Cisco 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 1 Q1-20

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Question 1:

Which mechanism in Cisco SD-WAN ensures that traffic is redirected to an alternative path when a link’s performance drops below the defined thresholds for loss, latency, or jitter?

A) On-demand routing
B) Application-aware routing
C) Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
D) Performance-based shaping

Answer:

B) Application-aware routing

Explanation:

Application-aware routing provides continuous path performance evaluation by sending probes that measure latency, jitter, and packet loss across every available WAN transport. The feature allows SD-WAN policies to define application-specific performance requirements and automatically steer traffic to the path that can meet those requirements at any moment. If a link begins to degrade, the SD-WAN fabric compares measured values against the configured SLA thresholds and immediately selects another operationally acceptable path, ensuring critical applications such as voice or video collaboration maintain high quality.

On-demand routing is incorrect because it is used for route redistribution between SD-WAN and traditional WAN environments but offers no link-quality based steering. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection is not suitable here because although it detects fast failures, it does not monitor performance metrics nor make forwarding decisions based on jitter or loss. Performance-based shaping is also incorrect since shaping manages outbound traffic flow rather than making dynamic path decisions. Application-aware routing uniquely ties real-time path assessment to policy-driven redirection, which is central within the ENCOR exam’s SD-WAN topic coverage.

Question 2:

In Cisco DNA Center, which component interprets user intent and transforms it into specific configuration tasks that are sent to network devices?

A) Network controller
B) Intent services
C) Telemetry engine
D) Device compliance manager

Answer:

B) Intent services

Explanation:

Intent services take the user’s high-level intent—such as defining a fabric, creating policies, or onboarding new network segments—and translate it into lower-level tasks that the DNA Center controller can push to devices using NETCONF, RESTCONF, or CLI. This aligns with Cisco’s intent-based networking model, where administrators describe what they want, not how to implement it. Intent services act as the middle layer connecting human policy definitions with southbound configuration operations.

The network controller alone does not interpret intent; instead, it executes the device-level commands generated by intent services. The telemetry engine collects operational data but provides no translation services. The compliance manager validates device configurations against policies but does not convert intent into actionable instructions. For ENCOR, it is important to distinguish these architectural roles because the exam evaluates understanding of Cisco DNA’s layered intent-based design.

Question 3:

Which Cisco technology enables programmable access to device configurations using YANG data models and supports structured management operations?

A) RESTCONF
B) SNMPv2
C) NetFlow
D) CDP

Answer:

A) RESTCONF

Explanation:

RESTCONF is a REST-based protocol designed to interact with YANG-modeled configuration and operational data on network devices. It uses HTTP methods such as GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE to access structured data stores, making automation and orchestration significantly more consistent and predictable than legacy mechanisms. RESTCONF is emphasized in the ENCOR exam under programmability and automation because it introduces a model-driven management framework where the data schema is clearly defined via YANG.

SNMPv2 is outdated for configuration management and relies heavily on MIBs, which lack the consistency and depth offered by YANG models. NetFlow is focused on traffic analytics, not configuration. CDP is a discovery protocol and does not provide any programmable management capability. RESTCONF is the only option designed for structured, model-driven access exactly as required in modern enterprise automation scenarios.

Question 4:

What is the primary function of VXLAN within Cisco SD-Access fabric deployments?

A) Encrypt traffic between corporate sites
B) Provide Layer 2 extension across the IP underlay
C) Build OSPF adjacencies between border nodes
D) Replace control-plane signaling for wireless clients

Answer:

B) Provide Layer 2 extension across the IP underlay

Explanation:

VXLAN encapsulates Ethernet frames inside UDP packets, allowing Layer 2 segments to be extended over a routed IP underlay. In Cisco SD-Access, it forms the scalable data-plane tunnel that interconnects fabric edge nodes while maintaining virtualized network segments. This encapsulation supports mobility, segmentation, and simplified Layer 2 extension regardless of the underlying IP topology.

Traffic encryption is not handled by VXLAN but rather by technologies such as IPsec or MACsec depending on deployment. VXLAN does not participate in building OSPF adjacencies; routing protocols are part of the underlay. Wireless control-plane signaling uses CAPWAP or fabric control-plane integrations but not VXLAN directly. Within ENCOR, VXLAN is highlighted for scalable segmentation and flexible forwarding across an IP-driven fabric, making option B the correct choice.

