Microsoft SC-900 Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 9 Q161-180

Visit here for our full Microsoft SC-900 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 161: Which Microsoft 365 solution allows organizations to classify, label, and protect sensitive emails and documents using automated rules, encryption, and access controls across cloud and on-premises environments? A) Microsoft Information Protection B) Microsoft Intune C) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint D) Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management Answer: A) Microsoft Information Protection Explanation: Microsoft Information Protection allows organizations to classify, label, and protect sensitive emails and documents using automated rules, encryption, and access controls across cloud and on-premises environments….

Microsoft SC-900 Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 8 Q141-160

Visit here for our full Microsoft SC-900 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 141: Which Microsoft 365 solution allows organizations to classify sensitive content, apply protection policies, and track document usage to ensure regulatory compliance and prevent unauthorized access? A) Microsoft Information Protection B) Microsoft Intune C) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint D) Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management Answer: A) Microsoft Information Protection Explanation: Microsoft Information Protection allows organizations to classify sensitive content, apply protection policies, and track document usage to ensure regulatory compliance and prevent unauthorized access. In modern enterprise environments,…

Microsoft SC-900 Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 7 Q121-140

Visit here for our full Microsoft SC-900 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 121: Which Microsoft 365 solution allows organizations to monitor and respond to suspicious sign-ins, identity risks, and compromised accounts by analyzing authentication patterns and user behavior across the network? A) Microsoft Defender for Identity B) Microsoft Intune C) Microsoft Information Protection D) Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management Answer: A) Microsoft Defender for Identity Explanation: Microsoft Defender for Identity allows organizations to monitor and respond to suspicious sign-ins, identity risks, and compromised accounts by analyzing authentication patterns and user…

Microsoft SC-900 Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 6 Q101-120

Visit here for our full Microsoft SC-900 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 101: Which Microsoft 365 solution allows organizations to classify emails and documents, apply protection policies automatically, and enforce compliance requirements across both cloud and on-premises environments? A) Microsoft Information Protection B) Microsoft Intune C) Azure Active Directory Conditional Access D) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint Answer: A) Microsoft Information Protection Explanation: Microsoft Information Protection enables organizations to classify emails and documents, apply protection policies automatically, and enforce compliance requirements across both cloud and on-premises environments. As organizations adopt hybrid…

Microsoft SC-900 Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 5 Q81-100

Visit here for our full Microsoft SC-900 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 81: Which Microsoft 365 solution allows organizations to identify, classify, and protect sensitive content in real time, including emails, documents, and collaboration tools, based on user activity and content inspection? A) Microsoft Information Protection B) Microsoft Intune C) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint D) Microsoft Purview Compliance Portal Answer: A) Microsoft Information Protection Explanation: Microsoft Information Protection enables organizations to identify, classify, and protect sensitive content in real time, including emails, documents, and collaboration tools, based on user activity…

Microsoft SC-900 Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 4 Q61-80

Visit here for our full Microsoft SC-900 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 61: Which Microsoft 365 solution enables organizations to classify, label, and enforce protection on emails, documents, and other collaboration content based on sensitivity and regulatory requirements? A) Microsoft Information Protection B) Microsoft Intune C) Azure Active Directory Conditional Access D) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint Answer: A) Microsoft Information Protection Explanation: Microsoft Information Protection provides organizations with the ability to classify, label, and enforce protection on emails, documents, and collaboration content based on sensitivity and regulatory requirements. This ensures…

Microsoft MS-700 Microsoft 365 Certified: Teams Administrator Associate Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 2 Q21-40

Visit here for our full Microsoft MS-700 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 21: Your organization wants to ensure that Teams meeting transcripts for executive leadership meetings are stored in a restricted SharePoint location that only the executive assistant team can access. What should you configure? A) Create a sensitivity label that forces saving transcripts to a protected SharePoint library B) Use a Teams meeting policy to redirect transcript storage C) Configure a DLP policy to block transcript storage in user OneDrive accounts D) Enable compliance recording for all executive meetings…

Microsoft MS-700 Microsoft 365 Certified: Teams Administrator Associate Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 1 Q1-20

