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CTFL-AT ISTQB Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question 1

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding early and frequent feedback?

A. Early feedback decreases the amount of time needed for system testing.
B. Early feedback promotes early discovery and resolution of quality problems.
C. Early feedback provides the Agile team with information on its productivity.
D. Early feedback helps to deliver a product that better reflects what the customer wants.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Early and frequent feedback is a crucial principle in Agile methodologies, ensuring that the development process stays aligned with customer needs and expectations. Let’s examine the statements one by one to identify which one is false:

A. Early feedback decreases the amount of time needed for system testing.

False
While early feedback is vital in Agile development, it does not directly decrease the time required for system testing. In fact, early feedback often highlights the need for more iterative testing and can lead to frequent revisions and adjustments throughout the development process. The early identification of problems might reduce the complexity of some issues, but it does not necessarily shorten the time needed for thorough system testing. Testing is still required to ensure that the system functions correctly after each change or feature implementation.

B. Early feedback promotes early discovery and resolution of quality problems.

True
One of the primary benefits of early and frequent feedback is that it allows the team to discover quality issues early in the development cycle, which enables quicker resolution. By catching issues in the early stages, teams can avoid large-scale defects that would be harder and more expensive to fix later in the process. This is a key principle in Agile to improve product quality throughout the development lifecycle.

C. Early feedback provides the Agile team with information on its productivity.

True
Early feedback gives teams a clear understanding of their progress and productivity by allowing them to gauge whether they are meeting goals, deadlines, and stakeholder expectations. Regular reviews and iterations help Agile teams continuously evaluate their work and performance, enabling adjustments to improve productivity in subsequent sprints.

D. Early feedback helps to deliver a product that better reflects what the customer wants.

True
The central idea of early feedback in Agile is to ensure that the product evolves in a way that meets the customer’s needs and expectations. Frequent reviews with stakeholders allow the team to make necessary adjustments, preventing large deviations from the customer’s vision. This continuous alignment leads to a product that is more likely to satisfy the customer.

The key principle behind Agile is that early and frequent feedback is critical for ensuring product quality, meeting customer expectations, and improving the team's productivity. However, the statement regarding the decrease in testing time (A) is false because, while early feedback helps identify issues earlier, it does not inherently reduce the time needed for testing, as testing remains a necessary part of ensuring the product’s functionality.

The correct answer is: A.

Question 2

Your agile team is using the Testing Quadrants to ensure that all important test levels and test types are covered in the test plan. In relation to Quadrant 3 - business facing and product critique, what should be considered for the plan?

A. Exploratory Testing
B. Prototype Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Functional Testing

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Testing Quadrants are a model used in Agile to categorize different types of testing according to their purpose and target audience. Quadrant 3 (Q3) focuses on business-facing and product critique testing, ensuring that the product meets the customer's needs and offering feedback on the product's usability and overall effectiveness.

In Quadrant 3, the emphasis is on testing that provides insight into how well the product fulfills the business goals and addresses user needs. The tests here are often exploratory in nature, enabling the testers to investigate the system in an ad hoc and creative manner, uncovering issues that might not be identified through scripted tests.

Let’s examine the options:

A. Exploratory Testing

Correct answer
Exploratory testing is a form of business-facing and product critique testing where testers interact with the system to uncover defects, usability issues, and areas for improvement. It is often unscripted, allowing the tester to investigate the system dynamically and focus on discovering issues that impact the end-user experience or business goals. This aligns perfectly with the objectives of Quadrant 3.

B. Prototype Testing

Not the correct answer
Prototype testing is generally focused on evaluating early versions or mock-ups of a product to gain feedback on design and functionality. While it can be valuable in the early stages of product development, it does not fully align with Quadrant 3, which focuses on business-facing feedback and product critique in the context of a more fully developed product. Prototype testing is more of a pre-production phase activity.

C. Performance Testing

Not the correct answer
Performance testing, which evaluates how the system behaves under load or stress, is typically more technical and less related to business critique. It is often associated with Quadrant 1, which deals with the technical aspects of testing, like ensuring that the system performs well under expected conditions. Performance testing is not primarily about business feedback or evaluating how the product meets business goals.