Question 5:

Which wireless architecture mode centralizes control-plane operations on the controller while allowing data traffic to be forwarded directly from the access point to the local network?

A) Local mode
B) FlexConnect mode
C) Monitor mode
D) Sniffer mode

Answer:

B) FlexConnect mode

Explanation:

FlexConnect mode allows access points to maintain control communication with a wireless LAN controller but forward user traffic locally, bypassing the need to tunnel all data flows back to the controller. This mode is ideal for remote branch deployments where WAN bandwidth is limited. When a WAN outage occurs, FlexConnect APs can continue to authenticate clients using locally stored credentials and maintain service with minimal disruption. ENCOR exam objectives emphasize FlexConnect as a key deployment model used to optimize distributed enterprise environments.

Local mode is not appropriate because it sends all data traffic back to the controller, creating potential inefficiencies over WAN connections. Monitor mode simply scans frequencies without serving clients. Sniffer mode captures packets for analysis. FlexConnect mode uniquely balances centralized control with local data forwarding, aligning precisely with the wireless architecture topics tested on the ENCOR exam.

Question 6:

Which feature in Cisco IOS XE helps ensure continuous device operation by allowing processes to restart independently without causing a full device reload?

A) Stateful switchover
B) In-service software upgrade
C) Process restartability
D) Redundant power supply failover

Answer:

C) Process restartability

Explanation:

Process restartability in Cisco IOS XE gives the system resilience by allowing individual processes in the operating system to restart without requiring the entire device to reload. This ability is important because modern enterprise networks rely heavily on continuous uptime, predictable performance, and fast recovery when something goes wrong. IOS XE architecture is based on a modular operating system, which means crucial components run independently, unlike the older monolithic IOS structure where a single fault could bring down the whole system.

The feature works by keeping critical processes—such as routing protocols, management daemons, or platform services—running in their own protected space with built-in health monitoring. If any of these processes crash or start behaving abnormally, the system detects the issue and triggers an automatic restart of only that affected component. Because the forwarding plane is handled by dedicated hardware or separate processes, traffic forwarding can continue while the faulty process restarts. This creates a self-healing environment that aligns with the needs of large-scale networks, particularly those tested in ENCOR, where high availability is a key knowledge area.

Option A, stateful switchover, is a high-availability technique used when two route processors are present. It protects against supervisor failure but does not handle individual processes failing within a single processor. Option B, in-service software upgrade, enables upgrading device software without rebooting, but it focuses on software version changes, not fault recovery. Option D, redundant power supply failover, ensures hardware power redundancy but does nothing for software-level process resiliency.

Process restartability stands out as a software-level protection mechanism that ensures the network remains stable and operational even when internal components face unexpected conditions. It reduces downtime, lowers operational disruptions, and maintains network continuity. This forms a critical part of the ENCOR blueprint because modern enterprise operations depend on layered resiliency, where devices must maintain service even when specific subsystems encounter issues. Compared to traditional IOS environments, this capability represents a major evolution in how network devices maintain stability. For example, if a routing protocol daemon fails, the system rapidly restarts it and continues forwarding traffic using the last known forwarding table, limiting impact.

Another advantage is operational transparency. Administrators can view the process restart events in logs, making troubleshooting more predictable. The modular design also paves the way for programmability, because independent processes simplify automation workflows. From a design perspective, networks using IOS XE benefit from this capability by being more tolerant of software bugs or transient failures that might otherwise cause significant outages.

Therefore, process restartability is the correct answer because it uniquely enables fault isolation, rapid recovery of specific subsystems, and uninterrupted service, fulfilling high-availability requirements highlighted in the Cisco 350-401 ENCOR exam.

Question 7:

Which function does the LISP control plane provide within Cisco SD-Access fabric deployments?

