• Home
• Cisco Exams
• 200-301 - Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

200-301 Cisco Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question 1

Which two statements accurately describe how the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) functions? (Choose 2.)

A. STP is used to prevent routing loops in a Layer 3 network
B. STP is used to prevent switching loops in a Layer 2 network
C. STP designates the root bridge based on the lowest MAC address
D. The root bridge is elected based on the lowest bridge priority value
E. STP will automatically resolve all issues in a network with redundant links

Answer: B, D

Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a network protocol used primarily in Ethernet networks to prevent switching loops at the Layer 2 (data link layer) of the OSI model. It operates by detecting and disabling redundant paths that could potentially form loops and create broadcast storms. STP ensures a loop-free topology by selectively blocking certain ports while allowing a single active path between any two network devices.

Option B is correct because STP’s main role is to eliminate Layer 2 switching loops. In a switched network with redundant paths, data can endlessly circulate, creating a broadcast storm and causing network failure. STP prevents this by calculating a loop-free path and shutting down duplicate links.

Option D is also correct. The process of electing a root bridge, which acts as the central reference point for STP calculations, is based on a combination of the bridge priority and MAC address. The switch with the lowest bridge priority value becomes the root bridge. If multiple switches have the same priority, the one with the lowest MAC address among them becomes the root bridge. So while MAC address plays a role, it only acts as a tie-breaker.

Option A is incorrect because STP is not related to Layer 3 routing. Preventing routing loops is the job of Layer 3 protocols like RIP, OSPF, or BGP. STP operates purely at Layer 2 and is unrelated to IP routing.

Option C is partially correct but not accurate in the context of the full election process. While the MAC address is used in the election, it only comes into play when the bridge priority values are the same. Therefore, it’s not the primary factor in determining the root bridge.

Option E is misleading. While STP does mitigate many problems caused by redundant links, it does not automatically resolve all issues in such networks. For example, STP does not address bandwidth utilization, convergence time (which can be slow in traditional STP), or hardware failures. Also, misconfigured STP can lead to unintended blocked paths or even loops if not properly monitored.

In summary, STP is crucial for loop prevention in Layer 2 environments and chooses the root bridge based on the lowest bridge priority, using the MAC address only when necessary as a tie-breaker. The most accurate and complete statements among the options are B and D.

Question 2

Which two types of devices are capable of being configured with Layer 3 interfaces to allow routing between different subnets? (Choose 2.)

A. Switch
B. Router
C. Hub
D. Bridge
E. Access point

Answer: A, B

Explanation:
Routing between different subnets requires devices that operate at Layer 3 (the network layer) of the OSI model. Devices that can process IP addresses and make forwarding decisions based on destination network information are capable of routing traffic across subnets.

Routers are the most traditional devices used for this purpose. They are designed specifically to route packets between different IP networks or subnets. By default, routers are equipped with multiple Layer 3 interfaces and routing tables. These interfaces allow a router to connect to multiple networks, evaluate routing metrics, and determine the most efficient path for data.

Switches, while typically associated with Layer 2 (data link layer) functionality, can also operate at Layer 3 if they are Layer 3 switches. These switches are capable of performing routing functions by assigning IP addresses to virtual LAN interfaces (SVIs) or routed physical ports. This enables them to route traffic between VLANs or subnets, which is particularly common in enterprise environments to facilitate inter-VLAN routing without needing a separate router.

Now, let’s eliminate the other options:

C. Hub
A hub is a very basic networking device that operates at Layer 1, the physical layer. It simply broadcasts incoming signals to all ports without any consideration for MAC or IP addresses. Hubs are incapable of making any routing decisions and have no configuration capabilities related to Layer 3.

D. Bridge
A bridge works at Layer 2 of the OSI model. Its function is to divide a network into segments and reduce collision domains, but it does not possess any routing capability. It cannot inspect IP headers or route between different networks or subnets.

E. Access point
An access point (AP) operates primarily at Layer 2 and is used to extend a wired network to wireless clients. Some APs can obtain IP addresses and even perform minimal NAT or DHCP functions in certain configurations, but they are not designed for routing traffic between subnets.

In summary, the two devices from the list that can be configured with Layer 3 interfaces for routing purposes are routers and Layer 3-capable switches. These devices enable communication between devices on different subnets, which is a foundational function in any IP-based network.

The correct answers are A and B.

Question 3

Which two settings must be applied to a Cisco device to ensure secure management access? (Choose 2.)