D. Functional Testing

Not the correct answer
Functional testing focuses on ensuring that the product functions correctly according to the requirements. While it is important, functional testing tends to be more focused on verifying that the product works as expected from a technical perspective, rather than offering business critique or addressing customer-facing concerns. It fits more within Quadrant 2, which is more concerned with ensuring that the product meets specified requirements.

In the context of Quadrant 3, the testing activities should focus on providing feedback that helps the business assess whether the product meets the customers' needs and expectations. Exploratory testing best fits this objective, as it allows testers to explore the product in a dynamic, open-ended manner, providing valuable insights that are useful for business-facing and product critique purposes.

The correct answer is: A.

Question 3

Which of the following is a benefit of a whole-team approach?

A. Enables reduction in test duplication as the testers and test engineers function as a single team.
B. Enables testers to execute their responsibility for quality for the combined team.
C. Enables the team to focus on solely their separate areas of expertise and responsibility.
D. Enables the various skill sets within the team to be leveraged to the benefit of the project.

Answer: D

Explanation:

A whole-team approach in Agile development focuses on the idea that everyone on the team is responsible for the success of the project, including quality. This approach breaks down silos between different roles such as developers, testers, product owners, and others. Instead of working in isolated silos, team members collaborate across roles to deliver the project together. Let's analyze each of the options to see which one best describes the benefit of a whole-team approach.

A. Enables reduction in test duplication as the testers and test engineers function as a single team.

Not the correct answer
While test duplication can be reduced by having the entire team (developers, testers, etc.) collaborate, the primary benefit of a whole-team approach is not necessarily about eliminating duplication. The focus is more on collaborative effort rather than just reducing repetition. The whole-team approach emphasizes that all members are involved in the process, contributing to the overall success of the project, which goes beyond just test duplication.

B. Enables testers to execute their responsibility for quality for the combined team.

Not the correct answer
While this is a true statement in that testers take responsibility for quality, it is more focused on individual responsibility rather than the whole-team approach. In a whole-team approach, everyone on the team is responsible for quality, not just the testers. This option highlights a narrower view, as quality is shared by the entire team rather than being solely in the hands of one role.

C. Enables the team to focus on solely their separate areas of expertise and responsibility.

Not the correct answer
This option describes a siloed approach, where each team member focuses solely on their area of expertise. However, the essence of a whole-team approach is to encourage collaboration across different areas of expertise. It involves team members working together and leveraging each other’s skills to achieve the overall goals, not just focusing on individual tasks or responsibilities.

D. Enables the various skill sets within the team to be leveraged to the benefit of the project.

Correct answer
This option perfectly encapsulates the benefit of the whole-team approach. The whole-team approach allows all team members to collaborate and leverage their various skill sets (e.g., development, testing, design, etc.) to work towards the common goal of delivering the product. By combining their expertise, the team can provide more innovative solutions and work more effectively towards achieving the project objectives. This collaborative approach enhances the overall quality of the product and accelerates its delivery.

A whole-team approach is designed to encourage collaboration among all team members, enabling the team to benefit from the collective skill set and ensure that all roles contribute to the project’s success. This is best reflected in option D, which highlights how the team uses their diverse skill sets for the benefit of the project as a whole.

The correct answer is: D.

Question 4

You have been asked to execute an exploratory testing session on Park & Ride system. The test charter has been titled as “Buy a bus ticket”. As a result, a number of defects were reported, the titles of which are listed below.

Which defect is out of scope for the given test charter?

A. Price for a bus ticket was calculated incorrectly.
B. Failed to buy a bus ticket after 18:00.
C. Failed to buy a bus ticket when the network connection to the Central System is down.
D. Payment for parking ticket is restricted to cash only (no credit card supported).

Answer: D

Explanation:

When performing exploratory testing, the tester follows a charter that defines the scope and the goal of the session. In this case, the test charter is titled “Buy a bus ticket”, which implies that the testing will focus on the functionality related to purchasing a bus ticket in the Park & Ride system.

Let's analyze the defects reported in light of the test charter:

A. Price for a bus ticket was calculated incorrectly.

This is within the scope of the test charter. The price calculation is a key component of buying a bus ticket, so if the price is calculated incorrectly, it is directly relevant to the objective of testing the bus ticket purchasing functionality.

