Google Professional Cloud Security Engineer Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set3 Q41-60

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Question 41

Your company’s security team requires that all service account keys used in GCP be rotated every 90 days automatically. What is the most effective way to implement this policy at scale across multiple projects?

A) Use Cloud Scheduler with a Cloud Function that deletes and regenerates keys periodically
B) Enable Cloud KMS automatic key rotation for all service accounts
C) Apply an organization policy that enforces key rotation automatically
D) Use Terraform to manually reapply configurations every quarter

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) Use Cloud Scheduler with a Cloud Function that deletes and regenerates keys periodically
This is the most effective approach for automating service account key rotation. By using Cloud Scheduler to trigger a Cloud Function, the system can automatically identify old keys, delete them, and generate new keys on a defined schedule. This ensures keys are rotated consistently without manual intervention. Integrating Secret Manager allows secure storage of the newly generated keys, and Pub/Sub can notify administrators if a rotation fails. Cloud Logging captures all rotation events, providing a full audit trail, which is critical for compliance with standards such as ISO 27001 and SOC 2. This approach reduces operational risk, enforces cryptographic hygiene, and ensures continuous adherence to key lifecycle policies, making it the recommended solution.

B) Enable Cloud KMS automatic key rotation for all service accounts is invalid because Cloud KMS key rotation only applies to encryption keys, not IAM service account keys. Cloud KMS can automatically rotate cryptographic keys used for data encryption but does not manage the lifecycle of service account credentials. Using this method would leave service account keys unmanaged, creating potential security vulnerabilities and non-compliance with organizational policies that require regular credential rotation.

C) Apply an organization policy that enforces key rotation automatically Organization Policies in Google Cloud can enforce restrictions such as preventing service account key creation, but they cannot enforce automatic rotation intervals for existing keys. While Org Policies help prevent unauthorized key creation, they cannot proactively replace keys or ensure they are rotated on a defined schedule. Therefore, this option does not provide full lifecycle management and is insufficient for maintaining secure and compliant key management practices.

D) Use Terraform to manually reapply configurations every quarter is designed for infrastructure-as-code and configuration management, but it is not ideal for operational tasks that require periodic scheduling, such as service account key rotation. Manually reapplying Terraform configurations introduces operational overhead and may not guarantee that keys are rotated consistently. Terraform also lacks built-in integration with secure storage, alerting, and monitoring mechanisms required for safe and compliant service account key management, making it less effective than a Cloud Scheduler plus Cloud Function solution.

This clearly explains why option A is the best choice, while B, C, and D are not suitable.

Question 42:

An enterprise customer is concerned about data being accessed from non-corporate networks when employees work remotely. Which feature allows restricting resource access to corporate IP ranges only?

A) Cloud VPN tunnels
B) VPC Service Controls with Access Context Manager
C) Cloud Armor network policies
D) Organization policy constraints on IP

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

A) Cloud VPN tunnels provide encrypted network connectivity between on-premises networks and Google Cloud, ensuring data-in-transit protection. However, they do not enforce identity-based access, device compliance, or contextual policies. VPNs establish a network-level connection but cannot restrict which users or devices can access specific cloud resources, making them insufficient for fine-grained, zero-trust access control.

B) VPC Service Controls with Access Context Manager is the most effective solution for context-aware access control. VPC Service Controls create security perimeters around sensitive Google Cloud services, preventing data exfiltration from outside trusted networks. Access Context Manager adds contextual policies based on attributes such as source IP, device security posture, or organizational groups. Together, they enforce zero-trust principles, ensuring that access is granted only if the user identity, device compliance, and network conditions meet policy requirements. This combination provides granular, scalable, and automated enforcement of access policies, suitable for hybrid and remote work environments.

C) Cloud Armor network policies  at the Layer 7 level against threats such as DDoS attacks or malicious HTTP traffiC) While effective for application security, it does not control API-level access, enforce device trust, or implement contextual access for cloud resources. It cannot prevent unauthorized access to services like Cloud Storage or BigQuery based on device posture or user identity.

D) Organization policy constraints on IP Organization policies can enforce broad constraints, such as restricting resource locations or allowed services, but they cannot apply fine-grained, conditional access based on device compliance, user identity, or contextual factors like IP ranges. They lack the flexibility needed for zero-trust access enforcement.

By combining VPC Service Controls and Access Context Manager, organizations implement zero-trust security, ensuring that sensitive workloads are accessed only under approved conditions. This approach reduces risk from compromised credentials, rogue networks, or non-compliant devices, supports continuous compliance monitoring, and enables scalable governance without relying solely on perimeter-based security.

Question 43:

A cloud operations team detects that sensitive logs stored in Cloud Storage have been shared with public access. Which immediate step should a security engineer take?