A. Enabling SSH for encrypted management access
B. Configuring HTTP for secure access to the device’s web interface
C. Configuring an access control list (ACL) to limit access by IP address
D. Disabling all unused ports to prevent unauthorized physical access
E. Enabling Telnet for unencrypted management access

Answer: A, C

Explanation:
Securing management access on a Cisco device is essential to ensure that only authorized users can make configuration changes or monitor device status. The goal is to protect both the data transmitted during management sessions and to control who can initiate those sessions.

Option A is correct because enabling SSH (Secure Shell) provides an encrypted method for remotely accessing and managing a device via the command line interface. Unlike Telnet, SSH encrypts all data, including usernames, passwords, and configuration commands, which protects sensitive information from interception or eavesdropping. This is a best practice for securing remote management access.

Option C is also correct. Access Control Lists (ACLs) allow administrators to specify which IP addresses or networks are permitted to access the device. By configuring ACLs on management interfaces (such as the VTY lines or HTTP/HTTPS server), the administrator limits access to trusted hosts or networks, thereby significantly reducing the risk of unauthorized access. ACLs act as a filter and an essential security layer for protecting the control plane.

Option B is incorrect because it mentions only "HTTP," which is not encrypted. Secure web access to a Cisco device must be configured using HTTPS, not HTTP, to protect the confidentiality of management sessions via the web GUI. If the option said HTTPS instead of HTTP, it would have been a valid answer.

Option D is a useful security measure to protect against unauthorized physical access or rogue device connections, but it is not specifically related to management access via remote protocols like SSH or HTTP. While disabling unused ports is a good practice, it doesn't directly secure management sessions.

Option E is incorrect because Telnet is an unencrypted protocol. It sends all session data, including passwords, in plain text, making it vulnerable to interception and compromise. For this reason, using Telnet is strongly discouraged in secure environments.

To summarize, the two configurations that directly contribute to securing management access are enabling SSH (for secure encrypted sessions) and setting up ACLs (to restrict access to authorized IP addresses). These practices help safeguard device configurations and network stability.

Question 4

What are two benefits of implementing VLANs within a network? (Choose 2.)

A. VLANs allow for better traffic isolation within the network
B. VLANs can be used to segment traffic based on user departments or functions
C. VLANs are only used to reduce network performance
D. VLANs require a routing protocol to work properly across multiple switches
E. VLANs can simplify IP address management by grouping users in a single subnet

Answer: A, B

Explanation:
VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) are a powerful feature used in modern networking to enhance both performance and security by logically segmenting a physical network. Rather than depending solely on physical separation through dedicated switches or routers, VLANs allow administrators to create virtual boundaries within the same physical infrastructure.

Option A, "VLANs allow for better traffic isolation within the network," is correct. One of the primary purposes of VLANs is to isolate broadcast domains. In traditional Ethernet networks, a broadcast sent by one device is forwarded to every other device on the same LAN. VLANs help confine these broadcasts to specific logical groups, preventing them from overwhelming the entire network. This improves both security and performance, as sensitive traffic from one group cannot be accessed by users in another VLAN without proper routing.

Option B, "VLANs can be used to segment traffic based on user departments or functions," is also correct. VLANs are often deployed to logically separate users based on organizational units like HR, Finance, Engineering, or Sales. This simplifies access control, enhances security, and makes managing network policies easier. For instance, devices in the Finance VLAN can have different firewall rules or Quality of Service (QoS) settings compared to those in the Marketing VLAN.

Let’s analyze why the other options are incorrect:

C, "VLANs are only used to reduce network performance," is false. This is a mischaracterization. VLANs are specifically used to enhance network performance by reducing unnecessary traffic, improving security, and enabling better network management. They reduce the size of broadcast domains and make the network more efficient.

D, "VLANs require a routing protocol to work properly across multiple switches," is misleading. VLANs themselves do not require a routing protocol to function. To enable communication between VLANs, you need a Layer 3 device (like a router or Layer 3 switch) to perform inter-VLAN routing, but this does not inherently involve dynamic routing protocols like OSPF or EIGRP. Static routing or simple Layer 3 interfaces are sufficient in many cases.

E, "VLANs can simplify IP address management by grouping users in a single subnet," is incorrect because VLANs typically associate each VLAN with a different subnet, not a shared one. This is a core reason they are used—to logically separate groups into distinct IP subnets. Grouping everyone into one subnet defeats the purpose of VLAN segmentation.

In summary, VLANs provide logical segmentation, improved isolation, and increased manageability, making them essential for modern enterprise network design.

The correct answers are A and B.

Question 5

Which two forms of Network Address Translation (NAT) allow multiple private IP addresses to be mapped to a single public IP address? (Choose 2.)