A) Determines the shortest path through the underlay
B) Maps endpoint identifiers to routing locators
C) Encrypts fabric edge traffic using IPsec tunnels
D) Handles wireless client load balancing

Answer:

B) Maps endpoint identifiers to routing locators

Explanation:

The LISP control plane in Cisco SD-Access is responsible for mapping endpoint identifiers, often represented by IP addresses tied to users or devices, to routing locators, which typically refer to fabric edge nodes or points of network attachment. This separation between identity and location is foundational for SD-Access because it enables mobility, segmentation, and optimized forwarding even when endpoints move within the network. LISP (Locator/ID Separation Protocol) introduces a scalable way to manage endpoint movement by decoupling where a device’s identity exists from the physical location where it attaches.

Inside SD-Access, this mapping process works through the control-plane node, which stores the endpoint database consisting of mappings between endpoint identifiers and edge nodes. When an endpoint connects or changes location, the fabric edge node updates the control-plane node. When traffic needs to reach that endpoint, edge nodes query the control plane for the correct locator. The control-plane node responds with the locator, allowing the data plane to establish VXLAN tunnels toward the destination. This process permits efficient roaming and seamless mobility, which are essential for modern enterprise networks.

Option A is incorrect because underlay routing is determined by traditional routing protocols like IS-IS or OSPF, not by LISP. Option C is also incorrect because encryption in fabric deployments is provided using technologies like Cisco TrustSec or MACsec depending on design considerations, not LISP. Option D does not apply because wireless load balancing occurs at the wireless controller level and involves algorithms unrelated to LISP’s endpoint mapping functions.

One of the major strengths of the SD-Access solution is that it abstracts complex topology behaviors from endpoints. LISP acts as the intelligence layer that ensures traffic is directed appropriately without requiring endpoints to understand the underlying fabric topology. This ensures predictable forwarding and simplifies troubleshooting. Additionally, because identities are stored centrally, roaming events do not require extensive routing recalculations, improving performance.

From a scalability perspective, LISP allows SD-Access to support large networks without overwhelming edge devices with stale or excessive endpoint entries. By handling mappings on demand, the fabric optimizes resources, providing a balance between mobility and operational efficiency. Within the ENCOR exam, understanding how the control plane interacts with the data-plane tunnels is critical, and LISP is at the heart of that architecture.

Thus, the correct answer is the LISP control plane’s role in mapping identifiers to locators—a key mechanism supporting SD-Access fabric functionality.

Question 8:

What advantage does model-driven telemetry provide over traditional SNMP-based monitoring in Cisco enterprise networks?

A) It requires fewer device resources by eliminating YANG models
B) It delivers continuous streaming data instead of periodic polling
C) It improves security by encrypting all packets with AES-256 by default
D) It removes the need for a controller or collector system

Answer:

B) It delivers continuous streaming data instead of periodic polling

Explanation:

Model-driven telemetry improves monitoring by sending continuous streams of operational data from network devices to collectors, eliminating the inefficient polling cycles used by traditional SNMP. SNMP relies on a request-response mechanism where a monitoring station polls devices at fixed intervals (such as every 5 minutes). This results in delayed visibility, potential missed events, and high polling overhead on large networks. Model-driven telemetry takes the opposite approach by pushing data in real time or near real time automatically as conditions occur.

This push-based mechanism uses YANG models to define the structure and content of monitored data. The data is packaged using efficient encodings like JSON or GPB and transported using protocols such as gRPC. Because the format and schema are model-driven, telemetry streams are consistent, structured, and suitable for large-scale automation. This reduces overhead significantly compared to repetitive SNMP polling and provides precise, granular insights into network performance.

Option A is incorrect because model-driven telemetry actually depends on YANG models. Option C is not correct because encryption is optional and depends on deployment choices; telemetry does not enforce AES-256 by default. Option D is false because telemetry streams must be consumed by collectors or analytics engines; without them, the data has no practical use.

Telemetry also offers higher data accuracy because devices send updates only when values change or when timers trigger incremental updates. This event-driven behavior supports proactive troubleshooting because network operators can detect anomalies—such as rising CPU usage, spikes in interface errors, or path degradations—at the moment they happen.

Another advantage is scalability. SNMP polling grows inefficient as device counts increase, while telemetry handles large networks with far lower overhead. Telemetry streams can be collected by Cisco DNA Center, third-party analytics systems, or custom controllers.

