifics of Exchange databases and DAGs. When dealing with Microsoft Exchange 2016 and DAGs, you need more specialized backup processing like Exchange Processing to ensure that all databases and transaction logs are handled correctly.

Option B, Advanced Exchange Backup, is a term that sounds relevant but is not the correct option in the context of Veeam Agent for Microsoft Windows. The correct terminology in Veeam for Exchange-specific backups is "Exchange Processing." Advanced Exchange backup features could refer to some extended capabilities, but Exchange Processing is the option that Veeam uses to back up Exchange databases properly in DAG environments.

Option D, Failover Cluster, is also not correct for this scenario. While a DAG setup in Exchange uses a form of clustering to ensure high availability, Failover Cluster as an option is more related to backing up the infrastructure behind clustered systems, not specific Exchange database processing. The DAG itself handles the availability and replication of databases, but Veeam requires Exchange Processing to correctly back up the databases within that DAG setup.

To summarize, the Exchange Processing option is specifically designed for backing up Microsoft Exchange 2016, including DAGs, and ensures application consistency when handling transaction logs and databases during backup. Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.

Question No 9:

A power outage on Site A is expected during the night. The disaster recovery strategy has been implemented (see diagram). What is the correct way to start replicated VMs on Site B to minimize data loss?

A. Execute "Failover plan".
B. Execute "Planned failover".
C. Power on VMs manually through vCenter.
D. Execute "Permanent failover" from vCenter.

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

In a disaster recovery scenario where a power outage is expected at Site A, the goal is to minimize data loss while ensuring business continuity. The disaster recovery strategy typically includes replicated virtual machines (VMs) that are maintained at a secondary site (Site B) for such scenarios. To minimize data loss when Site A becomes unavailable, it is critical to perform a planned process to start the replicated VMs at Site B.

Here’s a detailed explanation of each option:

Execute "Failover plan":
The failover plan is a general action that could include any failover strategy, but it typically refers to switching to a backup or secondary system without necessarily considering whether the failover is planned or unplanned. This option could be used in cases where the primary site is unavailable suddenly, but it doesn’t provide the specific benefits of a "planned failover," which ensures consistency in replicated data.
Execute "Planned failover":
A planned failover is the most ideal action in this scenario. This type of failover is performed in a controlled manner, typically before a disaster event (like a power outage). The key benefit of a planned failover is that it ensures that all data is up-to-date on the secondary site (Site B) before the failover occurs. This helps minimize data loss and ensures that the secondary site is ready to handle workloads with minimal disruption. Planned failover also allows for graceful shutdown of services at the primary site (Site A) before initiating the failover, ensuring data consistency and avoiding potential issues with replication.
Power on VMs manually through vCenter:
While powering on VMs manually might work in a simple scenario, it’s not the most efficient or reliable way to perform disaster recovery in a structured environment. This method doesn’t provide the necessary orchestration to ensure that all dependencies, networking, and services are properly re-established. It could also lead to inconsistencies between the original site and the recovery site, and it’s not part of a best-practice disaster recovery strategy. As a result, manually powering on VMs is not recommended for minimizing data loss.
Execute "Permanent failover" from vCenter:
A permanent failover is typically used once the failover has been completed and the secondary site is fully operational. This option involves committing the failover to the secondary site and permanently abandoning the primary site. It is generally used when you are confident that the primary site will not be returning online or if you are decommissioning it permanently. In this scenario, since the power outage is expected to be temporary, a permanent failover would not be appropriate as it could lead to the unnecessary abandonment of the primary site’s data.

In conclusion, executing a "Planned failover" (option B) is the most ideal action to take when expecting a power outage at Site A. It allows you to ensure that data replication is completed and that Site B is ready to take over with minimal risk of data loss, ensuring a smooth transition with the least amount of disruption.

Question No 10:

In Veeam Enterprise Manager, what granular restoration permission can be set for the Restore Operator role?

A. SharePoint items
B. Active Directory items
C. OneDrive items
D. File items

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Veeam Enterprise Manager is a part of the Veeam Backup & Replication suite, offering centralized management for backup operations, including user roles and permissions. The Restore Operator role in Veeam Enterprise Manager has specific permissions regarding the restoration of different types of data. The granular restoration permissions in Veeam Enterprise Manager determine what types of data the user in the Restore Operator role can restore.

Among the options, File items is the correct granular restoration permission that can be set for the Restore Operator role. The Restore Operator role is typically configured to restore file-level data from Veeam backups, and this includes granular restoration for individual files and folders from virtual machine backups. The file-level restore functionality provides the ability to recover specific files from backup, which is particularly useful for granular recovery of data without needing to restore the entire virtual machine.

Let’s break down why the other options are not suitable for the Restore Operator role:

A. SharePoint items: Restoring SharePoint items requires additional configuration and permission sets, often related to specialized roles for SharePoint restore functionality. SharePoint restores typically require specific permissions, such as for SharePoint administrators, not just the Restore Operator role.
B. Active Directory items: Restoration of Active Directory objects (e.g., users, groups, and organizational units) is part of the Active Directory restore functionality, which is typically handled by specialized roles and permissions, rather than the standard Restore Operator role. The Restore Operator role generally does not handle Active Directory restores in a granular way.
C. OneDrive items: OneDrive restores generally fall under the scope of Office 365 backups and restores, which may require specific permissions for Office 365 administrators or designated roles for granular OneDrive restoration. This is not typically a permission assigned to the Restore Operator role in the context of Veeam.

In summary, the Restore Operator role is specifically equipped to perform file-level restores, hence D. File items is the correct granular restoration permission that can be set for this role in Veeam Enterprise Manager.