A) Delete the bucket
B) Disable public access using the Public Access Prevention feature
C) Remove IAM users with roles/storage.admin
D) Move logs to BigQuery for better access control

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

A) Delete the bucket is an extreme action that could lead to permanent data loss and removal of audit trails, which are critical for investigating how public access occurreD) While it would remove exposure, it is not a controlled or recommended immediate response to a security incident.

B) Disable public access using the Public Access Prevention feature is the fastest and most effective way to contain exposure. Public Access Prevention (PAP) ensures that no users outside the project or organization can access the bucket, overriding any ACLs or misconfigured IAM policies. Enabling PAP immediately mitigates risk without data loss and provides enforcement at the bucket level. Following this, reviewing IAM bindings, enabling Cloud Audit Logs, and monitoring through Security Command Center can help understand the cause and prevent future incidents. Organization-level PAP enforcement via Organization Policy further strengthens compliance.

C) Removing IAM users with roles/storage.admin may help reduce risk but does not immediately block public access, especially if access was granted via ACLs or inherited permissions. It is not sufficient for rapid containment during an exposure event.

D) Moving logs to BigQuery for better access control Migrating data to BigQuery improves query and access auditing but does not address the immediate exposure risk of the public bucket. It is a long-term operational measure, not an immediate mitigation.

Enabling Public Access Prevention combined with auditing, IAM review, Organization Policy enforcement, and continuous monitoring creates a multi-layered security model. This approach ensures regulatory compliance, such as GDPR, and prevents inadvertent public sharing of sensitive data while maintaining operational integrity.

Question 44:

Your company wants to ensure that only encrypted images are deployed on Compute Engine. What’s the best way to enforce this at the organization level?

A) Enable CMEK on Compute Engine disks manually
B) Use an organization policy restricting disk encryption types
C) Require Shielded VM configuration for all instances
D) Use Cloud Armor rules to filter deployments

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

A) Enabling CMEK on Compute Engine disks manually enabling CMEK on each Compute Engine disk is labor-intensive and prone to errors. It increases the risk of configuration drift because administrators might forget to apply CMEK to some disks, leading to inconsistent encryption enforcement across projects. Manual enforcement also lacks scalability and does not provide a centralized control mechanism, making it unsuitable for large organizations or production environments.

B) Using an organization policy restricting disk encryption types is the most effective and scalable approach. By applying the organization policy constraint constraints/compute.requireCmekForDiskEncryption, all new disks are required to use Customer Managed Encryption Keys (CMEK). Any attempt to create a disk without CMEK is automatically blockeD) This centralized enforcement ensures consistency across projects and aligns with compliance mandates that require customer control over encryption keys. Integrating this with Cloud KMS key rotation and access logging provides visibility into key usage, accountability, and cryptographic governance.

C) Require Shielded VM configuration for all instances shielded VMs focus on boot integrity and protection against firmware or kernel tampering but do not enforce disk-level encryption. While they enhance the security posture of virtual machines, they do not satisfy compliance requirements related to customer-managed encryption.

D) Use Cloud Armor rules to filter deployments is designed to protect web applications from network threats and does not manage or enforce encryption policies on Compute Engine disks. It cannot prevent unencrypted disk deployments or ensure CMEK usage.

By combining organization policy enforcement with Cloud KMS and Security Command Center monitoring, organizations achieve centralized, automated, and auditable control over disk encryption. This approach ensures compliance, reduces operational risk, and maintains consistent protection across all production environments.

Question 45:

Your SOC team must monitor and alert when IAM policy bindings are modified at the organization level. Which GCP service enables this capability?

A) Cloud Monitoring metrics
B) Security Command Center
C) Cloud Logging with alerting policies
D) Access Context Manager

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A) Cloud Monitoring metrics provide insights into system performance, uptime, and resource utilization but are not specifically designed to capture detailed IAM policy changes. While they can track service health, they do not provide granular audit logs of administrative actions or the ability to trigger alerts for access control modifications.

B) Security Command Center offers a centralized view of security risks, misconfigurations, and compliance posture. However, it primarily surfaces high-level findings and does not natively provide real-time alerts for IAM policy modifications. It is more suited for periodic risk assessment rather than immediate detection of access control changes.

C) Cloud Logging with alerting policies is the most effective approach for monitoring IAM policy changes. Cloud Logging captures Admin Activity audit logs, which record who performed an action, when it occurred, and the originating IP or service account. By creating alerting policies in Cloud Monitoring based on specific log filters, such as protoPayloaD)methodName=”SetIamPolicy”, organizations can receive real-time notifications of critical IAM modifications. Integrating log sinks with Pub/Sub allows alerts to feed into SIEM systems or automated remediation workflows, enabling proactive detection and response. This combination ensures compliance with frameworks like SOC 2, ISO 27001, and PCI DSS, provides an auditable trail, and reduces the risk of unauthorized access or insider threats.