In the ENCOR exam, this topic appears under network assurance and programmability. Understanding why telemetry offers superior insight, lower overhead, and structured data models is essential. Model-driven telemetry not only improves operational visibility but also supports machine-learning applications, anomaly detection, and predictive analytics.

Thus, continuous data streaming makes option B the correct choice.

Question 9:

Which EIGRP feature allows routers to maintain backup routes in the topology table, enabling fast convergence when the primary route fails?

A) Reliable transport mechanism
B) Feasible successor
C) Stub routing
D) Query scoping

Answer:

B) Feasible successor

Explanation:

A feasible successor in EIGRP is a pre-computed backup route that satisfies the feasibility condition, meaning that the reported distance from the neighbor toward the destination is less than the router’s feasible distance for the primary route. This ensures loop-free alternate paths. When the primary route fails, the feasible successor can be promoted to the routing table immediately, resulting in convergence that is nearly instantaneous. This behavior is one of the reasons EIGRP is valued for fast recovery, especially in enterprise environments with dynamic topologies.

Option A, the reliable transport mechanism, ensures EIGRP messages are delivered reliably but does not contribute to backup route calculations. Option C, stub routing, limits query propagation but does not serve as a backup path mechanism. Option D, query scoping, improves convergence by controlling how far queries propagate but still does not provide standby routes.

Feasible successors reduce reliance on diffusing computations, which can otherwise delay convergence. In ENCOR, EIGRP is tested primarily for its convergence behavior and unique distance-vector enhancements, making feasible successors an important concept.

Thus, feasible successor is the correct answer because it provides immediate fallback capability.

Question 10:

Which IPv6 transition technology enables IPv6 traffic to be transported across an IPv4 network by embedding IPv4 information inside the IPv6 address?

A) ISATAP
B) NAT64
C) 6to4 tunneling
D) Dual-stack operation

Answer:

A) ISATAP

Explanation:

ISATAP creates an IPv6 overlay across an IPv4 infrastructure by embedding the IPv4 address of the host within the IPv6 interface identifier. This allows IPv6-capable devices to communicate across IPv4 networks as though they were connected through a native IPv6 environment. The mechanism is especially useful for enterprises migrating gradually from IPv4 to IPv6 without performing significant topology changes.

Option B is incorrect because NAT64 translates traffic between IPv6 and IPv4 networks but does not embed the IPv4 address inside the IPv6 structure. Option C is not correct because 6to4 automatically creates tunnels based on public IPv4 addresses and is used primarily for connecting isolated IPv6 sites. Option D does not apply because dual-stack simply runs IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously rather than encapsulating one inside the other.

ISATAP stands out because of its address-embedding technique, making it the correct answer.

Question 11:

Which feature in Cisco wireless networks allows an access point to intelligently adjust its transmit power to minimize co-channel interference and maintain optimal coverage?

A) Dynamic channel assignment
B) Transmit power control
C) Client load balancing
D) Fastlane QoS

Answer:

B) Transmit power control

Explanation:

Transmit power control is part of Cisco Radio Resource Management and dynamically adjusts an access point’s power output based on the surrounding RF environment, active neighboring access points, and measured coverage gaps. When one access point detects that nearby APs are transmitting too strongly and causing overlap, the system reduces power to prevent excessive co-channel interference. Conversely, if an AP senses coverage gaps or surrounding APs going offline, it increases power to fill the void and maintain client connectivity. This adaptive behavior forms a continuous RF optimization loop.

Option A, dynamic channel assignment, deals with choosing the best channel but does not adjust transmit strength. Option C focuses on distributing clients more evenly but doesn’t directly regulate RF power levels. Option D improves QoS on Apple devices but has no influence on power output.

Transmit power control stabilizes the RF landscape by ensuring APs neither overpower each other nor leave coverage holes. It evaluates background noise, the presence of rogue devices, and client RSSI metrics to adjust its levels. By doing this automatically, the system avoids manual tuning that would otherwise be time-consuming and error-prone in large deployments.