B. Failed to buy a bus ticket after 18:00.

This is within the scope of the test charter. The time restrictions (such as failing to buy a ticket after 18:00) are likely part of the business rules for the Park & Ride system, and the tester should investigate whether these rules are being correctly enforced during the process of purchasing a bus ticket.

C. Failed to buy a bus ticket when the network connection to the Central System is down.

This is within the scope of the test charter. Network issues may impact the ability to purchase a bus ticket, especially if the system requires real-time communication with a central server. The tester needs to verify that the system behaves appropriately under such circumstances, such as handling failure gracefully or notifying the user about the network issue.

D. Payment for parking ticket is restricted to cash only (no credit card supported).

This defect is out of scope for the test charter. The payment for parking tickets is not part of the “Buy a bus ticket” test charter. This defect pertains to parking tickets, which are a different functionality unrelated to the actual purchase of a bus ticket. Therefore, it is outside the scope of the exploratory testing session focusing on bus tickets.

The primary focus of the test charter is the process of buying a bus ticket. While the other defects are related to this process, the defect about parking ticket payments does not belong to the scope of the test, as it pertains to a separate functionality.

The correct answer is: D.

Question 5

Iteration planning for Sprint 5 of your current project is complete. The plan for the sprint is to increase performance of the system, which of the following acceptance criteria would you expect for Sprint 5? i) User access for all roles has been validated. ii) A static analysis tool has been executed for all code. iii) 100% of the existing regression test suite has passed. iv) System is responding in less than 3 seconds, 90% of the time. v) A new version of Internet Explorer has been included.

A. i, iii
B. iii, iv
C. iv, v
D. ii, v

Answer: B

Explanation:

The goal of Sprint 5 in this scenario is to increase performance of the system. Given that focus, the acceptance criteria should be directly related to verifying performance improvements and quality checks that ensure the system is performing as expected.

Let's analyze each of the given criteria:

i) User access for all roles has been validated.

This criterion is not related to performance. While it is important to validate user access, especially for different roles, this is more about security and access control than performance. Therefore, it is not an expected acceptance criterion for a sprint focused on increasing system performance.

ii) A static analysis tool has been executed for all code.

Static analysis is useful for improving code quality and identifying potential issues in the codebase, but it is not directly related to performance. While improving code quality might indirectly affect performance, this is not a direct measure of performance improvement, so it is not likely to be the main acceptance criterion for this sprint.

iii) 100% of the existing regression test suite has passed.

This is an important criterion for ensuring that changes (such as performance improvements) have not broken existing functionality. While it ensures stability, it is not directly related to measuring performance itself. However, it is still important to verify that performance improvements do not affect other features, so it might be considered, but it does not focus directly on performance.

iv) System is responding in less than 3 seconds, 90% of the time.

This is a direct measure of performance. The sprint’s goal is to increase the system's response time, and this criterion clearly measures the performance improvement. The system’s ability to respond in under 3 seconds 90% of the time is a clear and relevant performance metric, making it a valid acceptance criterion.

v) A new version of Internet Explorer has been included.

This is more related to compatibility or supporting new browsers, not directly related to performance improvements. While it might be part of an overall system update, it does not measure or focus on improving the performance of the system.

The most relevant acceptance criteria for Sprint 5, which is focused on increasing performance, are those that directly measure performance improvement:

• iv) System is responding in less than 3 seconds, 90% of the time (focuses on system performance).

• iii) 100% of the existing regression test suite has passed (ensures stability while improving performance).

Therefore, the correct answer is B: iii, iv.

Question 6

Which of the following would provide the MOST independence for testers working with agile teams?