D) Access Context Manager enforces contextual access policies based on device posture, location, or IP address but does not provide auditing or alerting capabilities. While it strengthens access control enforcement, it cannot independently monitor or notify administrators of IAM policy changes.

By combining Cloud Logging and Cloud Monitoring, organizations achieve comprehensive, real-time, and scalable monitoring of IAM changes, supporting zero-trust principles, regulatory compliance, and operational security.

Question 46:

A financial organization must ensure that its cryptographic keys are protected by hardware-level security. Which GCP service provides this functionality?
A) Cloud KMS with HSM key protection level
B) Cloud Storage bucket encryption
C) Cloud HSM integrated with Secret Manager
D) Customer-managed keys using Cloud KMS software protection level

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) Cloud KMS with HSM key protection level using keys configured at the Hardware Security Module (HSM) protection level provides strong cryptographic assurance. HSM-backed keys are generated, stored, and used in FIPS 140-2 Level 3 validated hardware, which ensures tamper-resistant protection against key compromise. This approach is especially critical for regulated industries such as finance, healthcare, and government, where hardware-backed security and compliance are mandatory. Cloud KMS integrates HSM-backed keys with services like Cloud Storage, BigQuery, and Persistent Disks using Customer-Managed Encryption Keys (CMEK), allowing centralized key management and scalable encryption across the organization. Automatic key rotation further enhances security by maintaining key lifecycle hygiene without operational overhead, ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements and minimizing human error.

B) Cloud Storage bucket encryption provides automatic encryption using Google-managed keys, which offers security for data at rest. However, this is software-based encryption and does not offer the same level of hardware-backed assurance as HSM keys. While convenient and secure for general workloads, it may not meet the strict regulatory requirements for sensitive or high-value datA)

C) Cloud HSM integrated with Secret Manager provides strong security but requires manual setup, management, and integration, making it less scalable and more complex than Cloud KMS. Organizations with multiple projects or services may find this approach operationally burdensome compared to HSM-backed keys managed centrally via Cloud KMS.

D) Customer-managed keys using Cloud KMS software protection level provide cryptographic security but lack the hardware tamper-resistance and regulatory assurances of HSM-backed keys. For organizations requiring high assurance, software-based CMEK alone may not satisfy compliance standards such as FIPS 140-2, PCI DSS, or HIPAA)

Overall, Cloud KMS with HSM-backed keys provides the optimal balance of strong security, regulatory compliance, centralized management, scalability, and operational simplicity, making it the preferred choice for sensitive workloads in Google ClouD)

Question 47:

You discover that multiple developers are assigning themselves project owner roles using custom scripts. What’s the most effective mitigation?

A) Disable script access
B) Use organization policy to restrict role grantable scopes
C) Enable IAM Recommender
D) Enable Cloud Logging to track usage

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

A) Disable script access can prevent some automated or unintended role assignments, but it is primarily a reactive measure and does not enforce continuous governance. Scripts or users could still bypass this control if other permissions allow role modifications, making it insufficient as a comprehensive solution for managing IAM elevation risks.

B) Use organization policy to restrict role grantable scopes is the most effective approach. Organization policy constraints such as constraints/iam.disableServiceAccountKeyCreation and constraints/iam.allowedPolicyMemberDomains enable administrators to centrally enforce who can create service account keys or which domains can receive roles. Limiting role grantability ensures that only approved roles can be assigned at the organization or folder level, enforcing the principle of least privilege. This proactive policy enforcement reduces the risk of privilege escalation and prevents misconfigurations before they occur.

C) Enable IAM Recommender provides valuable insights into over-privileged roles and suggests recommendations for rightsizing permissions. However, it is advisory and cannot prevent users from assigning roles that violate organizational policies. While useful for optimization, it does not replace enforcement mechanisms.

D) Enable Cloud Logging to track usage captures Admin Activity audit logs, providing visibility into who changed IAM policies, when, and from where. While this improves observability and supports post-incident analysis, it does not automatically prevent unauthorized role assignments.

By combining organization policy enforcement with audit logging and Security Command Center alerts, organizations achieve both preventive and detective controls. This ensures continuous governance over IAM permissions, minimizes the risk of privilege escalation, and maintains compliance with security frameworks, supporting a robust, least-privilege access model.

Question 48:

You are setting up centralized security dashboards for multiple projects. Which tool provides organization-wide visibility into vulnerabilities and misconfigurations?