This capability is essential in the ENCOR exam because testers must understand how Cisco wireless infrastructure self-optimizes to keep performance stable. Properly managed power levels reduce co-channel interference, which is one of the most disruptive elements in high-density environments. When multiple APs broadcast on the same channel with too much power, clients have to wait longer for medium access, slowing throughput. By controlling transmit power, Cisco ensures channels are reused efficiently across the network.

Another advantage is maintaining stable roaming behavior. If APs are too loud, clients cling to them and delay roaming, causing poor signal quality or dropped calls. If power levels are too low, clients may struggle to find a neighbor AP quickly. Transmit power control balances these scenarios and creates predictable roaming zones with overlapping coverage areas just large enough for seamless transitions.

In branch deployments, where the number of APs is lower, power control prevents under-coverage when an AP fails. The remaining APs automatically increase power to maintain connectivity. In dense environments like stadiums or campuses, power control works with dynamic channel assignment to reduce interference and enable tight channel reuse.

Because RF behavior changes throughout the day as clients move, walls reflect signals differently, or interference appears from microwave ovens, Bluetooth devices, or external transmitters, having a real-time self-adjusting system is far more effective than static tuning. Transmit power control reacts quickly to these fluctuations and optimizes the RF conditions without administrator intervention.

Cisco also uses information from neighbor messages exchanged over the 802.11 radio interface to produce a global RF map. This data helps determine where power should be increased or decreased. When combined with Cisco DNA Center’s Assurance tools, operators gain visibility into how power adjustments impact performance metrics and client experiences.

Thus, transmit power control is the correct answer because it is the only option that directly addresses intelligent and automated transmit strength management, a concept deeply embedded in Cisco wireless optimization and relevant to ENCOR exam objectives.

Question 12:

Which routing protocol characteristic makes OSPF suitable for large enterprise networks with hierarchical designs?

A) Distance vector behavior
B) Single area operation
C) Link-state database synchronization
D) Randomized update timers

Answer:

C) Link-state database synchronization

Explanation:

OSPF relies on maintaining a synchronized link-state database across routers within an area, allowing every router to share a consistent view of the network. This characteristic is crucial for large hierarchical enterprises because it lets each router independently compute the best path using Dijkstra’s algorithm without relying on hop-by-hop updates. By dividing networks into areas, OSPF reduces the size of individual databases and limits flood scope, enabling better scalability, stability, and fault isolation.

Option A is incorrect because distance vector protocols rely on periodic updates and do not maintain full topology knowledge. Option B is incorrect because OSPF thrives on multi-area design, not a single area. Option D does not apply because update timers are deterministic, not random.

The link-state database allows OSPF to converge quickly after topology changes because routers recalculate routes based on a full topological view rather than waiting for neighbor updates. This rapid recalculation is especially valuable in mission-critical networks where downtime must be minimized. Because every router holds the same database, routes are consistent and loops are unlikely.

Area design contributes heavily to this scalability. ABRs isolate LSDBs to specific areas, decreasing LSA flooding and reducing demands on CPU and memory. Backbone area 0 ties everything together, ensuring structured flow of LSAs and stable topologies. This hierarchy allows OSPF to scale to thousands of routes and subnets efficiently.

OSPF’s reliance on LSAs means routers describe their links, metrics, and states in detail. These LSAs are flooded efficiently and reliably, ensuring that all routers in an area have the same topological insight. This consistency is why OSPF behaves predictably even in complex mesh networks. With features like OSPF fast hellos, LSA throttling, and incremental SPF, OSPF handles dynamic networks gracefully.

Enterprises choose OSPF because it supports authentication, route filtering between areas, cost-based metrics, and multi-vendor interoperability. Within the ENCOR exam, understanding link-state operations, area structure, LSA types, and SPF recalculation methods is essential. Link-state database synchronization is at the heart of these mechanisms, allowing OSPF to function efficiently at scale.

Therefore, link-state database synchronization is the correct answer because it empowers OSPF to operate effectively in hierarchical and large topologies while maintaining consistent and rapid convergence.

Question 13:

Which QoS mechanism categorizes traffic based on predefined models to ensure that specific applications receive prioritized forwarding in a congested network?

