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GSLC GIAC Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps

Question No 1:

Which of the following is an example of pseudonymous data?

A. Encrypting employee data with a private key before transmitting it for payroll processing
B. Using salted hashes to protect customer bank account data in a backend database
C. Collected poll results added together and displayed in total on a public website
D. Research analysis with names removed and replaced with a unique identifier for each participant

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Pseudonymous data refers to data that has been processed in such a way that it can no longer be attributed to a specific individual without the use of additional information. This typically involves replacing personally identifiable information (PII) with a unique identifier or pseudonym. Importantly, pseudonymous data can be re-identified if necessary, using the key or other means of linking the pseudonym back to the individual.

Let’s analyze each option:

A. Encrypting employee data with a private key before transmitting it for payroll processing

• This option describes encryption, which ensures that data is secure during transmission, but it does not meet the criteria for pseudonymous data. Encryption is a technique for securing data to protect its confidentiality, but it does not specifically replace identifying information with a pseudonym. Instead, it ensures that data is unreadable to unauthorized parties.

B. Using salted hashes to protect customer bank account data in a backend database

• Salting hashes is a method of securing passwords and sensitive information, such as customer bank account data. It ensures that even if the database is breached, the actual data cannot easily be reverse-engineered. However, salted hashes are not pseudonymous data because the hashed values are not meant to be reversible or re-identified without the original data. This is more of a data protection measure rather than pseudonymization.

C. Collected poll results added together and displayed in total on a public website

• This example involves aggregating data and displaying results in a way that no individual data is identifiable. While this ensures privacy, it does not involve pseudonymization since the individual’s data is not being replaced with a pseudonym; rather, it’s anonymized (aggregated and presented as totals). Pseudonymous data involves identifying individuals with pseudonyms, which is not the case here.

D. Research analysis with names removed and replaced with a unique identifier for each participant

• This is the correct example of pseudonymous data. In this case, personally identifiable information (like names) has been replaced with a unique identifier. While the individual participants are not directly identifiable, the data can still be re-linked to the person by using the unique identifier. This is a clear case of pseudonymization, where personal identifiers are replaced but the data could still potentially be re-identified with the right information.

The most accurate example of pseudonymous data is D. Research analysis with names removed and replaced with a unique identifier for each participant. This involves replacing identifiable information with a pseudonym, allowing for re-identification when necessary, which defines pseudonymized data.

Question No 2:

Using a network extraction approach for logging requires which of the following?

A. Scripts to parse multiple log formats
B. Sensors to capture mirrored traffic
C. System service configuration changes
D. System remote agents for log collection

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

A network extraction approach for logging involves gathering logs or monitoring data from network traffic rather than directly from devices or systems generating logs. This is a useful method when you need to collect network-based data such as flow records, packet captures, or traffic logs, often to analyze network performance, security, or behavior.

Let's analyze each of the options to understand why B is correct and why the others are not:

1. A. Scripts to parse multiple log formats:

While parsing logs in various formats is often required for traditional log management systems (where logs are generated by individual devices or systems), it is not specific to network extraction. In a network extraction approach, the focus is on capturing traffic and extracting meaningful information from that traffic, not parsing the format of logs.

Therefore, this option is not directly tied to the network extraction approach.

2. B. Sensors to capture mirrored traffic:

This is the correct answer. Network extraction involves capturing network traffic that is either mirrored or intercepted from various parts of the network. This is often done through sensors or devices configured to monitor traffic flows, such as network taps, port mirroring, or SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer). The sensors capture packets or flow data and then send them to logging or analysis systems for further processing.

Therefore, sensors for capturing mirrored traffic are essential for network-based logging, making this the correct choice.

3. C. System service configuration changes:

While system service configurations can be part of traditional log management (e.g., adjusting how logging is handled on servers or devices), network extraction does not require changes to system services directly. The extraction focuses on capturing traffic from the network rather than modifying system service settings.

This option is not typically associated with the network extraction approach.

4. D. System remote agents for log collection:

Remote agents are typically used in host-based logging approaches, where logs are gathered from individual devices like servers, endpoints, or applications. These agents gather and forward logs to a central location for analysis. In contrast, a network extraction approach does not rely on installing agents on each system but instead gathers data directly from network traffic.

Therefore, remote agents are not necessary for a network extraction approach, making this option incorrect.

In conclusion, B (Sensors to capture mirrored traffic) is the correct answer because network extraction focuses on capturing traffic data using specialized sensors rather than modifying system configurations or using agents.

Question No 3:

S/MIME provides encryption for which of the following?

A. Email
B. VPN
C. Network authentication
D. Web applications

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is a widely-used protocol for securing email communications. It provides encryption and signing capabilities that help ensure the privacy and authenticity of email messages. By utilizing asymmetric encryption, S/MIME allows the sender to encrypt the message in such a way that only the recipient, with the appropriate decryption key, can read it. Additionally, it supports the use of digital signatures to verify the identity of the sender and ensure that the message has not been altered in transit.