A) Security Command Center
B) Cloud Armor
C) Cloud Logging
D) BigQuery

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) Security Command Center (SCC) is Google Cloud’s native security management and risk platform that provides centralized, organization-level visibility into vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and potential threats across cloud resources. It aggregates security findings from multiple services, such as Web Security Scanner for application vulnerabilities, Container Analysis for container image security, and Event Threat Detection for suspicious activity, delivering a comprehensive view of security posture. SCC not only identifies issues but also prioritizes them, allowing security teams to focus on high-risk resources like publicly exposed storage buckets, misconfigured IAM policies, or vulnerable virtual machines. It maps findings to compliance frameworks such as PCI DSS, HIPAA, and ISO 27001, simplifying regulatory alignment.

B) Cloud Armor provides Layer 7 protection for web applications, defending against DDoS attacks and malicious traffiC) While effective for application-level security, it does not offer organization-wide visibility into misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, or threats and cannot provide the actionable intelligence and centralized risk management capabilities of SCC)

C) Cloud Logging captures logs from Google Cloud resources, which is valuable for monitoring and auditing. However, it requires manual analysis or custom tooling to detect threats and vulnerabilities, making it inefficient for large-scale environments. It does not provide the automated risk assessment or centralized visibility that SCC delivers.

D) BigQuery can store and query large volumes of security data but lacks native monitoring, automated detection, or actionable insights. Without additional tooling or analytics, it cannot proactively identify vulnerabilities or prioritize remediation efforts.

By integrating SCC, organizations achieve proactive threat detection, continuous monitoring, and automated vulnerability assessment. This centralized security platform improves operational efficiency, accelerates response to high-risk findings, ensures compliance, and supports automation workflows for alerts and remediation, strengthening overall cloud governance and maintaining a robust security posture.

Question 49:

To minimize risks of privilege escalation, your company wants to enforce just-in-time access for administrative roles. Which GCP service supports this design?

A) Identity-Aware Proxy
B) Access Approval
C) IAM Conditions with Privileged Access Management
D) Security Command Center

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A) Identity-Aware Proxy (IAP) controls access to web applications and resources by verifying user identity and context before granting access. While IAP is effective for managing application-level access, it does not manage IAM role assignments, enforce temporary privileges, or provide just-in-time access controls for administrative operations, making it insufficient for privileged access management.

B) Access Approval is designed to require explicit approval for Google support personnel to access customer datA) Although it provides an additional layer of oversight, it does not control user access to resources, nor does it enforce temporary privileges or contextual role assignments for internal administrators.

C) IAM Conditions with Privileged Access Management is the most effective solution for enforcing just-in-time, temporary access. IAM Conditions allow policies to grant roles based on contextual factors such as time windows, request justification, or other attributes. When integrated with Privileged Access Management (PAM), roles can be automatically assigned for limited periods, reducing exposure from standing privileges. Access Transparency and Cloud Audit Logs can track all privileged access events, providing accountability, auditing, and regulatory compliance. For example, policies can enforce that a sensitive role is only active for two hours and requires a justification tag, ensuring security and operational governance.

D) Security Command Center provides monitoring and visibility into vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and threats but does not enforce access control or manage IAM roles. While useful for identifying risk, it cannot implement just-in-time privilege enforcement or contextual access policies.

By using IAM Conditions with PAM, organizations can enforce temporary, auditable, and context-aware access controls, minimizing the risk of privilege escalation and supporting zero-trust security principles while maintaining compliance with organizational and regulatory requirements.

Question 50:

Your compliance auditor asks for an immutable record of all security configuration changes. Which Google Cloud solution provides this capability?

A) Cloud Logging with Log Buckets set to retention lock
B) Cloud Monitoring
C) Cloud Armor logging
D) Cloud KMS

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) Cloud Logging with Log Buckets set to retention locks is the most effective method for maintaining immutable audit logs. Retention locks enforce a Write-Once-Read-Many (WORM) model, ensuring that once logs are written, they cannot be modified or deleted until the retention period expires. This provides a tamper-proof, verifiable audit trail, which is critical for meeting compliance requirements such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, SOC 2, and GDPR. Centralizing logs from multiple services—including IAM activity, administrative actions, network flows, and API calls—ensures comprehensive visibility, while fine-grained access controls restrict log viewing to authorized personnel only. Retention locks prevent insider threats or accidental deletions from compromising audit data, and logs can be exported to BigQuery or Pub/Sub for analysis or real-time alerting without affecting immutability.

B) Cloud Monitoring captures metrics, performance data, and alerts, but it does not maintain immutable logs or a tamper-proof audit trail. While useful for operational visibility, it cannot satisfy compliance requirements for verifiable log retention.