Visit here for our full Microsoft MS-700 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 1: Which approach gives the most flexible, carrier-independent solution for integrating an existing on-premises telephony infrastructure with Microsoft Teams while retaining full control over routing and regulatory compliance? A) Configure Teams Direct Routing with an SBC and enable PSTN connectivity for users. B) Use Microsoft Calling Plans assigned to each user for PSTN access. C) Deploy Cloud Voicemail only and rely on SIP trunking from on-premises PBX. D) Enable Operator Connect for PSTN services and assign…

VMware 2V0-21.23 vSphere 8.x Professional Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 10 Q181-200

Visit here for our full VMware 2V0-21.23 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 181:  A vSphere administrator wants to migrate a running VM between hosts while keeping its storage in place. Which feature should be used? A) vMotion B) Storage vMotion C) Snapshots D) Content Library Answer: A) vMotion Explanation: vMotion is a critical feature in VMware vSphere that enables administrators to move a running virtual machine from one ESXi host to another without downtime. When performing a vMotion migration, the CPU state, memory contents, and network connections of the virtual…

VMware 2V0-21.23 vSphere 8.x Professional Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 9 Q161-180

Visit here for our full VMware 2V0-21.23 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 161:  A vSphere administrator wants to migrate a running VM from one host to another without downtime. Which feature should be used? A) vMotion B) Storage vMotion C) Snapshots D) Content Library Answer: A) vMotion Explanation:  vMotion is a key feature in vSphere that allows live migration of virtual machines from one ESXi host to another while the VM continues to run without interruption. During the migration, vMotion transfers the VM’s memory state, CPU state, and network connections…

VMware 2V0-21.23 vSphere 8.x Professional Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 8 Q141-160

Visit here for our full VMware 2V0-21.23 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 141:  A vSphere administrator wants to ensure that a critical VM continues to run without downtime if the host fails. Which feature should be used? A) vSphere Fault Tolerance B) DRS C) vSphere Replication D) Storage I/O Control Answer: A) vSphere Fault Tolerance Explanation:  vSphere Fault Tolerance (FT) is designed to provide continuous availability for virtual machines by creating a live, secondary VM that runs in lockstep with the primary VM on a separate ESXi host. The secondary…

VMware 2V0-21.23 vSphere 8.x Professional Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 7 Q121-140

Visit here for our full VMware 2V0-21.23 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 121:  A vSphere administrator wants to ensure that a virtual machine continues running even if a single ESXi host fails in the cluster. Which feature provides this level of protection? A) vSphere HA B) DRS C) Storage I/O Control D) vSphere Replication Answer: A) vSphere HA Explanation:  vSphere High Availability (HA) is a critical feature designed to maintain the availability of virtual machines in a cluster environment in case of host failures. When HA is enabled on a…

VMware 2V0-21.23 vSphere 8.x Professional Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 6 Q101-120

Visit here for our full VMware 2V0-21.23 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 101:  A vSphere administrator needs to minimize downtime during host patching while ensuring that virtual machines automatically migrate to other hosts without manual intervention. Which feature must be enabled? A) vSphere DRS B) vSphere Replication C) vSphere Fault Tolerance C) vSphere Auto Deploy Answer: A) vSphere DRS Explanation:  vSphere DRS provides the automation needed to migrate running workloads during host maintenance. When a host enters maintenance mode, the cluster automatically shifts virtual machines to other available hosts using…

VMware 2V0-21.23 vSphere 8.x Professional Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 5 Q81-100

Visit here for our full VMware 2V0-21.23 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 81:  A vSphere administrator notices that several workloads experience degraded performance after enabling vSphere Lifecycle Manager image-based management on a cluster. What is the most likely cause? A) The cluster entered remediation mode and hosts temporarily ran with reduced capacity B) The image does not include the correct vendor add-on required for optimal device performance C) Storage policies became invalid and forced automatic VM migrations D) DRS disabled resource pools during baseline recalculation Answer: B) The image does…

VMware 2V0-21.23 vSphere 8.x Professional Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 4 Q61-80

Visit here for our full VMware 2V0-21.23 exam dumps and practice test questions. Question 61:  A vSphere administrator wants to minimize guest OS downtime during ESXi host maintenance while keeping migration traffic off the production network. Which configuration best meets this requirement? A) Configure vMotion on the management network B) Create a dedicated vMotion network on separate physical NICs C) Enable vMotion on the vSAN network D) Use a distributed switch without assigning a dedicated vMotion VMkernel Answer: B) Create a dedicated vMotion network on separate physical NICs Explanation:  Enabling migration traffic…

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