Understanding S/MIME:

• Email Security: S/MIME is specifically designed to address email security concerns. It enables the protection of email content from being intercepted and read by unauthorized parties through encryption. Furthermore, it provides a means to verify the identity of the sender using digital signatures, ensuring that the message is indeed from the stated sender and has not been tampered with.

• Encryption Mechanism: S/MIME uses a combination of symmetric and asymmetric encryption methods. The sender encrypts the email with a recipient's public key, and only the recipient, who possesses the corresponding private key, can decrypt it. This ensures confidentiality. To prevent tampering, the sender may also digitally sign the email with their private key, and the recipient can use the sender's public key to verify the signature.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

• B. VPN (Virtual Private Network): VPNs are used to create secure, encrypted connections between devices or networks, protecting data as it travels over untrusted networks (like the internet). However, S/MIME is not used for VPN encryption. VPNs typically use other protocols like IPsec or SSL/TLS for encryption and secure communication.

• C. Network authentication: Network authentication refers to the process of verifying the identity of users or devices on a network. While S/MIME may be part of some authentication workflows in the context of email systems, it is not specifically used for general network authentication, which typically relies on protocols like 802.1X, RADIUS, or Kerberos.

• D. Web applications: Web applications can use encryption, but not through S/MIME. Instead, web applications use SSL/TLS protocols to secure data exchanged between the client and server. These protocols provide end-to-end encryption and are essential for securing web traffic (e.g., HTTPS).

S/MIME is specifically designed for encrypting and securing email communications, making option A (Email) the correct answer. It ensures both confidentiality through encryption and integrity/authenticity through digital signatures, which is essential for protecting sensitive information shared via email.

Question No 4:

At which stage of the Security Awareness Maturity Model is annual training first implemented?

A. Long-term sustainment and cultural change
B. Metrics framework
C. Compliance-focused
D. Promoting awareness and behavioral change

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The Security Awareness Maturity Model outlines the stages organizations go through as they develop and mature their security awareness programs. These stages guide organizations from initial compliance-based training through to creating a long-term security culture.

Option C is correct because the Compliance-focused stage is where annual security training is first implemented. At this stage, organizations typically begin offering regular, scheduled training sessions to ensure that employees understand and comply with security policies and regulations. Annual training is often mandated to meet legal and regulatory requirements, making it an essential part of this stage.

In the Compliance-focused stage, the main goal is to ensure that employees complete the required security training as part of compliance with industry standards and regulations. The training tends to be basic and focused on policy adherence, and while it may not be as engaging as in later stages, it ensures that the organization meets necessary legal obligations.

Option A is incorrect because the Long-term sustainment and cultural change stage comes after the compliance phase. In this stage, organizations focus on embedding security awareness into the corporate culture and making security a part of everyday behavior. While training is still important, this stage focuses on making security awareness a continual, long-term effort rather than just an annual event.

Option B is incorrect because the Metrics framework stage comes after the compliance phase and focuses on measuring the effectiveness of security awareness programs. At this stage, organizations start using data and metrics to track progress, assess employee engagement, and identify areas for improvement. It is not when annual training is first introduced.

Option D is incorrect because the Promoting awareness and behavioral change stage is further along the maturity model. This stage emphasizes moving beyond compliance to actively engage employees in security practices and influence their behavior in a meaningful way. It goes beyond annual training and includes interactive, continuous learning opportunities to foster real change in how employees approach security.

Thus, the correct answer is C because annual security training is typically introduced in the Compliance-focused stage, where the primary goal is ensuring regulatory compliance and meeting required security standards.

Question No 5:

Which of the following is an example of a compliance metric for a security awareness program?

A. Was there a decrease in the severity of incidents after the awareness program was initiated?
B. How many employees reported suspicious emails after awareness training compared to before training?
C. Which regulatory requirements will be addressed by deploying an organization-wide awareness program?
D. What percentage of employees assigned to an awareness training module have completed the training?

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Compliance metrics are specific measures used to assess whether a program or process is adhering to predefined standards, regulations, or guidelines. In the case of a security awareness program, a compliance metric would typically focus on whether the program is fulfilling regulatory or organizational requirements, especially in relation to training completion, tracking, and adherence to legal standards.

Option D is the most directly related to compliance because it measures training completion rates, a key element for ensuring the organization is meeting training requirements or obligations, often set forth by regulations or internal policies. Many regulations (such as those in healthcare, finance, or data protection) mandate that employees receive regular security awareness training, and tracking the percentage of employees who have completed the training helps to ensure that the organization is compliant with these mandates.