C) Cloud Armor logging protects applications from Layer 7 attacks, and although it can generate logs related to traffic and threats, it does not provide mechanisms for ensuring immutability or long-term retention of audit datA)

D) Cloud KMS provides encryption key management to protect data at rest or in transit but does not inherently enforce log immutability or retention. While it can secure log content, it does not prevent deletion or modification of logs themselves.

By using Cloud Logging with retention-locked log buckets, organizations achieve a secure, auditable, and tamper-proof logging infrastructure that supports compliance, long-term monitoring, and forensic investigation, ensuring that critical operational and security data is preserved reliably.

Question 51:

Your organization wants to enforce that all Cloud Storage buckets are encrypted with customer-managed encryption keys (CMEK) and prevent the creation of any buckets using Google-managed keys. Which GCP mechanism enforces this at scale?

A) Apply an organization policy constraint requiring CMEK for storage buckets
B) Enable Cloud Armor on all storage endpoints
C) Use IAM conditions to restrict bucket creation
D) Manually review all bucket creations quarterly

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) Applying an organization policy constraint requiring CMEK for storage buckets such as constraints/storage.requireCmek is the most effective way to enforce consistent encryption across all Cloud Storage buckets. This policy ensures that every new bucket within the organization uses Customer-Managed Encryption Keys (CMEK) from Cloud KMS, eliminating the risk of accidental use of Google-managed keys. By applying the constraint at the organization or folder level, administrators achieve centralized enforcement, which is especially valuable in large enterprises with multiple projects and teams. This automated approach reduces operational risk, ensures compliance with regulatory frameworks like GDPR and HIPAA, and maintains strong cryptographic governance.

B) Enable Cloud Armor on all storage endpoints applications from network-based attacks such as DDoS or Layer 7 threats. While it strengthens perimeter security, it does not control encryption policies at the storage layer, making it ineffective for ensuring CMEK usage or uniform encryption compliance.

C) Using IAM conditions to restrict bucket creation can enforce access rules and contextual restrictions, but they cannot mandate that buckets are encrypted using CMEK keys upon creation. Therefore, relying solely on IAM conditions would leave encryption enforcement incomplete.

D) Manually reviewing all bucket creations quarterly is labor-intensive, error-prone, and not scalable across large organizations with potentially hundreds or thousands of buckets. It cannot provide real-time enforcement, leaving gaps where non-compliant buckets may exist.

By combining CMEK enforcement with Cloud Audit Logs, organizations can monitor key usage, track access, and maintain an auditable trail. This proactive, policy-driven approach ensures data remains encrypted under organization-controlled keys, strengthens defense-in-depth strategies, reduces administrative overhead, and provides a scalable, auditable, and compliant encryption framework across all Google Cloud projects.

Question 52:

A company wants to implement zero-trust principles for all GCP-hosted web applications accessible by employees. Users must be authenticated based on device security posture and identity. Which solution achieves this?

A) Use Identity-Aware Proxy with Context-Aware Access
B) Apply VPC firewall rules for corporate IPs
C) Require VPN access for all applications
D) Restrict IAM roles to employees only

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) Use Identity-Aware Proxy with Context-Aware Access provides a robust, native solution for enforcing zero-trust security principles across web applications and internal services. IAP acts as a gatekeeper, requiring users to authenticate before accessing applications, which removes reliance on network location for trust. CAA evaluates contextual signals such as device compliance, IP address, geographic location, and organizational group membership, allowing organizations to implement granular policies like granting access only to corporate-managed devices or restricting connections from high-risk regions. Together, they enable real-time access decisions based on identity and context, strengthening security posture and reducing exposure from compromised credentials or unmanaged devices.

B) Apply VPC firewall rules for corporate IPs  enforce network-level segmentation by controlling traffic at the IP and port level. While they can restrict access to corporate IP ranges, they cannot distinguish between different users, enforce device compliance, or provide contextual access decisions, leaving gaps in zero-trust enforcement.

C) Require VPN access for all applications  provides encrypted communication channels but does not verify user identity or the security posture of the accessing device. VPN alone cannot enforce fine-grained access policies or contextual security, making it insufficient for zero-trust models.

D) Restrict IAM roles to employees only permissions to GCP resources but does not govern access to applications or enforce device compliance. It also cannot evaluate dynamic contextual factors, which are critical for zero-trust security.

Using IAP and CAA together ensures that access is granted only to authenticated users from compliant devices under defined contextual conditions. Integration with Cloud Logging allows visibility into access events, supporting proactive monitoring, automated alerting, incident response, and compliance with frameworks such as HIPAA, SOC 2, and ISO 27001. This approach enforces a zero-trust model, reduces attack surfaces, and ensures secure, auditable access for cloud workloads.

Question 53:

A security engineer is tasked with encrypting sensitive BigQuery tables while retaining fine-grained access control for different teams. What is the best approach?