A. Static NAT
B. Dynamic NAT
C. PAT (Port Address Translation)
D. NAT64
E. Overloading NAT

Answer: C, E

Explanation:
Network Address Translation (NAT) allows private IP addresses within an internal network to communicate with external networks (like the internet) by translating private IPs into public IPs. When it comes to translating multiple private IP addresses into a single public IP, not all NAT methods support this. The two types that allow this functionality are PAT and Overloading NAT.

Option C, PAT (Port Address Translation), is correct because it allows multiple devices on a local network to be mapped to a single public IP address. This is accomplished by translating the source port number of each packet in addition to the IP address. This allows a NAT router to keep track of multiple connections even though they share the same public IP address. PAT is the most common NAT method used in home and business networks to conserve public IP addresses.

Option E, Overloading NAT, is another name for PAT. It is often used interchangeably with PAT because it involves “overloading” a single public IP address with many internal connections. This technique also uses port numbers to differentiate between different sessions originating from different private IPs, allowing efficient use of one public IP address.

Option A, Static NAT, is incorrect because it provides a one-to-one mapping between a single private IP address and a single public IP address. It does not support mapping multiple internal addresses to a single public address.

Option B, Dynamic NAT, is also incorrect because, while it uses a pool of public IP addresses to map internal private addresses, it does so in a one-to-one fashion. It does not allow multiple private IPs to share a single public IP. Instead, it assigns a different public IP from the pool for each private IP, which doesn’t conserve public IP addresses as effectively as PAT does.

Option D, NAT64, is used in specific environments where IPv6 networks need to communicate with IPv4 networks. It translates IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses, not private IPv4 addresses to public IPv4 addresses. Therefore, while useful in dual-stack or transition environments, it is not applicable to the question, which is focused on translating private IPs to a single public IP.

In conclusion, the only two types of NAT that enable many-to-one translation—that is, multiple private IP addresses sharing one public IP address—are PAT (C) and Overloading NAT (E). Both utilize port numbers in the translation process, making them suitable for conserving public IP address space in large networks.

Question 6

Which two statements accurately describe characteristics of IPv6 addressing? (Choose 2.)

A. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length
B. IPv6 addresses use a subnet mask notation
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for NAT (Network Address Translation)
D. IPv6 addresses can be represented in decimal format
E. IPv6 uses the same public/private address space as IPv4

Answer: A, C

Explanation:
IPv6, or Internet Protocol version 6, was developed to address the limitations and exhaustion of IPv4. It brings several changes in addressing format, size, and configuration methods compared to its predecessor. Two important characteristics that distinguish IPv6 are the increased address space and changes in how network addressing is handled.

Option A, "IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length," is correct. One of the most fundamental aspects of IPv6 is that each address is 128 bits long. This is a significant increase from IPv4, which uses 32-bit addresses. With 128 bits, IPv6 can support approximately 3.4 x 10^38 unique IP addresses. This enormous space eliminates the scarcity of IP addresses that IPv4 faced, allowing every device—even potentially every IoT sensor—to have a globally unique IP address.

Option C, "IPv6 eliminates the need for NAT (Network Address Translation)," is also correct. IPv4 relied heavily on NAT to conserve address space by allowing multiple devices on a private network to share a single public IP address. However, one of the core design goals of IPv6 was to restore end-to-end connectivity at the IP layer. With its vast address space, IPv6 allows each device to have a unique global address, making NAT largely unnecessary. This simplification improves the efficiency of routing and supports applications like peer-to-peer communication and VoIP more effectively.

Let’s examine the incorrect options:

B, "IPv6 addresses use a subnet mask notation," is incorrect. Unlike IPv4, which commonly uses subnet masks (like 255.255.255.0), IPv6 uses prefix length notation, represented as a slash followed by a number (e.g., /64). This number indicates how many bits are used for the network portion of the address. For example, 2001:db8::/64 indicates that the first 64 bits are the network prefix.

D, "IPv6 addresses can be represented in decimal format," is incorrect. IPv6 addresses are written in hexadecimal format, not decimal. An IPv6 address consists of eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, separated by colons. For instance: 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334. This format was chosen to make the representation more compact and readable than a 128-bit binary or even a decimal version would be.

E, "IPv6 uses the same public/private address space as IPv4," is also incorrect. IPv6 introduces its own addressing schemes, such as global unicast, link-local, and unique local addresses (ULAs). The unique local address space in IPv6 (e.g., fc00::/7) is not the same as the private address ranges used in IPv4 (such as 192.168.x.x, 10.x.x.x, or 172.16.x.x to 172.31.x.x).

In summary, IPv6 is defined by its 128-bit addressing structure and its ability to provide globally unique addresses, eliminating the need for NAT. These changes support better scalability, security, and direct connectivity.

The correct answers are A and C.

Question 7

Which two statements about the OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) routing protocol are accurate? (Choose 2.)