A. Testers are fully embedded in each Agile team to perform many of the testing tasks.
B. Testers from an independent test team who do not get involved with the Agile team, but are assigned to do System Testing once all sprints are completed.
C. Testers from an independent test team are assigned on-demand for the final days of each sprint.
D. Testers from an independent test team are assigned to the Agile team at the beginning of the project, returning for re-assignment to a new agile team.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The question is asking for the option that would provide the most independence for testers working within an Agile framework. Let's break down each option:

A. Testers are fully embedded in each Agile team to perform many of the testing tasks.

This option suggests that testers are fully embedded within the Agile teams, meaning they are working closely with developers and participating in the development process. While this fosters strong collaboration, it reduces the independence of testers because they are deeply involved in the Agile team’s day-to-day activities. Testers working in this embedded role may face pressure to align with the team’s goals and deadlines, which can lead to a lack of independence from the developers. This option does not provide the most independence for testers.

B. Testers from an independent test team who do not get involved with the Agile team, but are assigned to do System Testing once all sprints are completed.

This option describes testers who are not involved in the day-to-day work of the Agile team and instead perform system testing after the sprint has concluded. Because they are independent and not embedded in the team, they retain their autonomy and independence, allowing them to assess the system without being influenced by the team's internal dynamics. This option provides maximum independence for testers, as they are not involved in the development process and can focus purely on testing once all sprints are finished.

C. Testers from an independent test team are assigned on-demand for the final days of each sprint.

This option suggests that testers are only brought in towards the end of each sprint. While they might have some independence, their involvement at the end of the sprint could lead to conflicts or compromises in terms of the product's integrity, because they might not have been part of the ongoing sprint work. However, they are still not fully independent, as they are part of the sprint cycles, even if their participation is limited. Independence is reduced in this scenario because they are engaged during the sprint lifecycle.

D. Testers from an independent test team are assigned to the Agile team at the beginning of the project, returning for re-assignment to a new agile team.

In this option, testers are assigned at the beginning of the project, working with the team throughout its lifecycle, before moving to a new team. While testers might gain some perspective and independence early on by engaging with multiple teams, they are still embedded within the Agile teams for long periods, which compromises their independence. Their involvement in the entire Agile process still ties them closely to the teams, and thus they are not fully independent.

The most independent approach for testers is when they are not embedded in the Agile teams and are only brought in to test once the sprint has completed. This allows them to perform their testing duties without the influence of the development process. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Testers from an independent test team who do not get involved with the Agile team, but are assigned to do System Testing once all sprints are completed.

Question 7

Which of the following is a risk that continuous integration introduces?

A. Teams sometimes over-rely on unit tests and exclude some important system and acceptance tests.
B. Testers sometimes have too many builds to test, which reduces the quality of testing.
C. Teams no longer have the ability to run manual tests, as all tests must be automated.
D. Developer's workload is increased, which can result in a reduction of output.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Continuous Integration (CI) is a practice where code changes are integrated and tested frequently to identify issues early. While CI offers many benefits, it can also introduce certain risks or challenges. Let's explore each of the options in detail:

A. Teams sometimes over-rely on unit tests and exclude some important system and acceptance tests.

This is a common risk associated with continuous integration. CI encourages frequent testing, and unit tests are typically the most automated and frequent type of tests run during the integration process. However, over-relying on unit tests might lead teams to neglect higher-level tests, such as system tests or acceptance tests. These types of tests evaluate the behavior of the system as a whole, ensuring that integrated components function correctly in real-world scenarios. Excluding them can leave critical issues undetected, especially integration or user experience-related problems that unit tests alone cannot address. Therefore, this is a valid risk of continuous integration.

B. Testers sometimes have too many builds to test, which reduces the quality of testing.

While this could be a challenge in environments with frequent builds, it’s not specifically a risk introduced by continuous integration. CI aims to have small, frequent, and incremental changes, which actually helps reduce the testing burden. However, it does require teams to manage the growing number of builds effectively. Testers may feel overwhelmed, but this is more about project management and workflow than an inherent risk of CI itself. In fact, the continuous feedback from CI can help identify and fix issues earlier in the development process, reducing the overall testing workload.

C. Teams no longer have the ability to run manual tests, as all tests must be automated.

This statement is incorrect. Continuous Integration does not eliminate manual testing; it encourages automated testing of specific tasks, especially unit and integration tests, to save time and provide immediate feedback. Manual testing is still an essential part of testing practices, particularly for user interface (UI) testing, exploratory testing, and acceptance testing. Therefore, CI does not require the exclusion of manual tests, so this option is not the right answer.