A) Use CMEK keys with BigQuery datasets and IAM roles
B) Enable default Google-managed encryption
C) Export data to Cloud Storage and encrypt externally
D) Use VPC Service Controls only

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) Using CMEK keys with BigQuery datasets and IAM roles is the most effective approach to securing BigQuery datasets. CMEK provides full organizational control over cryptographic keys, allowing administrators to rotate, revoke, or disable keys as needed, which is essential for compliance with regulations such as PCI-DSS, HIPAA, and ISO 27001. Coupling CMEK with carefully defined IAM roles ensures that users and teams have only the necessary access to datasets or tables, enforcing least-privilege principles. For example, one team can have read-only access to a table while another team has write permissions to a different table. This reduces the risk of accidental or intentional data exposure. Cloud Logging and monitoring can capture decryption events, permission changes, and queries, providing visibility into both key usage and dataset access.

B) Enable default Google-managed encryption secures data at rest by default but does not allow the organization to control key rotation or revocation. While secure, it does not satisfy strict regulatory requirements where demonstrable key control and auditable key management are requireD)

C) Export data to Cloud Storage and encrypt externally encryption adds operational complexity and latency. It separates key management from BigQuery’s native access controls, making integration more difficult and potentially introducing availability or performance issues.

D) Use VPC Service Controls only protect against data exfiltration but do not enforce encryption or fine-grained access controls within BigQuery. They are complementary but not sufficient on their own.

By combining CMEK with IAM roles, organizations achieve strong encryption, granular access control, and auditable activity logging. This ensures sensitive BigQuery data is protected, regulatory compliance is maintained, and operational efficiency is preserved, enabling secure analytics workflows without compromising performance or usability.

Question 54:

A developer accidentally commits a production API key to a public repository. What is the fastest way to mitigate risk using GCP-native tools?

A) Revoke the API key immediately via the API key management console
B) Update IAM roles to remove all permissions
C) Wait for the key to expire
D) Delete the repository

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) Revoke the API key immediately via the API key management console immediately is the fastest and most effective response. This action blocks any active or attempted usage of the key, preventing unauthorized access to sensitive resources. Immediate revocation eliminates the security gap that could exist if the key were allowed to remain active until natural expiration. It is a proactive measure that mitigates the risk of exploitation while administrators investigate the incident and deploy new keys.

B) Update IAM roles to remove all permissions reduces the capabilities associated with a compromised key but does not fully prevent its active use. Attackers may still leverage cached credentials or API endpoints that are not fully governed by IAM changes, leaving a partial exposure window.

C) Wait for the key to expire is a passive approach that leaves systems vulnerable for the remaining lifespan of the key. During this time, attackers could exploit the key to access sensitive resources, making this an insufficient mitigation strategy.

D) Delete the repository where the key was stored removes one potential source of exposure but does not invalidate copies that may exist elsewhere. It does not stop active misuse or prevent attackers from using previously exfiltrated keys.

Combining immediate revocation with automated key rotation, restricted usage policies (IP, referrer, or service restrictions), and secure storage in Secret Manager ensures comprehensive mitigation. Integrating secret scanning into CI/CD pipelines prevents accidental key exposure, while Cloud Logging and audit trails allow teams to monitor key usage and respond promptly to suspicious activity. This layered approach aligns with best practices for credential management, enforces least-privilege principles, and maintains a strong security posture in cloud environments.

Question 55:

Your team wants to ensure that Compute Engine instances are deployed only in approved regions. Which mechanism enforces this at scale?

A) Organization policy constraints for resource locations
B) Cloud Armor access policies
C) IAM conditions on projects
D) Manual review of deployments

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) Organization policy constraints for resource locations, specifically constraints/gcp.resourceLocations, is the most effective way to enforce geographic restrictions on Google Cloud resources. This policy ensures that all new resources—including Compute Engine instances, Cloud Storage buckets, and BigQuery datasets—are created only in approved regions. By applying the constraint at the organization or folder level, administrators achieve consistent compliance across all projects, preventing accidental or unauthorized deployments in disallowed regions. This centralized enforcement is essential for meeting data residency regulations such as GDPR or HIPAA and ensures preventive control by blocking violations at creation rather than detecting them afterwarD)

B) Cloud Armor access policies provide protection against network-based threats like DDoS attacks, but it does not govern the physical location of cloud resources. Therefore, it cannot enforce geographic compliance or restrict where services are deployeD)

C) IAM conditions on projects can restrict access based on user identity, device posture, or other contextual factors, but they do not control the region where resources are physically createD) This makes them insufficient for enforcing data residency policies.

D) Manual review of deployments are labor-intensive, error-prone, and difficult to scale across large organizations with multiple projects and regions. They cannot guarantee real-time enforcement, leaving potential gaps in compliance.