A) Policing
B) Classification and marking
C) Link fragmentation
D) Traffic mirroring

Answer:

B) Classification and marking

Explanation:

Classification and marking are foundational QoS mechanisms that identify traffic types and apply appropriate markers so routers and switches can treat packets according to priority. This is essential in enterprise networks that support latency-sensitive applications such as VoIP, interactive video, and real-time collaboration. Classification categorizes traffic using fields such as IP addresses, ports, or DSCP values, while marking assigns identifiers like DSCP or CoS that determine how downstream devices handle packets.

Option A is incorrect because policing enforces rate limits and can drop packets, but it does not identify traffic categories. Option C deals with reducing serialization delays, not assigning priority. Option D sends copies of traffic for analysis but has no role in actual priority mechanisms.

In busy networks, classification ensures packets belonging to mission-critical applications are recognized early in the forwarding process. Marking then distributes standardized identifiers so that subsequent hops—whether switches, routers, or firewalls—apply consistent QoS treatment. Without proper marking, downstream devices cannot differentiate between important and background traffic.

This mechanism becomes especially crucial when congestion occurs. During peak load, queues fill, and the device must decide which packets to forward first. Marked packets belonging to high-priority classes can be placed in expedited queues, ensuring smooth delivery despite congestion. Meanwhile, lower-priority traffic may experience delayed forwarding or be dropped.

In Cisco environments, marking often uses DSCP for IP traffic and CoS for Layer 2 frames. Trust boundaries ensure markings from untrusted devices are overridden to maintain QoS integrity. Cisco recommended models, such as the QoS Baseline model, define categories like voice, video, critical data, and default traffic, each mapped to specific DSCP values.

Within the ENCOR exam, understanding classification and marking is critical because it anchors more complex mechanisms like queuing, shaping, congestion avoidance, and scheduling. Whether implementing QoS on WAN links, wireless networks, or campus switches, classification and marking determine how the network recognizes and handles traffic classes.

Thus, classification and marking is the correct answer as it directly categorizes and identifies traffic to ensure prioritized forwarding.

Question 14:

Which security feature dynamically segments users or devices into separate virtual networks inside a Cisco SD-Access fabric?

A) MACsec
B)1X port-based authentication
C) Scalable group tagging
D) DHCP snooping

Answer:

C) Scalable group tagging

Explanation:

Scalable group tagging enables dynamic segmentation by assigning tags to users or devices based on identity rather than physical location. In Cisco SD-Access, these tags determine how traffic flows through the network, what policies apply, and which virtual segments a device belongs to. This method allows security to follow users everywhere, regardless of where they connect, which is fundamental for modern networks with mobile users and IoT devices.

Option A encrypts traffic but does not provide segmentation. Option B authenticates users but doesn’t assign dynamic segmentation. Option D protects DHCP operations but is unrelated to identity-based segmentation.

Scalable group tagging integrates with Cisco Identity Services Engine to assign tags dynamically based on user role, device type, or posture. Once assigned, the tag travels with the traffic through VXLAN encapsulation, enabling policy enforcement end-to-end.

Administrators can then define policies that allow or deny communication between groups. This reduces dependency on VLAN-based segmentation and simplifies operations. Instead of configuring ACLs on dozens of devices, operators define intent-driven policies in the controller, which pushes them globally.

Such tag-based segmentation aligns perfectly with zero-trust models, a concept widely tested in ENCOR. It allows enterprises to secure IoT, guest traffic, employee devices, and critical systems through identity-driven rules rather than physical configurations.

Thus, scalable group tagging is the correct answer because it is the mechanism that provides dynamic identity-based segmentation inside SD-Access.

Question 15:

Which virtualization feature in Cisco platforms allows multiple instances of routing tables to operate independently on the same router?

A) VRF
B) GRE tunnels
C) NAT overloading
D) Port-channeling

Answer:

A) VRF

Explanation:

A VRF enables multiple isolated routing instances on the same physical router, allowing different networks or customers to operate separately while sharing the same hardware. Each VRF has its own routing table, interfaces, and forwarding decisions, ensuring traffic isolation. This is key in enterprise networks where segmentation, multi-tenant environments, or overlapping IP spaces are required.

Option B creates tunnels but does not isolate routing tables. Option C translates addresses but does not provide routing separation. Option D aggregates links but has no routing isolation capability.