D. Developer's workload is increased, which can result in a reduction of output.

This is not necessarily true for all CI implementations. While developers may initially feel an increased workload due to the need to write automated tests and integrate frequently, CI often improves productivity in the long term by identifying issues early, reducing the time spent debugging later, and enabling faster delivery of smaller, high-quality features. So, the impact on workload is not inherently negative. It depends on how CI is implemented and the development team's ability to manage the process effectively.

The most valid risk that continuous integration introduces is A, where teams can over-rely on unit tests and neglect essential system and acceptance tests, which could lead to missing critical quality issues. Continuous integration helps automate testing but should not replace higher-level testing practices entirely. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Question 8

You are developing the code that controls an industrial Espresso machine which will be operated by waiting staff in restaurants. The machine is rather complicated and has lots of switches and buttons, so in the next iteration instructions will be provided to the operator on a small LCD screen. 

A User Story for the Operator-Instructions module is as follows: “As an operator of the Espresso machine, I would like to know how to steam milk, so I can add steamed milk to the coffee.” The following is a list of risks identified for this story, with assigned probability and impact.

A. Operators will not read the instructions and will try various switches and buttons until something works. Probability: Low. Impact: Low
B. The instructions may be incorrect or appear in the wrong order. Probability: Low. Impact: High
C. An untrained customer will attempt to use the coffee machine. Probability: High. Impact: High
D. A small child may try to steam milk. Probability: High. Impact: Low

Answer: C

Explanation:

In this scenario, we are developing an industrial Espresso machine with a User Story focused on providing instructions for the operator. The task is to identify the most significant risk associated with the system's operation, considering the probabilities and impacts of the potential risks listed.

A. Operators will not read the instructions and will try various switches and buttons until something works. Probability: Low. Impact: Low

This risk seems to be less significant since it has a low probability of occurring and also a low impact if it does occur. Operators, though possibly skipping the instructions, will still likely figure out how to operate the machine through trial and error. However, this does not seem to create a major issue in the overall functionality or safety, especially since the probability is low.

B. The instructions may be incorrect or appear in the wrong order. Probability: Low. Impact: High

This risk is serious due to the high impact it could have if operators follow incorrect or poorly ordered instructions. Incorrect instructions could potentially lead to the wrong milk steaming process, affecting the coffee quality or even causing damage to the machine. However, its low probability makes it less likely to happen but still important to address during development.

C. An untrained customer will attempt to use the coffee machine. Probability: High. Impact: High

This is the most significant risk. Since the probability is high (given that the machine will likely be available in public or restaurant settings where untrained customers could easily access it), and the impact is high (untrained customers may misuse the machine, resulting in malfunction, safety issues, or damage), this poses a serious concern. Ensuring the machine is safeguarded from being used by untrained individuals is crucial. This could be addressed by limiting access to only authorized users, implementing training requirements, or adding locks or access controls on certain functions.

D. A small child may try to steam milk. Probability: High. Impact: Low

This is another important risk but with a lower impact compared to risk C. The probability is high because small children are often curious and could try to operate the machine. However, the impact of this risk is relatively low since the risk is more likely to result in minor issues such as spillage or mischief, rather than significant machine malfunction or safety hazards. Nevertheless, child safety should still be a consideration, potentially addressed by designing child-proof safety mechanisms.

The risk with the highest probability and impact is C: An untrained customer will attempt to use the coffee machine. The possibility of an untrained customer operating the machine could result in substantial issues such as improper use, breakdowns, or accidents. Therefore, this risk should be prioritized in the development process.

Thus, the correct answer is C.

Question 9

Which of the following statements about the benefits of the Agile processes promoting early and frequent feedback is NOT true?

A. In Agile projects where feedback is provided early and frequently, defects and incorrect requirements are caught earlier and those problems can be fixed faster.
B. Feedback from well-conducted Agile retrospectives can be used to positively affect the development process over the course of the next iteration.
C. Early and frequent feedback enables the team to deliver the features that represent the highest business value to the customer first.
D. Increasing the frequency of feedback and communication between all the stakeholders involved in Agile projects eliminates all communication problems.