By combining organization policy constraints with Cloud Logging, administrators gain visibility into attempted violations and maintain an auditable trail for regulatory reporting and internal governance. This approach standardizes operations, reduces operational risk, ensures compliance with data residency requirements, and supports enterprise governance frameworks while providing automated, preventive enforcement of geographic restrictions.

Question 56:

You need to prevent sensitive data in BigQuery from being exfiltrated to unauthorized networks. Which GCP-native solution provides this control?

A) VPC Service Controls with defined perimeters
B) Cloud Armor firewall rules
C) IAM role restrictions
D) Cloud Monitoring alerts

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) VPC Service Controls with defined perimeters (VPC-SC) provide a robust mechanism for protecting sensitive Google Cloud resources by establishing security perimeters around services like BigQuery, Cloud Storage, and Pub/SuB) These perimeters prevent data exfiltration from outside authorized networks, even if credentials are compromised, effectively enforcing a zero-trust model where access is based on both identity and network context. By controlling API-level boundaries, VPC-SC minimizes the risk of accidental or malicious data exposure, ensuring that sensitive information remains within trusted environments.

B) Cloud Armor firewall rules  protects HTTP/S endpoints from web-based attacks such as DDoS, SQL injection, or application-layer exploits but does not prevent API-level data exfiltration. While important for application security, it does not address the risk of unauthorized access to backend services.

C) IAM role restrictions define the actions an identity can perform but do not control the origin of requests. If credentials are compromised, malicious actors could still perform actions from unauthorized networks, leaving data vulnerable.

D) Cloud Monitoring alerts provide visibility into events and anomalies but are reactive. They notify administrators after a potentially unauthorized activity occurs rather than preventing it, making them insufficient for real-time containment.

Integrating VPC-SC with Access Context Manager enhances security by adding context-aware controls, such as limiting API access based on IP ranges, device compliance, or organizational membership. This combination allows granular policies—for example, permitting access only from corporate-managed devices or approved locations. Logging perimeter activity ensures auditability for compliance with frameworks like PCI-DSS, HIPAA, and GDPR. By leveraging VPC-SC and contextual access, organizations achieve proactive protection against data leakage, enforce least-privilege access, and maintain regulatory compliance while supporting secure operational flexibility across cloud environments.

Question 57:

A company must ensure that all service accounts with elevated privileges are used only when needed and access is logged for audit. Which approach satisfies this requirement?

A) Implement just-in-time access using IAM Conditions and monitor with Cloud Logging
B) Disable all service accounts
C) Assign permanent roles to service accounts
D) Use Cloud Armor policies

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) Implementing just-in-time access using IAM Conditions and monitoring with Cloud Logging allows organizations to grant elevated privileges only when necessary, for a limited duration, and under specific conditions such as approved requests or predefined time windows. This approach significantly reduces risks associated with standing privileges, where service accounts or users retain excessive access indefinitely. Cloud Logging complements JIT access by providing a detailed audit trail of all privilege escalations, including who requested access, when it was granted, and what actions were performeD) This visibility supports both operational oversight and compliance with frameworks like SOC 2, HIPAA, and ISO 27001.

B) Disable all service accounts is overly restrictive and impractical. It may break critical workloads, automation scripts, and service integrations, hindering operational continuity.

C) Assigning permanent roles to service accounts violates the principle of least privilege and increases the attack surface. Permanent elevated permissions can be exploited if credentials are compromised, making this option insecure.

D) Use Cloud Armor policies focuses on application-layer protection against DDoS and other network attacks, and it does not manage IAM privileges or enforce temporary access.

By combining IAM Conditions for JIT access with Cloud Logging, organizations achieve a balance between security and operational flexibility. Temporary privileges reduce exposure, while detailed logging ensures accountability, enables anomaly detection, and provides audit-ready records. This approach strengthens the security posture by mitigating unnecessary risk while maintaining business continuity, allowing teams to enforce least-privilege principles without interrupting critical operations.

Question 58:

Your organization wants to scan Cloud Storage buckets for PII and mask sensitive fields automatically. Which GCP service provides this capability?

A) Cloud Data Loss Prevention API
B) Cloud Monitoring
C) Security Command Center
D) Cloud Armor

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) Cloud Data Loss Prevention API is the most effective tool for identifying and protecting sensitive data within Google ClouD) It can scan both structured and unstructured data in services like Cloud Storage and BigQuery, detecting sensitive information such as personally identifiable information (PII), financial data, or health records. Once detected, DLP can apply transformations such as masking, tokenization, or redaction to protect data while retaining its utility for analytics or development purposes. DLP also supports automated pipelines, enabling organizations to integrate scanning and protection into ingestion workflows, ensuring sensitive data is secured from the moment it enters the cloud environment.