A. OSPF is a distance-vector routing protocol
B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol
C. OSPF uses cost as its metric to determine the best path
D. OSPF routers communicate using broadcasts
E. OSPF supports VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Masking)

Answer: B, C

Explanation:
OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a widely used interior gateway protocol (IGP) in modern IP networks. It is designed for scalability, efficient route calculation, and fast convergence. Understanding its core characteristics and behavior is key to effective network design and operation.

Option B is correct because OSPF is a link-state routing protocol. Unlike distance-vector protocols that share entire routing tables, link-state protocols such as OSPF build a complete map (topology) of the network by exchanging link-state advertisements (LSAs) with other routers. Each router independently computes the shortest path to every destination using Dijkstra’s algorithm. This allows for faster convergence and more precise routing decisions.

Option C is also correct. OSPF uses cost as its metric to determine the best route. The cost is typically calculated based on the bandwidth of the interface—the higher the bandwidth, the lower the cost. This means that OSPF will prefer higher-speed links over slower ones when choosing the best path to a destination.

Option A is incorrect because OSPF is not a distance-vector protocol. Distance-vector protocols, like RIP (Routing Information Protocol), determine the best path based on the number of hops and periodically send full routing tables to neighbors. OSPF, on the other hand, sends only changes in topology using LSAs and recalculates routes accordingly.

Option D is incorrect. OSPF routers communicate using multicasts, not broadcasts. Specifically, they use the multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 (All OSPF routers) and 224.0.0.6 (All OSPF designated routers). Using multicast rather than broadcast helps reduce unnecessary network traffic and is more efficient, especially on networks with many routers.

Option E, although it may seem plausible, is incorrect in this context because while OSPF does support VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Masking), the question asks for only two correct statements. Since B and C are more definitive core characteristics of OSPF’s operation, they are the best answers. That said, it is worth noting that E is technically true as well—OSPF fully supports VLSM, which allows for more efficient IP address usage. But in many Cisco exam formats, only the best two correct answers are accepted, and B and C directly address OSPF’s protocol type and metric system.

In summary, OSPF is a link-state protocol (not distance-vector), it uses cost as a metric, communicates via multicast, and supports modern features like VLSM. For this question, the two most accurate and defining characteristics are: B and C.

Question 8

Which two commands are used to configure an interface with an IP address in Cisco devices? (Choose 2.)

A. ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
B. ip routing 192.168.1.1
C. interface gigabitEthernet0/1
D. interface vlan 1
E. ip address dhcp

Answer: A, C

Explanation:
When configuring an IP address on a Cisco network device, such as a router or a switch, it is typically done through the device’s command-line interface (CLI) using a structured command sequence. This process involves two key steps: first, accessing the interface that will be configured, and second, assigning an IP address to that interface.

Option A, ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0, is a valid and commonly used command for assigning a static IP address to an interface in Cisco IOS. This command must be entered in interface configuration mode. The command provides both the IP address and the subnet mask, which defines the network and host portions of the address. This is fundamental in enabling Layer 3 communication on the device.

Option C, interface gigabitEthernet0/1, is also correct. This command is used to access the configuration mode of a specific physical interface on a Cisco device, in this case, the GigabitEthernet0/1 port. Before an IP address can be assigned, the user must enter the interface configuration mode using such a command. Only after this can the ip address command (like in Option A) be applied.

Let’s evaluate the incorrect options:

B, ip routing 192.168.1.1, is incorrect. The command ip routing is used to enable IP routing on a device such as a router. However, it does not accept an IP address as a parameter. This command is not involved in the direct assignment of an IP address to an interface.

D, interface vlan 1, while a legitimate command for accessing a virtual interface on a switch, is not universally used for configuring physical interfaces. VLAN 1 is the default VLAN interface on many Layer 2 switches, and you might assign it an IP address for management purposes, but it’s not used for general interface IP configuration in routers or Layer 3 interfaces. Although this command could be relevant in specific contexts, it is not one of the general commands applicable to all Cisco devices for interface IP configuration.

E, ip address dhcp, is used in some scenarios to dynamically assign an IP address via DHCP rather than a static one. While it is a valid Cisco IOS command, it’s only applicable within the interface configuration mode and assumes the device is set to receive an IP from a DHCP server. It is not a standalone command and does not itself configure an interface with a specific IP unless preceded by the interface command. Because the question asks for commands used to configure an interface with an IP address, and DHCP is not explicitly assigning a fixed IP in this context, it is not selected.

In conclusion, configuring an IP address on a Cisco device typically starts with entering the interface configuration mode and then assigning the IP address using the appropriate syntax. The commands that best reflect this process are A and C.