Answer: D

Explanation:

In Agile development, early and frequent feedback is a crucial aspect of improving both the product and the processes involved in the project. Let's review each statement to identify the one that is NOT true.

A. In Agile projects where feedback is provided early and frequently, defects and incorrect requirements are caught earlier and those problems can be fixed faster.

This statement is true. One of the core benefits of Agile methodologies is that frequent feedback allows teams to detect issues (like defects or incorrect requirements) much earlier in the development cycle. This early detection makes it easier to address and correct those issues before they escalate, thereby improving the quality of the product and reducing the cost and time associated with fixing them later.

B. Feedback from well-conducted Agile retrospectives can be used to positively affect the development process over the course of the next iteration.

This statement is true. Agile retrospectives are regular sessions where the team reflects on the past iteration, identifying what worked well and what could be improved. The feedback gathered during retrospectives is used to adapt and improve processes for future sprints, helping the team continuously improve their performance and work more effectively. These improvements are often applied in subsequent iterations.

C. Early and frequent feedback enables the team to deliver the features that represent the highest business value to the customer first.

This statement is true. Agile methodologies focus on delivering high-priority features first, based on customer feedback. Early and frequent feedback helps ensure that the team is working on the most important and valuable features first, aligning the product with the customer's needs and expectations. This approach increases the likelihood that the product delivers the greatest business value in the shortest amount of time.

D. Increasing the frequency of feedback and communication between all the stakeholders involved in Agile projects eliminates all communication problems.

This statement is NOT true. While increasing feedback and communication helps address many communication issues, it does not eliminate all communication problems. Communication issues can still arise due to misalignment of expectations, differences in technical understanding, or language barriers, among other reasons. In Agile, the goal is to improve communication and feedback loops, but it is not a guarantee that all issues will be eliminated. It can significantly reduce misunderstandings, but it cannot completely prevent them.

The statement in option D is incorrect because while Agile processes enhance communication and feedback, they do not eliminate all communication problems. Communication challenges can still occur due to various factors, even in highly communicative environments. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Question 10

Which of the following statements about a test charter are CORRECT? i) It is used mainly in exploratory tests. ii) It is used to monitor a test process. iii) It may make reference to user stories. iv) It contains notes taken during a test session. v) It is used to outline the company test policy.

A. i, ii, v
B. ii, iii, iv
C. ii, iv, v
D. i, iii, iv

Answer: D

Explanation:

A test charter is a critical component in exploratory testing. It helps guide testers during their sessions while also allowing them the flexibility to explore areas of the application not directly covered by predefined test cases. Let's examine the options in the context of a test charter:

i) It is used mainly in exploratory tests.

This statement is true. Test charters are primarily associated with exploratory testing, where the tester has more freedom to explore the application in an unscripted manner. The charter defines the focus area, the objectives, and the potential techniques or areas to be explored but leaves the tester the freedom to adjust the test as they go.

ii) It is used to monitor a test process.

This statement is false. While test charters guide the exploration process, they are not primarily used to monitor the test process itself. Test charters provide direction but do not track or oversee the overall progress of the testing activities. Monitoring the test process is typically handled by other means, such as status reports or metrics.

iii) It may make reference to user stories.

This statement is true. A test charter may indeed refer to specific user stories, particularly in Agile projects. These stories describe features or functionalities of the product, and the test charter can direct the tester to focus on testing specific user stories or behaviors associated with them. This makes the testing process more aligned with business goals and user expectations.

iv) It contains notes taken during a test session.

This statement is true. Notes from the test session can be recorded in the test charter. Exploratory testing is often about the tester capturing findings, insights, and any issues they encounter, which are valuable to document in the test charter. These notes provide context for further testing or for communicating findings back to the team.

v) It is used to outline the company test policy.

This statement is false. The test charter is not used to outline company-wide testing policies. That would be more appropriate for a test strategy or a test policy document, which would describe the overall approach to testing at a higher organizational level. The test charter is much more specific, guiding an individual test session rather than defining broad testing principles.

Based on the explanation, the statements that are correct about a test charter are i, iii, and iv. Therefore, the correct answer is D: i, iii, iv.