B) Cloud Monitoring focuses on system and application metrics, generating alerts based on performance, uptime, or usage thresholds. It does not inspect content or detect sensitive data, making it unsuitable for protecting PII or meeting data protection compliance requirements.

C) Security Command Center provides a centralized view of security risks, vulnerabilities, and misconfigurations but does not perform field-level analysis or data masking. While it helps identify exposed resources, it cannot automatically protect sensitive information within datasets.

D) Cloud Armor protects web applications against network-level attacks such as DDoS or Layer 7 threats. It does not analyze or transform data at rest in storage services or databases.

Using Cloud DLP, organizations can enforce data protection policies that align with compliance standards such as GDPR, HIPAA, and PCI-DSS. Automated scanning pipelines, integration with Pub/Sub for event-driven workflows, and real-time masking capabilities allow sensitive data to be secured continuously, minimizing exposure risk while maintaining operational efficiency and usability for authorized analytics and applications.

Question 59:

A cloud security engineer needs to monitor abnormal network traffic and generate alerts when potential threats are detecteD) Which service should be used?

A) Cloud IDS
B) VPC firewall rules
C) Cloud Armor
D) Cloud Logging

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) Cloud IDS provides advanced network threat detection by monitoring traffic flows and analyzing packet-level data in real time. It combines signature-based detection, behavioral anomaly analysis, and deep packet inspection to identify malicious activity such as lateral movement, exfiltration attempts, or command-and-control communications. Integration with Security Command Center allows correlation of detected threats with vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and policy violations, giving security teams a comprehensive, centralized view for faster incident response and informed mitigation. Cloud IDS also supports automated alerting and remediation workflows through Cloud Monitoring and Pub/Sub, enabling proactive threat hunting and rapid containment of incidents.

B) VPC firewall rules operate at the network perimeter, controlling access by IP address and port. While useful for restricting unauthorized traffic, they cannot analyze internal traffic flows or detect sophisticated attacks within the network, leaving gaps in threat detection.

C) Cloud Armor protects against Layer 7 attacks on web applications, such as DDoS, SQL injection, or other web exploits, but it does not monitor internal network traffic or provide visibility into lateral movement between services, limiting its scope for comprehensive threat detection.

D) Cloud Logging captures events and logs from various services, supporting auditing and historical analysis. However, it lacks proactive threat detection capabilities and cannot automatically identify or correlate suspicious network behaviors in real time.

By deploying Cloud IDS, organizations gain end-to-end visibility into network activity across cloud and hybrid environments, supporting proactive monitoring, regulatory compliance, and a zero-trust security posture. Its integration with other security tools ensures actionable insights, automated alerting, and a layered defense strategy that addresses both external and internal threats, reducing the risk of data breaches and operational disruption.

Question 60:

Your organization wants a complete view of all security findings across multiple projects, including misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, and threats. Which solution provides this at the organization level?

A) Security Command Center with organization-level enablement
B) Cloud Logging
C) Cloud Monitoring dashboards
D) BigQuery

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A) Security Command Center with organization-level enablement (SCC) provides a centralized platform for managing and monitoring security across an entire Google Cloud organization. When enabled at the organization level, SCC aggregates findings from all projects, including misconfigurations, exposed resources, vulnerabilities, and detected threats. It integrates with services such as Web Security Scanner for application-level vulnerabilities, Container Analysis for container security, Event Threat Detection for suspicious activity, and Cloud DLP for sensitive data exposure. This centralized view allows security teams to correlate findings, prioritize remediation based on risk, and automate workflows for faster response. SCC also maps findings to compliance frameworks, enabling continuous adherence to regulations like PCI-DSS, HIPAA, and ISO 27001.

B) Cloud Logging captures and stores logs from various services, providing auditability and historical records. However, it does not automatically analyze configurations, detect vulnerabilities, or generate prioritized security insights. Without additional processing or integration, it cannot offer the proactive monitoring and compliance visibility that SCC provides.

C) Cloud Monitoring dashboards visualize system and application metrics, alert on thresholds, and provide operational insights. While useful for performance monitoring, dashboards do not identify security misconfigurations, risks, or vulnerabilities, making them insufficient for comprehensive security posture management.

D) BigQuery can store large volumes of security-related data and enable custom queries for analysis. However, it requires manual investigation to detect vulnerabilities or misconfigurations, lacking automated detection, prioritization, and remediation guidance.

By enabling SCC at the organization level, enterprises gain automated, organization-wide visibility into security posture. It facilitates proactive threat detection, reduces operational overhead, supports regulatory compliance, and empowers security teams to respond effectively to risks before they escalate. Integration with other security tools ensures a holistic, continuous monitoring strategy for cloud environments.