Let's analyze the other options:

• A. Was there a decrease in the severity of incidents after the awareness program was initiated?
  This option focuses more on the effectiveness of the awareness program in reducing incidents rather than compliance. While this is an important evaluation of the program's impact, it does not directly measure whether the organization is meeting compliance requirements. The severity of incidents would be an outcome of the program but not necessarily a compliance metric.

• B. How many employees reported suspicious emails after awareness training compared to before training?

• This option assesses the effectiveness of the program in terms of behavioral change, such as how well employees can identify phishing attempts. While it provides valuable insight into the program’s impact, it is more of a performance metric than a compliance metric. Compliance metrics focus more on tracking whether the program meets specific regulatory or organizational standards, such as training completion.

• C. Which regulatory requirements will be addressed by deploying an organization-wide awareness program?
  This question is more about the planning or design phase of the awareness program rather than a compliance metric. While understanding which regulatory requirements need to be addressed is important, this question does not measure how well the program is performing in terms of compliance.

In conclusion, Option D is the correct answer because it directly tracks compliance with training requirements. Monitoring the completion rates of employees assigned to training modules ensures that the organization is fulfilling its regulatory obligations for security awareness training. This metric is often required for audits and compliance assessments, making it a critical compliance measure.

Question No 6:

What type of network attack uses switch spoofing?

A. VLAN hopping
B. DHCP snooping
C. Ping flooding
D. Double tagging

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Switch spoofing is a technique used to launch VLAN hopping attacks in network environments. To understand this better, let’s explore the context of VLAN hopping and switch spoofing, as well as why this combination is used in attacks.

• A. VLAN hopping: This is the correct answer. VLAN hopping occurs when an attacker exploits vulnerabilities in the VLAN configuration to send traffic to multiple VLANs, even though the attacker is supposed to be confined to one VLAN. In switch spoofing, the attacker tricks a switch into thinking that the device is a trunk port, even though it is not. This is typically done by manipulating the Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) to make the switch think the attacker’s port is a legitimate trunk port. As a result, the attacker can gain access to multiple VLANs by hopping between them, bypassing VLAN isolation.

• B. DHCP snooping: This option is incorrect. DHCP snooping is a security feature used to prevent rogue DHCP servers from allocating IP addresses to clients. It involves validating DHCP messages and preventing unauthorized DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses. Switch spoofing is not directly involved in DHCP snooping attacks, although rogue DHCP servers may be part of broader network attacks, but they are not related to VLAN hopping.

• C. Ping flooding: This is incorrect. Ping flooding, or ICMP flooding, is a type of denial-of-service (DoS) attack where an attacker overwhelms a target device or network with large amounts of ICMP Echo Request (ping) packets. This is unrelated to switch spoofing, as it is focused on network traffic rather than exploiting switch configurations.

• D. Double tagging: This option is also incorrect. Double tagging (also known as VLAN double tagging) is a technique where an attacker manipulates Ethernet frames to add two VLAN tags, allowing the attacker to bypass VLAN filtering mechanisms. This attack is related to VLAN security but does not involve switch spoofing. While double tagging exploits the handling of VLAN tags, it does not involve pretending to be a trunk port as switch spoofing does.

In conclusion, VLAN hopping is the attack that uses switch spoofing, as the attacker exploits the switch’s trunking mechanisms to gain unauthorized access to multiple VLANs. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Question No 7:

The statement below is an example of which of the following?
For consumer market product lines, no single supplier’s exposure will exceed 30%

A. Risk capacity
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk analysis
D. Risk profile

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The statement describes a limitation or a boundary for exposure to a particular risk, specifically related to a supplier's exposure in the consumer market product lines. This limitation indicates the level of risk that the organization is willing to accept in terms of reliance on a single supplier, where no supplier will account for more than 30% of exposure. This is a clear example of risk tolerance.

Risk tolerance refers to the acceptable level of risk that an organization is willing to take or bear. It defines the maximum acceptable risk exposure before corrective action is required or before the organization considers the risk to be too great. In this case, the company has defined a tolerance threshold by stating that no single supplier should account for more than 30% of the exposure, indicating the amount of risk they are willing to accept regarding supplier dependency.

Now, let's look at the other options:

• A. Risk capacity refers to the maximum amount of risk an organization can bear without causing significant harm or financial distress. It is usually tied to an organization’s resources, such as financial or operational capabilities. While risk tolerance is about what the organization is willing to accept, risk capacity focuses more on what the organization can afford to bear in terms of risk.

• C. Risk analysis involves identifying, assessing, and evaluating risks in order to understand their potential impacts. Risk analysis helps organizations make informed decisions, but the statement provided does not describe a process of analyzing risks; it’s about defining a limit on risk exposure.