VRFs support diverse applications: separating guest traffic, isolating business units, supporting MPLS VPN deployments, or providing virtualization for cloud-connected segments. They prevent cross-contamination of traffic by ensuring each VRF maintains a distinct control plane and forwarding plane environment.

Within the ENCOR exam, VRF knowledge is crucial because virtualization is a major theme. Understanding how VRFs operate, how they integrate with WAN technologies, and how they pair with features like VRF-lite or MPLS VPNs is essential.

Thus, VRF is the correct answer because it uniquely provides independent routing tables on a shared device.

Question 16:

Which feature in Cisco DNA Center Assurance helps identify the underlying reason for a client connectivity issue by correlating network events, device logs, and RF conditions into a single root-cause analysis?

A) Client path trace
B) Issue detection engine
C) AI network analytics
D) NetFlow correlation tool

Answer:

B) Issue detection engine

Explanation:

The issue detection engine inside Cisco DNA Center Assurance serves as the intelligent analytics core that processes millions of telemetry points, event messages, device logs, client onboarding records, RF measurements, and control-plane activities to identify the root cause behind client-side or network issues. This feature is extremely valuable in enterprise networks that demand rapid troubleshooting and proactive identification of service degradations. When a client experiences latency, failed authentication, poor RF coverage, DHCP delays, DNS errors, or path impairments, the issue detection engine evaluates the entire context surrounding that experience.

This engine does more than simply flag symptoms. It collects deep telemetry streaming from access points, switches, routers, controllers, and wireless clients. Using advanced correlation logic, it maps these data elements to specific time windows and network segments, identifying patterns among failures. For example, if multiple clients connected to the same AP fail DHCP at the same time, it connects this to the distribution switch interface statistics or DHCP server responsiveness. If the RF conditions show repeated coverage holes around a certain location, the engine correlates signal strength reports, noise levels, and channel utilization values to isolate whether the root cause is interference, excessive client load, or misconfigured RF parameters.

Option A, the client path trace, is indeed powerful and shows hop-by-hop forwarding paths for a client, but it is a visualization tool rather than an automated diagnostic engine. Option C, AI network analytics, enhances predictions but is not directly responsible for root-cause correlation. Option D, NetFlow correlation, focuses on traffic patterns and flow records and cannot produce client-level root cause analysis.

What makes the issue detection engine so essential is its ability to translate raw data into actionable insights by applying logical rules, machine-learning models, and contextual awareness. It looks at authentication logs, onboarding sequences, DHCP transactions, DNS statistics, RF heatmaps, switchport status, and user events in a chronological timeline to determine the exact step where failure occurred. This capability reduces the troubleshooting process from hours to minutes. Instead of sifting through logs manually, network engineers receive alerts highlighting the cause—whether it’s a misconfigured SSID, insufficient power on a switchport, a failing AP, heavy co-channel interference, or control-plane delays.

In the context of ENCOR, understanding DNA Center Assurance is critical because it represents Cisco’s intent-based operations pillar. The exam expects candidates to grasp how Assurance uses telemetry, machine learning, heuristics, and correlation logic to build end-to-end visibility. The issue detection engine is the central piece performing automated diagnostics.

Another significant advantage is that the engine maintains a historical record, allowing operators to see when and where anomalies occurred. This adds temporal intelligence: for example, noticing that a client always fails around the same time each day may indicate scheduled interference or server load issues. The engine also tags issues by severity, impacted clients, and infrastructure location to help prioritize remediation efforts.

Overall, the issue detection engine is the correct answer because it uniquely aggregates, correlates, and analyzes network data to deliver automated root-cause insights—something unmatched by simple path or flow analysis tools.

Question 17:

Which component in Cisco SD-WAN architecture is responsible for centralized policy distribution and security configuration enforcement across all WAN edge devices?

A) vSmart controller
B) vBond orchestrator
C) vManage dashboard
D) WAN edge router

Answer:

A) vSmart controller

Explanation:

The vSmart controller acts as the policy and intelligence engine of Cisco SD-WAN. It distributes control policies, data-plane security rules, route advertisements, segmentation policies, and traffic handling instructions to all WAN edge devices in the fabric. vSmart ensures consistent and synchronized policy enforcement across the entire WAN, regardless of the underlying transport paths or physical topology.