• D. Risk profile refers to the overall picture of an organization’s risks, including the types of risks they face and their attitudes toward them. While the risk profile is closely related to risk tolerance, the statement is more directly about setting a specific limit on acceptable risk exposure, which aligns with risk tolerance.

In conclusion, B is the correct answer because the statement defines a specific limit or threshold for risk exposure, which is an example of risk tolerance.

Question No 8:

Which of the following is a recommended function of the SOC’s command center?

A. Approving and updating SOC policies
B. Receiving internal and third-party security requests
C. Managing network security monitoring devices
D. Performing forensic analysis and reverse engineering

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

A Security Operations Center (SOC) is tasked with monitoring, detecting, responding to, and mitigating cybersecurity threats. The command center within the SOC is the central hub for overseeing these activities and coordinating response efforts. The SOC command center's primary role is to facilitate efficient communication, handle security requests, and ensure the smooth functioning of incident response processes.

Why B (Receiving internal and third-party security requests)?

The recommended function of the SOC's command center is to handle communication between various stakeholders, including internal teams and third parties. Security requests can come from different departments, external partners, or service providers, especially in the context of urgent security incidents, investigations, or when guidance is needed for threat mitigation. The command center is designed to receive, prioritize, and route these requests appropriately, ensuring that critical security issues are addressed in a timely manner. This makes it a pivotal point of contact for managing the flow of security-related information and resources.

Why not the other options?

A. Approving and updating SOC policies:
While policy creation, approval, and updates are important for the SOC's long-term operation, these functions typically belong to senior management or the security leadership team, not the SOC command center itself. The command center's focus is more on real-time monitoring and response rather than policy creation and updates. These responsibilities would be handled outside of the command center, although the center might operate under those policies once they are established.

C. Managing network security monitoring devices:
Managing and configuring network security monitoring devices (e.g., firewalls, intrusion detection systems, etc.) is a key function of the SOC, but it typically falls under the purview of SOC analysts or specialized security engineers. While the command center may oversee the effectiveness of these devices and respond to alerts generated by them, the actual management of the devices (e.g., configuring settings, updates) is typically performed by the operations or network security team. The command center would focus on ensuring that the network monitoring systems are functioning well, rather than managing them directly.

D. Performing forensic analysis and reverse engineering:
Forensic analysis and reverse engineering are specialized tasks that usually involve deep dives into security incidents to uncover attack vectors, identify malware, and understand how an attack unfolded. These tasks require expertise in cybersecurity and are generally performed by dedicated forensic or malware analysis teams. While the SOC command center might coordinate the initial response to an incident and escalate it for further analysis, performing forensic analysis and reverse engineering is a more specialized activity that would not typically be a core responsibility of the command center.

In conclusion, the primary role of the SOC's command center is to handle internal and third-party security requests, ensuring efficient and timely communication and response during security incidents.

Question No 9:

An organization wants a perimeter device to inspect and transmit email requests from the internet to the internal email server. Which of the following is used for this purpose?

A. Web proxy
B. WAF
C. Reverse proxy
D. NIDS

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

In this scenario, the organization requires a perimeter device that is capable of inspecting and relaying email requests from the internet to the internal email server. The most suitable solution for this task is a Reverse Proxy.

A Reverse Proxy is a device or server that sits between external users (such as those from the internet) and an internal server. It acts as an intermediary, accepting requests from external clients, forwarding them to the internal server, and then returning the server’s response to the client. In the context of email, a reverse proxy can inspect incoming email requests and transmit them to the internal email server. This configuration not only ensures that the internal email server is not directly exposed to the internet, but it can also provide added security by filtering malicious traffic and handling load balancing.

Now, let's break down why the other options are not suitable:

• A. Web Proxy: A web proxy is typically used to handle HTTP and HTTPS traffic. It forwards requests from clients (users) to web servers on their behalf, caching content and filtering web traffic. Web proxies are not typically used to relay email traffic, which typically uses protocols such as SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol). Therefore, a web proxy is not suitable for this email relay task.

• B. WAF (Web Application Firewall): A WAF is designed to protect web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic. It is typically used to detect and prevent web application attacks such as SQL injection or cross-site scripting (XSS). While a WAF can help secure the perimeter of a network and can be used in conjunction with reverse proxies, it does not specifically handle the task of relaying or inspecting email requests from the internet to an internal email server.

• D. NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System): A NIDS is a system designed to monitor network traffic for signs of suspicious activity or attacks. It is not a device that directly handles or relays traffic between clients and servers. Instead, it analyzes traffic to detect anomalies or potential security breaches. While NIDS is important for security monitoring, it does not function as a perimeter device for inspecting and transmitting email requests.

Therefore, the correct choice is C. Reverse proxy, as it directly fulfills the role of inspecting and transmitting email requests between the internet and the internal email server.