Option B is incorrect because the vBond orchestrator handles authentication and onboarding of devices. Option C provides centralized management through a GUI and API but does not enforce policies. Option D is the endpoint that applies policies but does not distribute them.

The vSmart controller uses a secure control-plane channel to push routing information, segmentation rules, and encrypted tunnel instructions to WAN edges. It also handles OMP route advertisements, enabling each WAN edge to learn the correct topology and policies. This separation of control and data planes is fundamental to SD-WAN’s scalable and flexible design.

In the ENCOR exam, understanding the centralized nature of vSmart—the policy brain—is essential. Cisco emphasizes how SD-WAN reduces complexity by automating routing, segmentation, QoS, and security actions from a single logical controller.

Thus, vSmart is the correct answer because it uniquely distributes and enforces policy across the SD-WAN fabric.

Question 18:

Which CAPWAP function ensures that wireless access points can download configurations, receive firmware updates, and maintain secure communication with the wireless LAN controller?

A) Data tunneling
B) Control messaging
C) Radio resource management
D) Rogue detection

Answer:

B) Control messaging

Explanation:

CAPWAP control messaging is the function that enables access points to securely communicate with wireless LAN controllers for configuration updates, firmware downloads, authentication, and operational management. The control channel is encrypted, ensuring that sensitive configuration information and device management traffic remain protected. Through this channel, APs join controllers, exchange keepalives, report RF statistics, and receive WLAN settings. This cannot occur through the data channel alone.

Option A is incorrect because data tunneling transports client traffic, not management instructions. Option C deals with RF optimization but uses control messaging as a transport mechanism rather than performing the join and configuration tasks itself. Option D aids in security monitoring but does not manage AP lifecycles.

Control messaging ensures APs stay synchronized with the controller’s policies and services. It is essential for centralized wireless architectures tested in ENCOR because it forms the backbone of controller-based WLAN operations.

Thus, control messaging is the correct answer as it provides secure configuration and operational control.

Question 19:

Which switching feature prevents temporary looping conditions by immediately placing an interface into a forwarding state when a physical link comes up, bypassing the traditional spanning-tree listening and learning phases?

A) BPDU guard
B) PortFast
C) Loop guard
D) Root guard

Answer:

B) PortFast

Explanation:

PortFast is designed for access layer interfaces that connect to end hosts rather than switches. It bypasses the normal spanning-tree processing states—listening and learning—so the port moves directly into forwarding. This prevents delays that could impact DHCP, 802.1X authentication, or client device initialization. By eliminating waiting periods, PortFast improves user experience and reduces unnecessary delays in highly dynamic environments.

Option A protects against BPDU receipt on edge ports but does not change transition timing. Option C prevents unidirectional link issues but does not accelerate forwarding state. Option D enforces root-bridge boundaries, not fast port transitions.

PortFast is heavily tested in ENCOR because it supports rapid convergence in enterprise switching.

Thus, PortFast is the correct answer because it enables immediate forwarding and avoids temporary loop-inducing delays.

Question 20:

Which network virtualization overlay encapsulates Layer 2 frames within UDP packets, enabling large-scale multi-tenant segmentation across an IP underlay?

A) VXLAN
B) MPLS L2VPN
C) GRE
D) PPPoE

Answer:

A) VXLAN

Explanation:

VXLAN provides an overlay mechanism that transports Layer 2 frames over Layer 3 networks by encapsulating them inside UDP packets. This allows networks to create multiple isolated virtual segments, commonly referred to as VNIs. VXLAN is widely used in data centers and SD-Access because it supports massive scalability, enabling up to 16 million segments compared to the 4096 VLAN limit.

Option B is different because MPLS L2VPN requires an MPLS backbone. Option C offers generic tunneling but lacks segmentation scaling. Option D is a PPP protocol and has no virtualization role.

VXLAN is critical in ENCOR topics such as fabric technologies, multi-tenant environments, and scalable segmentation.

Thus, VXLAN is the correct answer because it uniquely encapsulates L2 traffic in UDP for large-scale segmentation across IP networks.